TERM TEST #2 Flashcards
1
Q
What does the central dogma of molecular biology consist of?
A
its the universal information flow from DNA to protein in order to convert genotype to phenotype
2
Q
In prokaryotes what does the Central dogma process look like?
A
Transcription and translation both occur in the cytoplasm in prokaryotes and therefore, both processes happen simultaneously
3
Q
in Eukaryotes what does the central dogma process look like?
A
transcription and process of the precursor mRNA molecules occur in the nucleus and translation occurs in the cytoplasm
4
Q
what is the one gene-one enzyme (protein) hypothesis?
A
in 1940s Beadle and Tatum hypothesized that genes encode enzymes that function at each step of a biochemical pathway needed to make an essential nutrient
- mutating a gene encoding an enzyme would cause a block in the metabolic pathway and the organism can no longer synthesize the needed nutrient (auxotroph)
5
Q
what is an auxotroph?
A
An auxotroph is an organism that cannot synthesize a particular essential nutrient on its own and must obtain it from its environment. This inability is due to a mutation in a gene involved in the biosynthetic pathway of that nutrient.
6
Q
information flow occurs in certain places on chromosomes called what?
A
genes
7
Q
genes encode for two types of RNA which are?
A
- coding RNA (mRNA): codes for protein/polypeptide
- noncoding RNA: tRNA, rRNA, snRNA, microRNA: does not code for a protein
8
Q
what is the genetic code?
A
nucleotide information to amino acid sequence
9
Q
For the genetic code information is contained in what?
A
4 nucleotide bases in DNA (A,T,G,C) OR RNA (A,U,G,C) sequences
10
Q
if a code has one-letter words how many combination?
A
4 combinations
11
Q
if a code has two-letter words how many combinations?
A
16 combinations
12
Q
if a code had three-letter words how many combination?
A
64 combinations
13
Q
If DNA has a three-letter code it is known as a what?
A
Triplet
14
Q
if RNA has a three-letter code it is known as a ?
A
codon
15
Q
genetic code is what ?
A
universal (same code in prokaryotes, eukaryotes and viruses)
16
Q
why is it that the universal code can allow foreign genes to be transferred and expressed in different host organisms
A
The universal genetic code means that the same codons specify the same amino acids in almost all organisms. This allows it to be transmitted to different host organisms because the host’s cellular machinery can read and translate the inserted genes correctly to produce the corresponding protein
17
Q
How does green fluorescent protein used from jellyfish help with for research from scientists?
A
main application is to monitor the spatial and temporal expression of a protein
18
Q
What are the key things we need to note about template and coding DNA strands?
A
in general for every gene, a RNA molecule is only produced (transcription) from one of the DNA strand (Template strand)
- the other DNA strand is the non template strand or coding strand (has same 5’to3’ orientation and sequence as mRNA molecules except uracil is substituted with thymine
- the template strand is always read from 3’-5’ by the RNA polymerase
-mRNA is synthesized in the 5’to3’ direction (by the RNA polymerase)
19
Q
A
20
Q
what the order for central dogma?
A
- DNA replication
- Transcription
- TRANSLATION
- PROTEIN
21
Q
Transcription of a gene occurs off only …?
A
one of the DNA strands (template) in a 5’- 3’ direction
22
Q
On chromosomal maps genes are shown on the coding strand true or false?
A
true
23
Q
on a prokaryote what are the rings labelled?
A
24
Q
Which came first DNA or RNA?
A
Likely RNA because able to store genetic information (code for amino acids like DNA) can also catalyze reaction (like an enzyme)
- DNA developed late with advantages over RNA such as more stable, and double stranded allows the complementary strand to be used as a template to repair the damaged strand
24
what can ribozymes do?
- they are ribonucleic acid enzymes they can catalyze their own synthesis and cleave RNA molecules (2 degree structure)
24
what is reverse transcription?
RNA--->DNA
- reverse transcriptase is in some viruses with RNA genomes (e.g retrovirsus)
- Viral RNA needs to be converted into viral DNA in order to integrate into the host's chromosome
- the host's transcription and translation machinery is hijacked to produce viral proteins from the viral DNA
- RNA based viruses enter the host cell
-viral RNA is reverse transcribed into DNA
-viral DNA integrates into the host genome
-Host cell machinery is used to produce viral proteins
- an example is HIV
24
what are the different parts of Transcriptional regulation of Gene expression?
This is how you make RNA molecules from genes
1. Initiation
2. Elongation
3. Termination
25
What do organisms phenotypes depend on?
an organisms phenotype depends of cell number, type, and function
26
is it true every cell in an organism has an identical genome (DNA sequence)
yes
27
How is the differentiatiation of cells determined?
by which genes are turned on and off (transcription) in each cell type
28
what is regenerative medicine?
growing a desired tissue type by turning on/off the appropriate genes using molecular techniques
29
What does a Gene include?
includes a promoter and transcriptional unit
30
What is a promoter?
DNA sequence (including TATA box) that specifies where transcription begins on the chromosome
31
where is the promoter located?
immediately "upstream" or 5' of transcriptional start point of the non-template or coding DNA strand
- the promoter is then recognized and bound by the transcriptional machinery that initiate transcription
32
what is the transcriptional UNIT?
part of the gene that is copied into RNA
33
34
what is RNA polymerases? and what are the job of them
Synthesizes RNA transcript in a 5' -3' direction (adds new ribonucleotides to 3'-OH) while reading DNA template in a 3'to5' direction
does not need a primer for initiation of RNA synthesis (different from DNA polymerases)
Unwinds and rewinds DNA helix during RNA synthesis
35
what are the three types of RNA. polymerases in eukaryotes?
1. RNA pol I: rRNA
2. RNA pol II: mRNA
3. RNA pol III: tRNA
36
What is the job of the RNA pol I:
synthesize ribosomal RNA (rRNA) which is a key component of ribosomes used in protein synthesis
37
what is the job of RNA pol II?
RNA polymerase II's job is to synthesize messenger RNA (mRNA) which carries the genetic code from DNA to the ribosomes for protein synthesis. It also synthesized some small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs) involved in RNA splicing
38
what is the job of DNA pol III?
RNA polymerase III's job is to synthesize transfer RNA (tRNA), 5S Ribosomal RNA (5S rRNA), and other small RNAs, which are essential for protein synthesis and other cellular processes
39
What is transcriptional initiation ?
transcriptional initiation is mediated by direct interaction of DNA-binding proteins to specific regulatory sequences of the gene (rate determining step)
40
what are the two types of transcriptional initiation processes?
1. general transcription factors
2. transcriptional activator proteins
41
what is the job of the general transcription factors of the initiation process?
they bind to the promotor and recruit RNA polymerase II resulting in low basal level of transcription.
42
what is the job of the transcriptional activator proteins ?
they bind to enhancer regions distant from the promoter to cause DNA looping bringing mediator and RNA polymerase to the promoter resulting in high level of transcription
43
44
what is transcriptional elongation?
RNA polymerase moves along the template DNA (3' to 5')
- DNA is unwound in front of the moving RNA polymerase and reannealed behind in the transcription bubble
- Ribonucleotides are added to the 3' end of the RNA transcript (synthesis continues in a 5' to 3' direction)
-growing RNA transcript is displaced from the DNA template strand to allow reannealing back into double stranded DNA
45
46
what is transcriptional termination?
- 5' sequence in DNA template causes termination after transcribed into RNA
1. RHO-independent termination (prokaryotes)
2. RHO-dependent termination (prokaryotes)
3. cleavage and polyadenylation specific factor (eukaryotes)
47
explain the two transcriptional termination factors in prokayotes?
1. rho-independent termination: terminator sequence in mRNA base pairs with itself to form G-C hairpin and causes RNA polymerase to stall and dissociate
2. rho-dependent termination: terminator sequence in mRNA is recognized and bound by the Rho helicase which unwinds the RNA from the template DNA and RNA polymerase
48
what is cleavage and polyadenylation specific factor?
poly-A sequence in mRNA signals the CPSF to cleave the completed mRNA transcript signaling RNA polymerase to stop transcription
49
Compare and contrast the differences between DNA replication and transcription
DNA replication:
- DNA molecules are double stranded
-Replication occurs for the entire genome
-Replicates genome only once/cell cycle
- DNA polymerase requires a primer for initiation
- Daughter strand remains base paired with parental template strand
-synthesis of new DNA strand occurs in 5'-3' direction
TRANSCRIPTION:
- RNA molecules are single strands
-Occurs at selected location in the genome (i.e genes)
-synthesis of RNA in multiple copies and copes vary throughout the genome
-RNA polymerase does not need a primer for initiation
RNA product does not remain base-paired to the template DNA
-synthesis of RNA occurs in 5'-3' direction
50
What is the 3 steps to post-transcriptional Regulation of Gene expression
" processing of mRNA molecules for stability and proper translation "
1. 5' Capping
2. 3' Polyadenylation
3. Splicing
51
Is it true that the ends of prokaryotic and eukaryotic mRNAs are not translated ? (5' and 3' untranslated regions)
true
52
What do both 5' UTR's and 3' UTRs regulate?
mRNA stability and translational efficiency
53
What is the 5' UTR contained at a ribosomal binding site called in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? and what do they function in?
Shine Dalgarno sequence in prokaryotes and Kozak box sequences in eukaryotes that function in translational initiation
54
What is the open reading frame (ORF) ?
is the region of mRNA that is translated and includes that start and stop codons at the borders
55
56
where does post-transcriptional modifications of eukaryotic pre-mRNAs take place?
the newly transcribed mRNA (pre-mRNA) undergoes processing in the nucleus to produce mature translatable mRNA.
57
What is the 5' CAP in the post-transcriptional modification of eukaryotic pre- mRNA?
a modified guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5' end of the mRNA and acts as a ribosome binding site and protects mRNA from degradation
58
What is the Poly (A) tail in the post-transcriptional modification of eukaryotic pre- mRNA?
a long (50 to 250) sting of adenine nucleotides added to the 3' end of the mRNA by poly-A polymerase to protect the mRNA from being degraded and increase translational efficiency
59
What is the Introns in the post-transcriptional modification of eukaryotic pre- mRNA?
are removed/sliced during pre-mRNA processing produce translatable mRNA
60
61
what is the process of postranscriptional processing from pre-mRNA to mRNA
- newly- transcribed precursor mRNA (pre-mRNA) is not ready to be translated into a protein
- needs to be converted to a translatable mRNA (mature)
- addition of 5'CAP and Poly-A tail
-pre-mRNA has a mix of alternating coding segments and UTRs (exons) and non-coding segments (introns)
- removal of introns by splicing to generate the open reading frame consisting of a continuous strech of codons and UTRs
- mRNA is exported from nucleus into the cytoplasm to associate with ribosomes
62
63
what is mRNA splicing ?
removal of introns from pre-mRNA and joining of exons to make mature mRNA
64
What needs to be removed in the pre-mRNA for it to become a mature one?
non-coding segments (introns) need to be removed in pre-mRNA with UTRs and exons (contains codons) remaining in mRNA
65
what is splicing carried out by, and what is it made out of?
- splicing is carried out by spliceosome which is made up of five noncoding RNAs (snRNA) complexed to several proteins (small ribonucleoprotein particles or snRNPs)
66
in point form explain the process of mRNA splicing?
1. bind to intron-exon junctions
2. loop introns out of the pre-mRNA (lariat strucure) bringing exons closer together
3. clip the intron at each exon boundary releasing the lariat structure
4. join adjacent exons together
67
what is alternative splicing?
generating different proteins from one gene
- one gene sequence made by moving exons to make proteins from single gene
- splicing can occur in different combinations to generate two or more different mRNA from a gene and therefore several related protein products (isoforms)
68
what are isoforms?
they are different versions of the same protein that are produced from a single gene through alternative splicing
- different isoforms are made in different tissues from the same gene producing tissue-specific phenotypes
69
what is a result that can occure from alternative splicing
it can dramatically increase the number and variety of proteins that can be encoded by the genome
70
what percent of human genes are alternatively spliced?
~75%
71
what is an example of alternative splicing ?
it can happen in tropomyosin
72
Explain what happens to microRNAs and siRNAs in postranscriptional regulation by RNA interference
- microRNAs (miRNAs) are transcribed by RNA polymerase II
- small interfering RNAs (siRNAs) can also be transcribed and may come from foreign origins ( this means comes from outside the organism, such as viral RNA )
73
explain the processing of miRNA/siRNA precursors in post transcriptional regulation by RNA interference
precursors of miRNA/siRNA are cleaved into 21-23 base pair double- stranded RNAs by the Dicer RNase enzyme
74
what is the role of RISC in post transcriptional regulation by RNA interference
binding of mRNA to RISC can:
- interfere with the initiation of translation
-induce degradation of the mRNA (represses gene expression )
75
what is the evolutionary role of RNA interference?
RNAi likely evolved as an antiviral mechanism to destroy viral mRNA
76
77
what is transcriptional regulation? what are the factors that it depends on and the mechanisms?
Definition: control of mRNA synthesis
factors: depends on the speed of transcriptional initiation (promoter strength)
mechanisms : chromatin remodeling to make genes accessible for transcription
-regulatory events at a gene's promoter and regulatory sequences
78
what is post-transcriptional regulation? what are its stability factors and the mechanisms?
processing of mRNA which affect its stability and translational efficiency
stability factors: depends on the presence of 5'-CAP and the length of the poly-A tail
Mechanisms:
-variations in pre-mRNA processing
- Removal of masking proteins
- variations in the rate of mRNA breakdown
-RNA interference
79
Gene expression levels depends on?
the abundance of mRNA, nucleotide sequence, and eventual translation
80
the abundance of RNA depends on what?
the rate of synthesis (transcription) and degradation of mRNA (post-transcriptional)
81
How does RNA interference play a role in posttranscriptional regulation?
RNA interference involves the use of small RNAs to degrade or inhibit the translation of target mRNAs, thereby regulating gene expression posttranscriptionally
82
explain the difference between transcriptional and post transcriptional regulation?
transcriptional regulation involves the control of mRNA synthesis at the DNA level, including chromatin remodelling and promoter strength, while posttranscriptional regulation involves mRNA processing and stability, including 5' CAP, poly-A tail, and RNA interference
83
what level of gene regulation is affected by the deletion of an enhancer?
transcriptional regulation
84
how does the deletion of an enhancer affect gene expression?
it decreases gene expression
85
what molecular process is affected by the deletion of an enhancer?
RNA polymerase cannot initiate regulation at a high level
86
what level of gene regulation is affected by increased polyadenylation of mRNA?
post transcriptional REGULATION
87
how does increased polyadenylation of mRNA affect gene expression
it increases gene expression
88
what molecular process is affected by increased polyadenylation of mRNA?
enhanced mRNA stability and translation
89
what level of gene regulation is affected by the removal of the 5' CAP?
post-transcriptional regulation
90
how does the removal of the 5' CAP affect gene expression
it decreases gene expression
91
what molecular process is affected by the removal of the 5' cap?
mRNA degradation is accelerated, and there is less efficiency in translation inititation
92
what level of gene regulation is affected by the deletion of the TATA box?
transcriptional regulation
93
how does the deletion of the TATA box affect gene expression
it decreases gene expression
94
what molecular process is affected by the deletion of the TATA box?
formation of the transctirional initiation complex is hindered
95
what level of gene regulation is affected by the inhibition of siRNA synthesis ?
post transcriptional regulation
96
how does the inhibition of siRNA synthesis affect gene expression
it increases gene expression
97
what molecular process is affected by the inhibition of siRNA synthesis?
less mRNA degradation
98
for a particular rRNA molecule, where are the 5' and 3' ends?
5' ends are the furthest away from rRNA molecule
99
which direction is transcription occurring along the DNA template strand
bottom to the top
100
where are the rRNA in which transcription is almost completed
near the top
101
where are the rRNAs in which transcription has just started?
near the bottom
102
explain how introns and exons are advantageous in eukaryotes?
introns allow for alternative splicing, leading to multipke protein variants from one gene
exons contain coding sequences for protein synthesis
103
what is the difference between a strong and a weak promoter?
a strong promoter has a higher affinity for RNA polymerase, leading to higher transcriptional rates. A weak promoter has a lower affinity resulting in a lower transcription rates
104
describe the structure and function of promoters and enhancers?
promoter: DNA sequences where RNA polymerase binds to start transcription
enhancers: DNA sequences that increase the efficiency of transcription from a distance
105
106
What are the steps of Translation?
“How to make polypeptides/proteins from mRNA”
1. Initiation
2.elongation
3. Termination
107
What is translation?
Is the assembly of amino acids into polypeptides
108
What chemical groups do amino acids contain?
Amino and a carboxyl group bonded to a central carbon (a) with a hydrogen and a R group
- the R group is variable and determines unique character of amino acids
109
What are two amino acids joined together by?
By covalent peptide bond between the amino and carboxyl by a dehydration reaction
110
Non polar amino acids
R groups usually contain -CH2 or -CH3
111
What is an uncharged polar amino acids?
R groups usually contain oxygen (or -OH)
112
What are the charged amino acids
R groups that contain acids or bases that can ionize
113
What are aromatic amino acids?
R groups contain a carbon ring with alternating single and double bonds
114
Special functional amino acids include?
1. Methionine: first amino acid in polypeptide
2. Proline: causes a kink in polypeptide chains
3. Cysteine (s-s) : disulfide bridge contributes to structure of polypeptides
115
What does the level of the primary amino acid sequence of a protein structure determine?
Determines protein folding and 3-D structure which is critical for proper function
116
What does the 2 degree protein structure depend on?
On hydrogen bonding in the polypeptide backbone (a-helices and bsheets)
117
What does the 2 degree protein structure depend on?
On hydrogen bonding in the polypeptide backbone (a-helices and bsheets)
118
What is the 3 degree structure of the protein structure?
Is the 3-D structure of a single polypeptide and is composed of interactions between amino acid side chains
119
What is the 4 degree structure of the protein structure?
Are interactions between more than one polypeptide to form a multi subunit protein
120
What is the protein folding of the protein structure?
Disrupted by denaturation (heat and chemicals) or mutations that change amino acid sequence
121
What is the chaperones function of the protein structure ?
Function to protect slow-folding or denatured proteins by preventing their aggregation (clusters)
122
What are some diseases associated with misfolded proteins?
Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s and creutzfeldt-jakob
123
What are tRNAs?
Adaptors between codons (mRNA) and amino acids
124
What is the structure of tRNA?
2-D and 3-D shaped: tRNA has a two-dimensional cloverleaf shape and a three-dimensional L-shape
- self- complementarity : tRNA folds into these shapes due to the complementary base pairing within the molecule itself
125
What are the important parts of the tRNA?
Acceptor stem
And anticodon
126
What is the acceptor stem?
The top part where the amino acid attaches
This region ends with the sequence 5’-CCA-3’
127
What is the anticodon?
The bottom loop of the cloverleaf structure. This contains a sequence of three nucleotides that matches (pairs with) the codon on mRNA
128
129
What is the function of tRNA?
- the anticodon of tRNA pairs with the complementary codon on the mRNA strand during protein synthesis
- this pairing ensures that the correct amino acid is added to the growing protein chain
130
131
What is Aminoacyl-tRNA (charging) ?
Adding the amino acid to the tRNA
132
Is it true that 20 different aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases for the 20 amino acids ?
Yes
133
What is the role of the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?
This enzyme is responsible for attaching the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA
- each amino acid has a specific aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase that recognizes and binds to the correct tRNA and amino acid
134
The process of attaching an amino acid to a tRNA is called what? And what does the reaction involve?
Aminoacylation
- the reaction involves the amino acid, tRNA and ATP, resulting in the formation of aminoacyl-tRNA, AMP, and PPi (pyrophosphate)
135
Explain the charging process cycle?
Step 1: the amino acid and ATP bind to the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzyme
Step 2: the amino acid is activated by the ATP, forming an aminoacyl-AMP intermediate
Step 3: the tRNA binds to the enzyme, and the amino acid is transferred to the tRNA
Step 4: the charged tRNA (aminoacyl-tRNA) is released from the enzyme, ready to participate in protein synthesis
136
What are the key points about the genetic code?
The genetic code consists of 61 “sense” codons and the amino acids specified by these codons
- the codons are written 5’ to3’ as they appear in the mRNA
- AUG (methionine) is an initiation (start) codon
- UAA, UAG, AND UGA are termination (stop) codons and do not code for amino acids (transfer RNA does not bind to these codons )
137
Genetic code shows degeneracy in which an amino acid can be specified by more than one codon- TRUE OR FALSE
True
138
What are the rules of the genetic code?
Codons on the mRNA are read in the 5’ to 3’ direction
2. Codons are nonoverlapping and the message contains no gaps
3. Message is translated in a fixed reading frame by the start codon
139
what do we need to know about the number of tRNAs?
there are not 61 different tRNAs for the 61 mRNA codons. Instead, some tRNAs can read more than one codon
140
what is the wobble hypothesis ?
the base of the 5' end of the tRNA anticodon can form hydrogen bonds with multiple types of bases at the 3' end of the mRNA codon. This flexibility is known as "wobble"
141
What is the ribosome (prokaryotes) consist of?
composed of two subunits made of a complex of proteins and rRNA
- ribosome is the protein synthesis machinery
142
what is the small subunit of ribosome (prokaryotes) (30S)
made of 16S rRNA_21 proteins and contains decoding center where charged tRNAs read and decode the codon of mRNA
143
what is the large subunit (50S) of prokaryotes made of?
made of 5S and 23S rRNA +34 proteins and contains the peptidyl-transferase center for formation of peptide bonds
144
what is S stand for in a ribosome (svedberg unit)?
measure of sedimentation velocity and therefore, mass
145
what are the tRNA binding sites of the ribosomes?
P site (peptidyl), A site (aminoacyl), E site (exit)
146
what is the P site (peptidyl) ?
1. binds to the tRNA attached to the growing peptide chain
147
what is the A site (aminoacyl) ?
binds to the tRNA carrying the next amino acid to be added
148
what is the E site (exit)?
binds the tRNA that carried the previous amino acid added
149
150
What is translation initiation in eukaryotes?
- an initiation complex forms containing the ribosome, mRNA, and initiator tRNA bound to methionine (Met)
151
What are the steps in Translation initiation in eukaryotes?
1. the initiator tRNA^Met is brought to the P-site of the small ribosome subunit. This process requires GTP, which provides energy
2. The complex of initiator tRNA^Met and the small ribosomal subunit is recruited to the capped 5' end of the mRNA. this complex scans along the mRNA in a 5' to 3' direction until it reaches the first 5'-AUG-3' start codon
3. complementary base pairing occurs between the anticodon of the initiator tRNA^Met and the start codon of the mRNA. The large ribosomal subunit then binds to the small subunit to form the initiation complex. This complex is now ready to accept the first tRNA in the A site
FInal step: GTP is hydrolyzed to GDP, signalling the start of translation
it goes A,P E
152
what is translation elongation
it is the growth of the polypeptide
153
What are the steps of translation elongation?
- the correct aminoacyl tRNA (carrying an amino acid) enters the A site of the ribosome. This step requires a helper protein called elongation factor (EF-GTP)
- the anticodon of the tRNA must match the codon on the mRNA in the A site.
2. Peptide bond formation
- an enzyme called peptidyl transferase, located in the large ribosomal subunit, forms a peptide bond
- this bond forms between the amino acid on the tRNA in the A site and the growing polypeptide chain on the tRNA in the P site
3. Translocation of the Ribosome
- the ribosome moves (translocates) along the mRNA
- as it moves, the tRNA in the A site, now with the growing polypeptide chain, shifts to the P site
- the empty tRNA that was in the P site moves to the E site, where it is released from the ribosome
4. the ribosome in now ready to accept the next animoacyl tRNA in the A site, corresponding to the next codon on the mRNA
- this cycle repeats, elongating the polypeptide chain one amino acid at a time
154
what is the point of the elongation factor GTP
it helps load the correct tRNA into the A site
155
what is the use of the peptidyl transferase?
it forms peptide bonds between amino acids
156
what is translocation?
the ribosome moves along the mRNA, shifting tRNAs from the A site to the P site to the E site
157
what is the job of termination during translation?
releases a completed polypeptide from the ribosome
158
What are the three stop codons for termination
they are found at the end of a protein-coding seqeunce in mRNA: UAA, UAG, AND UGA
- the stop codons are not recognized by tRNAs but by proteins called RELEASE FACTORS
159
when the ribosome reaches the stop codon what happens during termination in translation?
the release factor binds the A-site and stimulates peptidyl transferase to cleave the polypeptide from the P-site tRNA
160
what is post-translational regulation of gene expression?
"modification of proteins with chemical groups for activity and degradation"
1. phosphorylation
2. Ubiquitination
3. proteolysis
161
what is phosphorylation in post translational gene expression?
what is it: addition of a phosphate group to a protein
How it works: this process is done by enzymes called kinases and can either activate or inhibit the proteins activity
example: CDK1 (CYCLIN-DEPENDENT KINASE 1) phosphorylates and activates MAP (microtubule associated Protein) to promote spindle assembly and entry into mitosis (cell division)
162
what is ubiquitination in post translational gene expression?
what is it: addition of ubiquitin molecules to a protein
how it works: this marks the protein for destruction by the proteasome (a protein-degrading complex)
example: cyclin B (Cycb) is ubiquinated and destroyed at the end of mitosis to inactivate CDK1, Helping to regulate the cell cycle
163
what is proteolysis in post translational gene expression?
specific cleavage (cutting) of a protein
how it works: This process can activate and deactivate proteins
example: proteolysis of the viral envelope glycoprotein triggers the maturation of HIV, making the virus infectious
164
what is epigenetics?
post translational modification of histones that affect transcription
- changes in the gene transcription can occur without altering the DNA sequence itself. This is part of what is called epigenetics
165
what is a histone code in epigenetics?
modifications to lysines on histone tails (the ends of histone proteins) affect how genes are transcribed
166
what is acetylation in epigenetics?
Enzyme: histone acetyltransferases (HATs)
modification: adding acetyl groups (CH3CO-) to histone tails
affect: this reduces the positive charge on histones, loosening their tight hold on the negatively charged DNA. This makes the DNA more accessible for transcription, thereby increasing gene expression
167
what is methylation? and what is DNA methylation? all of this is in epigenetics...
methylation of histone tails can either activate or repress gene transcription, depending on which amino acids are methylated and the number of methyl groups added
DNA methylation: this occurs in the CpG islands, which are regions of high frequency of C-G pairing
methylation in these regions represses transcription preventing the gene from being expressed
168
what is chromatin remodeling complex in epigenetic?
these complexes use ATP to move or restructure nucleosomes (the basic units of DNA packaging)
affect: this displacement of nucleosomes from promoter regions (regions of DNA that initiate transcription) allows transcription to occur more easily by making the DNA accessible
169
compare translational regulation to posttranslational regulation
translational regulation: control of protein synthesis (rate of translation initiation or formation of the initiation complex)
post-transcriptional regulation: control of protein abundance and activity (availability of functional proteins)
170
abundance of protein depends on its rates of synthesis of what?
translational initiation and degradation (posttranlational)
171
activity of protein depends on postranslational modifications and processing (cleavage) -TRUE OR FALSE
true
172
the expression level of specific gene depends of what?
the abundance of proteins and its activity
173
For each of the following describe whether 1. translational or post-translational regulation 2. protein expression is increased or decreased, 3. molecular process affected
Q. Removal of stop codon in mRNA?
1. translation, no increase/decrease, longer polypeptide
174
For each of the following describe whether 1. translational or post-translational regulation 2. protein expression is increased or decreased, 3. molecular process affected
Q. increased ubiquintation of proteins
post translation, decreased, enhancer protein degradation
175
For each of the following describe whether 1. translational or post-translational regulation 2. protein expression is increased or decreased, 3. molecular process affected
Q. complete inhibition of aminoacylation (charging)
translation, decreased, no translation occuring (no amino acid attached to tRNAs)
176
For each of the following describe whether 1. translational or post-translational regulation 2. protein expression is increased or decreased, 3. molecular process affected
Q. Decrease in histone acetylation in promoter
post-translation, decrease, DNA wound more tightly histone preventing access to transcriptional initiation complex
177
For each of the following describe whether 1. translational or post-translational regulation 2. protein expression is increased or decreased, 3. molecular process affected
Q. change amino acid attached to tRNA from serine to lysine
translation, no increase.decrease, change amino acid sequence of polypeptide
178
What are mutations?
changes to nucleic acid sequence (DNA TO RNA)
- can be inherited (germline) or not inherited (somatic) - cant pass to offspring
-changes can be small gene level or large chromosomal
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the altered gene sequence can change the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide resulting in a variation of what when a mutation takes place?
phenotype
- affect on the phenotype can be harmless.neutral
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what are germ-line mutations?
mutation originally occurred in gametes and therefore
becomes heritable
ex. sex influences trait
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what are somatic mutations?
can occur in all other cell types except gametes and therefore, not heritable
- mutations occur in a progenitor cell and all other daughter cells will express the mutation
-somatic mutations are expressed as sectors (size depends on time of mutation)
ex. cancer tumors are an example
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what are small-scale mutations?
changes to one or few base pairs
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what is a base substitution as a small- scale mutation?
single nucleotide change as a result of point mutations
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what is insertion as a small- scale mutation?
one or more base pairs in a sequence during DNA replication usually resulting in a frameshift mutation
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what is deletion as a small- scale mutation?
one or more base pairs skipped during DNA replication usually resulting in frameshift mutations
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what is a transitions as a small- scale mutation?
purine to purine or pyrimidine to pyrimidine changes
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what is a transversions as a small- scale mutation?
purine to pyrimidine or pyrimidine to purine changes
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