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Compia A+ Core 1 (220-1001) > Test 01 > Flashcards

Test 01 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following form factors provides a mini card interface used to connect a laptop’s SSD at higher bus speeds than SATA?

A. 1.8”
B. 2.5”
C. 3.5”
D. M.2

A

D.

M.2 s a new set of form factors for mini card interfaces.
An M.2 SSD provides a direct interface with the PCI Express bus to provide higher bus speeds than a
SATA connection. M.2 adapters come in four different sizes based on their length.
The one chosen depends on your model of laptop and the space available within the case.
The 80mm variety is the most common one used in modern laptops.

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2
Q

Which of the following types of hard drives would be used in a gaming laptop to increase the system’s boot-up performance while providing a large amount of storage at a lower overall cost?

A. SSD
B. ​Optical drive
C. ​Hybrid drive
D. ​Magnetic drive

A

C.
A hybrid hard drive (SSHD) is a storage drive that combines the large storage capacity of an HDD with the faster read/write speed of an SSD. The majority of the drive uses a spinning disk and actuator arm, like a traditional magnetic drive, but it also contains a small SSD (solid-state drive) as part of the combined hybrid drive unit. This allows data to be written to either the SSD portion (for data accessed more frequently like the OS and programs) while using the HDD portion to store larger amounts of rarely accessed files (such as photos and video files). Hybrid hard drives constantly monitor the data retrieved from storage, and it automatically determines which data you open the most. It places the files that you use most often on the SSD to read/write that data faster.

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3
Q

You have been asked to set up the email on a corporate laptop. The employees of Dion Training are only allowed to receive their email on one device. The email should be removed from the server’s mailbox whenever the client connects to the server to download the messages. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow an employee to receive their mail on their laptop and meet these requirements?

A. POP3
B. ​SMTP
C. ​IMAP
D. ​HTTPS

A

A.

You should configure POP3 because the mail is downloaded to the device and removes the mail from the server’s mailbox by default. IMAP does not remove the mail from the server when the client connects but instead maintains a copy on the server indefinitely until the user forces it to be deleted. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails.

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4
Q

Your firewall is blocking outbound email traffic that is attempting to be sent. Which port should you verify is set to ALLOW in the firewall to ensure your emails are being sent?

A. 22
B. ​25
C. ​80
D. ​143

A

B.

Email servers rely on port 25 to send emails out of the network.

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5
Q

Which of the following ports is used by the Service Location Protocol when organizing and locating printers, databases, and other resources in a network?

A. 443
B. 427
C. 445
D 389

A

B.

Port 427 is used by SLP. The Service Location Protocol (SLP) is a protocol or method of organizing and locating the resources (such as printers, disk drives, databases, e-mail directories, and schedulers) in a network. This is an alternative protocol to LDAP in newer networks. While you may not have this port memorized, you should have memorized ports 389, 443, and 445 and identified that they were not associated with printers.

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6
Q

Jason would like the fastest internet available at his house, and he called his local fiber-optic provider. Which of the following offers would provide the fastest service to Jason’s home network?

A. ​FTTH
B. ​FTTN
C. ​FTTC
D. ​HFC

A

A.

“Fiber to the X” (FTTx) is commonly used to describe where the fiber connection ends between the service and the subscriber. The closer the fiber is to the user’s network, the faster the service. FTTH (fiber to the house) provides fiber directly to the user’s home network making it the fastest option. Traditionally, you will find 1 Gbps connections or higher with FTTH. FTTN (fiber to the node) or FTTC (fiber to the curb/cabinet) provides fiber only to the local area or neighborhood but then uses copper cabling from the node/cabinet/curb to the home network, which slows down the network (generally, 100-200 Mbps). HFC (Hybrid Fiber Coax) is similar to FTTN/FTTC, except that coaxial cable is used from the cabinet to the home to increase the speed (generally 300-500 Mbps).

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7
Q

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band and reaches speeds of up to 54 Mbps?

A. 802.11a
B. ​802.11b
C. ​802.11g
D. ​802.11n
E. ​802.11ac
A

A.

The wireless 802.11a standard uses the 5 GHz frequency band and can reach speeds of up to 54 Mbps. Unfortunately, when this was first released, the radios to operate with this standard were fairly expensive, so it did not sell well or become widespread.

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8
Q

You connect a VOIP device on a user’s desk and need to connect it to a PoE enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch?

A. ​CAT 3
B. ​Coaxial
C. ​CAT 6
D. ​Fiber

A

C.

Key Term : PoE (Power over Ethernet)

VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device’s power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.

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9
Q

Your home network has a wireless access point (WAP) that allows your smartphone and tablet to connect to your internal network. The WAP is connected to a router and a cable modem to provide internet access. A coaxial cable carries the network traffic from the cable modem to the cable company’s central office for transmission to and from the internet. Which of the following types of networks would best describe this network configuration between your home network and the internet through your cable modem connection?

A. ​PAN
B. ​LAN
C. ​MAN
D. ​WAN

A

D.

A wide area network (WAN) is a telecommunications network that extends over a large geographical area for the primary purpose of computer networking. Wide area networks are often established with leased telecommunication circuits. This is usually a DSL, cable connection, fiber connection, or satellite connection in a home network.

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10
Q

Which type of internet connection is terminated at a local switching center and requires a different type of media between the switching center and the end customer?

A. ​Fiber
B. ​ISDN
C. ​DSL
D. ​Cable

A

C.

DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user’s home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection).

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11
Q

Which type of wireless network utilizes the 2.4 GHz frequency band and reaches up to 11 Mbps speeds?

A. ​802.11a
B. ​802.11b
C. ​802.11g
D. ​802.11n
E. ​802.11ac
A

B.

The wireless 802.11b standard supports the use of the 2.4 GHz frequency band and can reach speeds of up to 11 Mbps. Even though 802.11a was a faster standard, the 802.11b standard gained more widespread adoption due to the low cost of manufacturing the radios for use in the 2.4 GHz frequency band.

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12
Q

Which of the following is a public IP address?

A. 192.168.1.45
B. ​172.18.2.68
C. ​10.0.1.45
D. ​68.24.91.15

A

D.

There are three private address ranges. Class A private addresses are in the 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 range. Class B private addresses are in the 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 range. Class C private addresses are in the range 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. Only 68.24.91.15 is outside of these ranges; therefore, it is a public IP address.

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13
Q

You have just set up a Minecraft server on a spare computer within your network and want your friends to connect to it over the internet.
What do you need to configure in your SOHO router to allow your friends to connect to the new Minecraft server you created?

A. ​Update the firmware
B. ​Configure port forwarding
C. ​Enable DHCP
D. ​Configure your Wi-Fi to use Channel 11

A

B.

Port forwarding maps one port to another. If you want an external user to be able to access an internal computer or server, you will need to setup port forwarding on your SOHO router to allow your external users to access the server within the internal (private) LAN.

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14
Q

You are trying to send an email to your boss, but it refuses to leave your outbox. You see an error message displayed on the screen that tells you to verify your outbound server settings. Which of the following servers should you configure your email client to use to ensure your emails are being sent?

A. SMTP server
B. ​SSH server
C. ​POP3 server
D. ​DNS server

A

A.

SMTP is the Sendmail Transfer Protocol. An SMTP server uses the SMTP protocol to send emails from one server to another. If your mail client cannot send an email properly, it is likely an issue with your SMTP server.

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15
Q

You are configuring a new server for a client. The client has purchased five 1 TB hard drives and would like the server’s storage system to provide redundancy and double fault tolerance. Which of the following configurations would BEST meet the client’s requirements?

A. RAID 0
B. ​RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10

A

D.

RAID 10 provides for redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10, also known as RAID 1+0, is a RAID configuration that combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data. It requires a minimum of four disks and stripes data across mirrored pairs. As long as one disk in each mirrored pair is functional, data can be retrieved. RAID 5 is a redundant array of independent disks configuration that uses disk striping with parity, but it only provides single fault tolerance. RAID 0 utilizes stripping, so it provides no redundancy. RAID 1 utilizes mirroring, which provides for redundancy and single fault tolerance.

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16
Q

A client has asked you to build a computer to use as part of their home theater system. The HTPC will be used primarily to stream videos in their living room and must have a small form factor to fit into their entertainment center next to their surround sound system. Which of the following motherboards would be the BEST choice for an HTPC system?

A. ATX
B. Mini-ITX
C. ITX
D. Micro-ATX

A

B.

Mini-ITX is the most commonly used form factor with HTPC systems because they require the smallest fans or passive cooling, which minimizes the noise produced by the system.

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17
Q

Tom, a system administrator, has installed and configured a new domain server for a corporate network. What is the next step that he should perform to allow the company’s employees to access the server on the corporate domain?

A. Install an application
B. ​Configure access to the file server
C. ​Install antivirus protection
D. ​Configure the user’s account

A

D.

After the server is installed, configured, and setup, a system administrator must create and configure each user’s account to access the domain via their local PC. Each account should be configured using the concept of least privilege to maximize the security of the domain server and the network. After configuring the user’s account, the administrator can install the antivirus, applications, and configure access to the file server.

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18
Q 
Which of the following technologies can provide up to 40 Gbps of bandwidth?
​
A. eSATA
B. USB 2.0
C. FireWire 800
D. Thunderbolt
A

D.

Thunderbolt is the brand name of a hardware interface developed by Intel (in collaboration with Apple) that allows the connection of external peripherals to a computer. Thunderbolt 1 and 2 use the same connector as Mini DisplayPort (MDP), whereas Thunderbolt 3 re-uses the USB-C connector from USB. Thunderbolt 1 reached speeds of 10 Gbps, while Thunderbolt 2 reaches speeds of 20 Gbps. The latest versions, Thunderbolt 3 and 4, can reach speeds of up to 40 Gbps.

19
Q

You are working as a Managed Service Provider for a large chain of doctor’s offices. The company is opening a new office downtown. The office needs 2 computers to be installed at the receptionists’ desk to schedule appointments, read email, browse the web, and conduct basic word processing tasks. Which of the following type of computers would BEST meet the needs of this doctor’s office?

​
A. Touch screen kiosk
B. Audio/video editing workstation
​C. Thick client
D. CAD workstation
A

C.

A thick client (also called a fat client) is a computer that will perform the bulk of the data processing in client/server applications on the local computer. There is no need for continuous server communications with thick clients as it is mainly communicating archival storage information to the server. The thick client has an operating system and applications installed directly on its own hard drive. Thick clients are considered a standard workstation in most business environments and can support email, web browsing, word processing, and other basic tasks.

20
Q 
You are building a Desktop PC for a newly hired receptionist within your company. The computer's motherboard doesn't have a wireless network adapter integrated into it, so you need to purchase an expansion card to provide this functionality. Which of the following motherboard connections will most likely be used to connect the wireless network adapter card?
​
A. AGP
B. ​PCIe x16
C. PCIe x1
D. eSATA
A

C.

PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has a number of PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Network adapters and Wi-Fi network cards almost exclusively rely on a PCIe x1 expansion slots or a USB connection for their connectivity.

21
Q 
You are building a new server and want to ensure that its memory can allow the server to continue working even if there is an issue that corrupts data held within the memory modules. Which of the following types of memory should you select for the server?
​
A. Non-parity
B. Single-channel
​C. ECC
D. Dual-channel
A

C.

Error-correcting code memory (ECC memory) is a type of computer data storage that can detect and correct the most common kinds of internal data corruption. ECC memory is used in most computers where data corruption cannot be tolerated under any circumstances, such as for scientific or financial computing and mission-critical servers.

22
Q 
A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has installed two 1 TB hard drives operating at 7200 RPM in a RAID 1 configuration. How much usable storage space is contained in the NAS?
​
A. 0.5 TB
B. ​1 TB
C. 1.5 TB
D. 2 TB
A

B.

Since the NAS is using a RAID 1 configuration, it is a mirrored array. Both 1 TB HDDs are installed, but a full copy of the data must be contained on each drive. Therefore, there is still only 1 TB of usable storage capacity in the NAS.

23
Q

Which of the following wiring standards should be used when installing ethernet cabling in an office or data center?

​
A. RG-6
B. ​RS-232
C. T-568B
E. RJ-11
A

C.

The T568A and T568B standards are used when installing ethernet cabling. If both ends of the cable use T568A, the cable being created is called a straight-through or patch cable. If one end of the cable is T568A and the other is T568B, then the cable is called a crossover cable. By default, the Department of Defense uses T568A writing on both ends of a cable, and most other organizations use the ANSI/TIA/EIA standards that dictate the use of T568B on both ends of the cable.

24
Q 
Dion Training has asked you to consult on the installation of their new file server. The current server consists of a RAID 5 array with three 1 TB 7200 RPM hard disk drives. Due to increase reliance on the new file server, you have been asked to recommend a RAID solution that will help ensure there is no unscheduled downtime, no data loss, and increase speed/performance over the current file server. Based on these requirements, which of the following RAID solutions should you recommend?
​
A. RAID 0
B. ​RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
A

D.

A RAID 10 is the best solution to meet all of these requirements since it provides a fully redundant RAID with both mirroring and speed/performance advantages. RAID 5 provides redundancy, but it will not improve the speed/performance over the current file server in use since it was also a RAID 5. RAID 0 and RAID 1 can provide mirroring (redundancy) or speed/performance, but not both.

25
You just installed an SSD into a laptop to increase the storage speed of the device. Which of the following should you configure to increase the lifespan of the newly installed SSD? ​ A. Disable regularly scheduled defragmentation of the SSD ​B. Enable the power-saving mode of the SSD ​C. Enable the paging file within the operating system ​D. Disable memory caching on the SSD
A. An SSD (Solid-State Drive) is limited in the total number of write functions that can occur over its lifespan. Due to the immediate ability of an SSD to locate data on the drive (since there is no spinning platter that must be moved to reach the right area to retrieve the data like a regular magnetic hard drive), there is no need to defragment an SSD. When you defrag a hard drive, especially an SSD, it will cause tons of small write accesses, reducing the lifespan of the hard drive. And since data is not being read sequentially, it doesn't matter if the file is stored in a hundred different places; the performance will remain the same. Therefore, you should disable any regularly scheduled defragmentation tasks when you are using an SSD to extend its lifespan.
26
You have just finished installing a virtual machine on a workstation. Your boss asks you to install a second virtual machine with the same settings. To save time, which of the following functions should you use? ``` ​ A. Shadow Copy B. Secure Copy ​C. Cloning D. Migration ```
C. Cloning is a function that allows you to fully copy an existing virtual machine and its current configuration. This allows you to quickly deploy an exact copy without having to reconfigure everything again manually.
27
Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow your company’s employees to use the service while preventing anyone else from accessing it. What type of cloud model would you recommend to ensure the contents are best secured from those outside your company? ``` ​ A. Public Cloud B. ​Private Cloud C. Hybrid Cloud ​D. Community Cloud ```
B. A private cloud service would be the best recommendation to protect and secure the services from those outside the company from accessing its contents. The private cloud is defined as computing services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. Also called an internal or corporate cloud, private cloud computing gives businesses many of the benefits of a public cloud - including self-service, scalability, and elasticity - with the additional control and customization available from dedicated resources over a computing infrastructure hosted on-premises. Private clouds also deliver a higher level of security and privacy through both company firewalls and internal hosting to ensure operations and sensitive data are not accessible to third-party providers.
28
You are working as part of the server team for an online retail store. Due to the upcoming holidays, your boss is worried that the current servers may not handle the increased demand during a big sale. Which of the following cloud computing concepts can quickly allow services to scale upward during busy periods and scale down during slower periods based on the changing user demand? ``` ​ A. Resource pooling B. ​On-demand C. Rapid elasticity D. Metered services ```
C. In cloud computing, the term rapid elasticity is used to describe the scalable provisioning or the capability to provide scalable cloud computing services. Rapid elasticity is very critical to meet the fluctuating demands of cloud users. The downside of rapid elasticity implementations is that they can cause significant loading of the system due to the high number of resource allocation and deallocation requests.
29
Your company has decided to move all of its data into the cloud. Your company is small and has decided to purchase some on-demand cloud storage resources from a commercial provider (such as Google Drive) as its primary cloud storage solution. Which of the following types of clouds is your company using? ``` ​ A. Hybrid B. ​Private C. Public D. Community ```
C The public cloud is defined as computing services offered by third-party providers over the public internet, making them available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. Amazon Web Services, Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud are three popular public cloud platforms.
30
Your company uses a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environment for employees to access their desktop applications. To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee's office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee? ``` ​ A. Connect the thin client to the network B. Install the operating system C. Install the latest security updates D. Connect the device to a monitor E. Install the necessary applications F. Connect the thin client to a printer ```
A, C, E A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, you will first connect it to the network, update its security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.
31
``` You want to create a website for your new technical support business. You decide to purchase an on-demand cloud-based server and install Linux, Apache, and WordPress on it to run your website. Which of the following best describes which type of service you have just purchased? ​ A. DaaS B. PaaS ​C. IaaS D. SaaS ```
C. Infrastructure as a Service (Iaas) is focused on moving your servers and computers into the cloud. If you purchase a server in the cloud and then install and manage the operating system and software, this is IaaS.
32
Your company just hired a graphic designer. You have been asked to install a new, high-end PCIe x16 graphics card into one of the corporate workstations so the new designer can get to work. After installing the card, you attempt to power on the computer. The computer makes some odd noises when you press the power button, but the monitor displays the words, 'no source.' What is MOST likely the issue? ​ A. The graphics card installed in the workstation was defective B. The workstation is overheating due to the graphics card ​C. The workstation's power supply isn't powerful enough to support the card D. The processor in the workstation isn't powerful enough to support the card
C. High-end graphics cards generally require additional power to operate. Most corporate workstations come with minimal power supplies (usually 250-300 watts) that cannot provide the additional power required to operate a high-end graphics card. In this case, the power supply should be upgraded to at least a 500-750 watt power supply.
33
If you are troubleshooting a S.M.A.R.T error on a customer's PC, which of the following devices would you be troubleshooting? ``` ​ A. Memory B. Power supply C. Processor D. Hard drive ```
D. S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) is a monitoring technology that monitors storage devices like HDD (hard disk drive) and SSD (solid-state drive). This technology is used to provide the proper attribute errors or the drive's current state to warn users and technicians of a pending drive failure.
34
Which of the following is the third step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? ​ A. Identify the problem B. Document findings, actions, and outcomes C. Test the theory to determine the cause D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution
C. For the exam, it is important that you are able to list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
35
A student wants to use their workstation to run several virtual machines. The workstation currently has an i7 quad-core processor, 4 GB of DDR3 memory, a 512 GB SSD, and a gigabit network interface card. Which of the following components should the student upgrade in order to support multiple virtual machines running simultaneously on the Windows workstation? ``` ​ A. SSD B. CPU C. RAM D. NIC ```
C. This workstation is sufficient to run multiple virtual machines as long as the RAM is upgraded. Windows 10 requires at least 2 GB of memory, so only having 4 GB of memory for the entire system is too little to run multiple VMs. It is recommended to upgrade to at least 16 GB of RAM to allow this workstation to support multiple VMs. A virtualization machine needs a lot of memory, multiple processor cores (this already has 4 cores), adequate storage (512 GB of SSD is adequate), and a high-speed network card (1 Gbps is sufficient).
36
Your company has established a Security Operations Center (SOC) that operates 24/7. They have several 65" plasma TVs at the front of the room that are used as computer displays to show open tickets. You turned off the televisions to clean the screens and noticed that the company logo is still visible in each of the screens' upper left corner. Which of the following should you do to correct this? ``` ​ A. Degause the television ​B. Replace the video card C. Replace the HDMI cable ​D. Replace the plasma TVs ```
D. The logo in the upper right corner has been burned into the display since it is a static image. This is common with plasma displays and TVs. To fix this, you need to replace the TVs. If you plan to have a lot of static content on a display, you should use an OLED or LED display instead. If burn-in was experienced on old CRT monitors, you could run a degaussing program to erase the burn-in. Unfortunately, this will not work for plasma, LED, or OLED displays, though.
37
The large multi-function network printer has recently begun to print pages that appear to have a dust-like coating when handled by the users. Which of the following components should be replaced based on this description? ``` ​ A. Toner cartridge B. Drum ​C. Scanner assembly ​D. Fuser ```
D. The printer passes the paper through the fuser, a pair of heated rollers. As the paper passes through these rollers, the loose toner powder melts, fusing with the paper's fibers. The fuser rolls the paper to the output tray, and you have your finished page. The fuser also heats the paper itself, of course, which is why pages are always hot when they come out of a laser printer or photocopier. If the paper feels dusty or the toner doesn't adhere to the printer, this usually indicates a failing fuser that needs to be replaced.
38
Natalie’s computer is having difficulty accessing websites. She reports that she started receiving pop-ups on her screen before this connectivity problem began. You search the computer and find a piece of malware installed, so you remove it. You also do a full virus scan of the computer, ensure her computer has the most up-to-date virus definitions, and is set the anti-virus software to automatically scan the computer every night at 2 am. As you return the computer to Natalie, you verify that she can now successfully access the websites again. What is the NEXT step you should perform according to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? ​ A. Verify functionality B. Test the theory to determine the cause C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes D. Establish a theory of probable cause
C. There are 6 steps in the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology: (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution, (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures, (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes. Based on the question, you just finished performing step 5, so the NEXT step is step 6.
39
Jason created an email with sensitive information. To secure the contents, he encrypted the email before sending it to the recipient. The recipient received the email in their email client but cannot decrypt and read the email's contents. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue? ​ A. The receiver's POP3 server is offline ​B. The receiver's SMTP server is offline C. The receiver's client cannot read S/MIME content D. The receiver's client cannot encrypt the content
C. The email would rely on S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions), a standard for the public key encryption and signing of MIME data within emails. The client may be unable to read the S/MIME contents due to a missing or corrupted digital certificate. SMTP is used for sending an email, not receiving and reading emails. The receiver would not be attempting to encrypt the content. They would be attempting to decrypt it. The receiver's POP3 server appears to be functional since they received the email. They simply cannot open/read it (which relies on S/MIME).
40
You should always ensure that a recent backup of all of the client's important and critical files has been created prior to making any changes to the computer. After all, it is easy to replace hardware if you break the computer, but the client's personal files may be irreplaceable. For example, if you accidentally delete or remove the customer's pictures of their baby, you can't just take new baby pictures to replace them! Question 81: Incorrect A client has a workstation with a RAID 5 configuration and reports that slower than normal performance occurs when reading/writing files to the RAID. You run a diagnostic program against the RAID, and the system passes all of the diagnostic tests without any issues. While you are running the tests, though, you heard clicking noises coming from the RAID. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the slow performance being experienced by the client? ``` ​ A. RAID controller B. ​SSD C. Cooling fan D. Hard drive ```
D. Based on the symptoms described, the RAID itself is fully functional, so the RAID controller is not causing any problems. This could be caused by a failing hard drive or the system overheating due to the slow performance. Since there is a clicking noise, this is most likely a hard drive failure since a cooling fan makes a whirring or grinding noise instead. Therefore, we can assume the RAID is made up of magnetic hard drives, and one of those hard disks is starting to fail. To replace the hard drive, you need to find a comparable drive that will work in the array, reboot the computer, and enter the RAID setup program to rebuild the array after replacing that hard drive. If you are using a RAID 1, RAID 5, or RAID 10, the system will continue to operate normally, but with slower performance, until you replace the hard drive and rebuild the RAID.
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You are working as a technician for a college. One of the professors has submitted a trouble ticket stating that the projector connected to the workstation in his classroom displays artifacts on the screen. The image is displayed on the screen is bright and appears to be displayed with the right size and in the right position, but the artifacts are obscuring certain portions of the image. What is the FIRST thing you should do to remove the artifacts from being displayed on the screen? ​ A. Increase the contrast on the projector ​B. Update the video driver on the workstation C. Modify the workstation's video resolution ​D. Replace the bulb in the projector
D. Visual artifacts displayed on the screen are often caused by a projector bulb near its end of life or if the projector bulb is defective. Therefore, you should attempt to replace the bulb in the projector to see if this solves the visual artifact issues described in this question.
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A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has only two hard drives available for use and needs to ensure that the data's fault tolerance and redundancy. Which of the following would be is the best configuration to implement? ``` ​ A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 5 ​D. RAID 10 ```
B. While either a RAID 0 and RAID 1 can be used with only two drives, only a RAID 1 will provide redundancy and fault tolerance. RAID 0 (striped array) provides no-fault tolerance, making a RAID 1 the best option to choose. With a RAID 1, one of the hard drives can fail while the other drive can still operate until the bad drive is replaced. A RAID 5 requires at least three hard drives to operate, and a RAID 10 requires at least four hard drives to operate; therefore, neither is an acceptable solution to this problem.
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Which of the following is true of a dedicated video card in a computer system? ​ A. Can be upgraded or replaced B. Less expensive than an integrated video card ​C. Share the use of the system's memory D. Cannot be upgraded or replaced
A. It is more expensive to have a dedicated GPU or video card, but it does provide higher performance than an integrated GPU. A dedicated GPU also can be upgraded with a newer graphics card in the future to increase performance. An integrated video card is built as part of the main system motherboard or CPU. An integrated GPU is cheaper than a dedicated GPU, but it has limited performance and shares the use of the computer system's RAM. An integrated video card cannot be upgraded since it is part of the processor or motherboard. If a system is being designed for gaming, video editing, or 3D rendering, it should use a separate video card with a dedicated GPU.
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A computer technician tries to determine if a computer with an Intel i7 processor has virtualization enabled to run a second operating system within VirtualBox. Which of the following should be checked to determine if the system can run a virtual machine? ``` ​ A. Verify AMD-V is installed ​B. Verify Hyper-V is installed C. Enable virtualization within Windows ​D. Enable virtualization within the BIOS ```
D. By checking the settings in the BIOS, it can be determined if virtualization was enabled. For an Intel processor, this option is usually listed as VT (Virtualization Technology). For an AMD processor, this is usually listed as AMD-V. Virtualization allows the system to run another operating system within a virtualized environment, such as VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V.

Compia A+ Core 1 (220-1001) (11 decks)

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