Test 02 Flashcards
Which of the following devices should be installed as an intermediary between your clients and the web servers they want to connect to make an HTTP request from the client, check it, and then forward it to its destination?
A. Proxy Server
B. File Server
C. DHCP Server
D. DNS Server
A.
A proxy server takes a whole HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination computer on the Internet. When the reply comes back, it checks it and then shuttles it back to the LAN computer. A proxy can be used for other types of traffic too. A proxy server can usually operate either as a transparent service, in which case the client requires no special configuration or as non-transparent.
Previously selected C
Which of the following types of data should you transmit over TCP?
A. An order for $50,000 stock purchase
B. Streaming video from YouTube
C. A Skype phone call with your friend
D. Streaming music while you work.
A.
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a slower but more reliable data delivery protocol. TCP is responsible for ensuring that packets arrive error-free and without loss. If you are doing something that must get to the destination without errors or data loss, such as a banking transaction or stock trade, it should be sent over TCP by your web browser. Web browsing over ports 80 and 443 uses TCP.
Which of the following types of encryption is considered the most secure to utilize in a SOHO network?
A. WEP
B. WPS
C. WPA
D. WPA2
D.
WPA2 is the most secure option presented in this question. WPA2 utilizes a 128-bit or 256-bit encryption key to protect data in transit using the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES). If you use a strong password, WPA2 is considered extremely secure in modern networks.
Which of the following is a public IP address?
A. 10.3.2.1
B. 192.168.2.1
C. 169.254.2.1
D. 8.4.2.1
D.
The IP address of 8.4.2.1 is public and is therefore routable. The IP address of 10.3.2.1 is a private Class A IP address, and therefore non-routable. The IP address of 192.168.2.1 is a private Class C IP address, and therefore non-routable. The IP address of 169.254.2.1 is an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Address), and therefore non-routable.
Which of the following is an APIPA or link-local address?
A. 192.168.1.34
B. 33.52.7.83
C. 169.254.65.23
D. 127.0.0.1
C.
An APIPA (Automatic Private IP Address) is also known as a link-local address. The computer uses this address space when it fails to receive a dynamic IP from a DHCP server properly. APIPA addresses always take the form of 169.254.x.x.
Which type of internet connection allows for high-speed bi-directional data communication over a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) connection?
A. Fiber
B. ISDN
C. DSL
D. Cable
D.
A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network’s high bandwidth.
You have been asked to install a new wireless network for your company’s new branch office. Your boss wants the network to be high-speed and is willing to buy new hardware and network adapters to ensure all the devices can communicate on the new network. Which of the following wireless standards should you install for the fastest data transfer speeds?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11ac
D.
802.11ac networks are the fastest wireless networks in use today. They support speeds of up to 1 Gbps using the 5.0 GHz frequency band. 802.11n can use both 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequencies but only supports 108-600 Mbps speeds. 802.11a uses the 5.0 GHz frequency and supports 54 Mbps, while 802.11g uses the 2.4 GHz frequency and supports 54 Mbps.
You are troubleshooting a memory issue on a customer’s laptop and have determined that the memory module needs to be replaced. You walk into the storage room to select a memory module to use as a replacement. Which of the following choices would be the MOST LIKELY choice for you to select for use on the laptop?
A. DDR4
B. Single Channel
C. ECC
D. SODIMM
D.
Small Outline Dual Inline Memory Modules (SODIMM) is a small form factor used in memory modules. SODIMM is used in nearly every laptop available. For the exam, if you see a question asking about memory and laptops, the answer will most likely be SODIMM. SODIMM is also heavily used in Micro PCs (like Mac Minis) and all-in-one computers due to their smaller size.
What describes how many times the image on the monitor changes per second?
A. Aspect ratio
B. Refresh rate
C. Frame rate
D. Yaw rate
B.
Refresh rate is defined by the vertical scan frequency of a monitor and how many times in one second an image can be redrawn on the screen. LCD monitors have a fixed refresh rate based on the specifications of its panel. Generally, a monitor is rated with a refresh rate of 60 Hz, 72 Hz, or 120 Hz, with the higher refresh rate being considered better quality and easier on the user’s eyes. For high-performance gaming systems, a 120 Hz monitor is desired for smoother motion and graphics.
Jennifer just moved from France to the United States. She unpacks her computer and plugs it into the wall using a power adapter to ensure the plug connects properly. When she tries to power on the computer, the screen remains blank, she doesn’t hear the fans spinning, and nothing appears to be happening. What is MOST likely the problem?
A. The power supply’s output is set to 115V
B. The power supply’s input is set to 220V
C. The power supply’s output is set to 220V
D. The power supply’s input is set to 115V
B.
It is always important to ensure the correct power supply input setting is used for your computer based on the location in which you are using it. In Europe, the nominal voltage of a power outlet is 220V. Therefore, Jennifer’s computer is probably still selected for a power supply input setting of 220V. In the United States, the nominal voltage is 115V. Therefore, Jennifer needs to flip the power configuration switch on the power supply’s input selector from 220V to 115V to operate properly. If the computer was incorrectly set to 115V and plugged into a 220V outlet, the power supply could be destroyed or caught fire.
Which RAID solution will provide the BEST speed and redundancy for a backup and disaster recovery server?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
D.
RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency. With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. This is not only the best option presented in this question but also the most expensive option.
Your boss wants to be able to remotely print from her laptop and smartphone while away from the office. She asks you to set up a method to ensure that she doesn’t have to go back to her office to print a document. Which of the following should be configured to meet this requirement?
A. Integrated print server
B. Cloud printing
C. WiFi printing
D. Bluetooth printing
B.
In this case, your boss asked for a simple way to print from her mobile devices when she is out of the office. Therefore, you should configure cloud printing. For example, Google’s Cloud Print allows a user to print from any device in the world, regardless of their current location. After printing, the printed papers would be ready in her office when she returns.
You have signed up for a web-based appointment scheduling application to help you manage your new IT technical support business. What type of solution would this be categorized as?
A. DaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. SaaS
D.
Software as a Service (SaaS) is used to provide web applications to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Officer 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. QuickBooks Online is one example of a SaaS solution for accounting.
Which of the following is a security concern with using a cloud service provider and could result in a data breach caused by data remnants?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Metered services
C. On-Demand
D. Resource Pooling
A.
Rapid elasticity can be a security threat to your organization’s data due to data remanences. Data remanence is the residual representation of digital data that remains even after attempts have been made to remove or erase it. So, when a cloud resource is deprovisioned and returned to the cloud service provider, it can be issued to another organization for use. If the data was not properly erased from the underlying storage, it could be exposed to the other organization. For this reason, all cloud-based storage drives should be encrypted by default to prevent data remanence from being read by others.
During a disaster recovery, which of the following statements is true?
A. A virtual machine has less downtime than a physical sever
B. A virtual machine has more downtime than a physical sever
C. Both a virtual server and physical server has the same downtime
D. A virtual machine cannot be used for redundancy or load balancing
A.
A virtual machine can usually be restored much faster than a physical server. Physical servers must be modified to fit the right drivers for the disk drives, NIC, and other necessary components whenever they must be rebuilt after a crash. Often, a new physical server will also be required to replace a faulty one, and then the right drivers are needed to ensure a smooth transition. Conversely, a virtual machine can be recreated using another instance, clone, or restoration from a backup in much less time. Therefore, the downtime associated with virtual machines and their restoral is much lower.