Techn1cal Rescue Flashcards
The 8th Edition of Fire Service Tech Rescue is written for what level rescuers?
Level 1
The SCOPE of this manual in limited to _________ - level situations to which most FFs may be called.
Operations
While experience is an important factor in the development and maintenance of these abilities, such experience must be built on a solid foundation of _________ and ___________.
training and education
The consistent use of ______________ to COORDINATE the activities of rescuers increases the likelihood of a successful outcome for victims and decreases the likelihood of responder injury or death.
Incident Management System (IMS)
What do you call the application of special knowledge, skills, and equipment to safely resolve unique and/or complex rescue situations?
technical rescue
What do you call the individual who has been trained to perform or direct a variety of unique and/or complex rescue situations?
technical rescuer
What is an organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing the requirements of a code or standard?
authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)
What is defined as a statement that describes the performance required for a specific job?
job performance requirement (JPR)
Technical rescuer qualification under NFPA 1006 is _________ specific.
discipline
Both Level 1 and Level 2 Rescuers identify hazards and use equipment. The difference comes in techniques used. What are they?
Level 1 – apply LIMITED techniques Level 2 – apply ADVANCED techniques
What term will refer to an individual who enters the hazard zone?
rescuer
What term will refer to an individual who may not enter the hazard zone, but may serve other functions?
responder
The ratio of training to actual operations in technical rescue is ____________.
extraordinarily high
All training and operational responses should be _________ with the lessons learned to identify additional training needs.
FULLY documented
What are rules for HOW personnel should perform routine functions or emergency operations?
SOP/SOG
Interagency cooperation and effectiveness can be best be accomplished through regular ____________.
joint-training exercises
What is the written or unwritten plan for the disposition of an incident?
IAP
Which incidents must have an IAP?
ALL (just smaller ones aren’t written)
Who should perform a size-up of the situation and begin to develop and implement an IAP?
IC
What do you call the ongoing evaluation of influential factors at the scene of an incident?
size-up
If the size-up reveals that the incident is beyond the scope of the initial IC, when should command be transferred?
earliest opportunity to another responder who is MORE qualified
Whenever the Command/Management system is implemented, there should only be one IC. What is the exception?
unified command **(still only single command post and single operations chief)**
It is recommended that what should be designated as the ICP until it is determined a formal ICP will be needed?
first arriving emergency vehicle
Every rescue operation requires that the _________ functions be carried out (NOT IC).
Incident Safety Officer (ISO)
What tasks should the first arriving responders begin to do when they arrive on scene?
tasks they are trained and qualified to do
First arriving responders should begin to formulate an IAP that reflects what four priorities?
-providing for rescue personnel safety and survival -prevent others from becoming victims -rescuing those who can be saved -recovering the remains of those beyond saving
What do you call the system of barriers surrounding designated areas at emergency scenes?
hazard-control zone
Team continuity among members in the hazard-control zone must be maintained through voice, touch, or ________.
sight
What type of communications is preferred whenever possible?
direct, face-to-face
What is the method for identifying which emergency responders are working an incident scene?
personnel accountability system
ICs should establish RIC on every incident requiring what?
rescuers to enter potentially IDLH or other hazardous environment
The evaluation of incident operations is process that begins _________ any actual incident or training evolution and continues _______ the termination of the operation.
before / well past
What is a document developed during pre-incident planning that contains the operational plan or set of procedures for safe and efficient handling of emergency situations at a SPECIFIC location?
pre-incident plan (PIP)
In order to request and utilize the most appropriate and effective resources for a given situation, agencies should know in advance what?
capabilities and availability of outside resources
What is a situation where the victim is determined to be dead (or very LIKELY to be dead)?
recovery
Are recoveries emergencies?
No
What is defined as operating independently of IC’s command and control?
freelancing
What is the ICs first priority must be for what?
rescuer safety
What is the ICs second priority?
victim safety
Who on a rescue team should continuously evaluate an incident or training evolution?
EVERY member
What is defined as the perception of one’s surrounding environment, and the ability to predict the future?
situational awareness
What is defined as reciprocal assistance from one fire service agency to another?
mutual aid
The successful and efficient mitigation of a technical rescue incident requires _________ of a robust IMS that is maintained throughout the response.
early implementation
The technical rescue disciplines identified by NFPA 1006 can be put into what two general categories?
land-based water-based
What is defined as rope that meets NFPA 1983 and dedicated solely to raising, lowering, or supporting people?
life safety rope
In all rescue operations, personnel must wear appropriate protective ______________ (specific).
headgear
What type of accessories can be mounted on helmets and used in potentially flammable or explosive environments?
intrinsically safe
In addition to wearing a helmet, it is essential that rescue personnel use proper ____________.
eye protection
For oxyacetylene or gas fueled cutting operations, eye protection with what shade rating may be sufficient?
3.0
For cutting operations with exothermic devices, eye protection with what rating should be used?
5.0
Do helmet face shields alone provide an adequate level of eye protection for most technical rescue operations?
No
FFs exposed to any noise in excess of _____ must be provided with appropriate hearing protection.
90 dB
What is the measurement of how well a hearing protection device will block noise?
noise reduction rating (NRR)
Hearing protection devices should have a noise reduction rating of at least _____ dB.
20
What are the two general types of hearing protection devices?
earplugs headsets
Most manufactured earplugs have an NRR of at least ____, and some exceed _____.
20 / 30
One disadvantage of earplugs is the possibility of what?
hand to ear contamination
How does headset performance compare to earplugs?
provide a higher level of noise attenuation and comfort
What two personnel must ensure that all personnel are wearing appropriate protective clothing?
IC and ISO
To increase visibility to oncoming traffic, rescuers should wear traffic vests with ____________ trim.
retroreflective
What is the protective clothing of choice for many rescue situations?
close fitting jumpsuits
When performing rescue work, rescuers must wear ______ that protect from the environment and task specific hazards like sharp objects, splinters, and rope burns.
gloves
Which harnesses fasten only around the waist and around thighs or under buttocks?
Class I & II
Class I harness is intended for __________ with a load up to ______.
emergency ESCAPE / 300 lbs.
Class II harness may be used in rescues with up to _____ load.
600 lbs.
Why are Class I & II harnesses not commonly used in rescue applications?
no upper body protection and they require the user to remain upright position
Class I & II harnesses appear identical. What is the best way to determine the class?
read the label
What may have a Class II harness incorporated into their design?
some FD PPE trousers
What is a ladder-belt type harness that is worn around the wearer’s waist and is used only to secure a FF to a ladder or other object?
Class I Harness (aka pompier belt)
What is a sit type harness designed to support the weight of two people that also has additional support over the shoulders?
Class III Harness
Rescuers engaged in water based operations should use a ______ specifically designed for use in water.
helmet
What are the two types of protective outerwear used in water based rescue operations?
wetsuit drysuit
What type of water outerwear are also available that protect rescuers from contaminants in the water?
drysuit
Gloves worn during water based operations should provide a measure of _________.
thermal insulation
What is an important characteristic of footwear used in water operations?
-either exclude water altogether or drain easily -also needs thermal insulation
The most important flotation device in water operations is what?
PFD
How many categories of PFDs has the Coast Guard identified?
five
NFPA 1952 calls for personnel engaged in water rescue operations to use a Type ______ with at least _____ lbs. of buoyancy.
Type V 22 lbs of buoyancy
What are used to help rescuers move through the water with greater speed and efficiency?
swimming aids (swim fins and rescue boards)
Other than the Type V, which PFD is Coast Guard approved for rescue operations?
Type III
What type of atmosphere contains less than 19.5% oxygen?
oxygen-deficient
What percent of oxygen is needed for flame production and human life?
16%
What is a protective breathing apparatus designed to be used underwater?
SCUBA
What is an atmosphere supplying respirator for which the source of breathing air isn’t carried by the user?
SAR
What type of respirator removes contaminants by passing ambient air through something?
APR
What is the difference in open circuit and closed circuit SCBA?
open circuit - discharges exhaust into atmosphere closed circuit - contains exhaust, filters out CO2 and re-oxygenates the air (not approved for firefighting)
What is defined as protective breathing apparatus that maintains constant pressure slightly above atmospheric pressure?
positive pressure SCBA
Why might your standard SCBA not be the best choice for extended rescue operations?
short functional duration per cylinder
How long can the hoses be on SARs?
up to 300’
Other than the constant supply, what is another benefit of the SAR?
smaller profile
SAR devices have what four components?
harness harness mounted regulator low pressure hose small reserve cylinder
What weighs less…closed circuit or open circuit SCBA?
closed circuit (uses smaller cylinder of pure oxygen)
What is the range of possible service times for closed circuit SCBA?
30 mins - 4 hours
HEPA filters must be at least _____ efficient at removing particles as small as ___ micrometers.
99.7% .3 micrometers
When should APRs not be used (list 3)?
oxygen deficient unknown airborne chemicals IDLH environments
What is the practice of preventing transmission of biological pathogens, especially blood-borne, when providing first aid or health care?
universal precautions (UP)
What is the practice of isolating all bodily substances in order to limit the spread of infectious disease?
body substance isolation (BSI) **(used in tandem with UP)**
Practices consistent with UP include:
-EMS gloves under rescue gloves if needed -impervious coveralls when necessary -shoe covers over leather boots -mask or eye protection
Primary decontamination must occur where?
at the incident site
What is secondary decontamination?
cleaning and disinfecting of small items that are carried into the fire station
Who can perform specialized maintenance on PPE?
rescuers or individuals who are manufacturer trained and certified
What is a tool manipulated and powered by human force?
hand tool
Hand tools are more likely to be ____________ than their powered counterparts.
intrinsically safe
What are tools characterized by large, weighted heads on handles?
striking tools
Striking tools should be used with ______, _______ strokes.
short, quick
In flammable or potentially flammable atmospheres, __________ tools should be used to prevent ignition.
nonsparking
What are hand tools that use the principle of leverage?
prying tools
What is defined as advantage created when levers, pulleys, and tools are used to make work easier during roper rescue or lifting/moving operations?
mechanical advantage
What is a device consisting of a bar turning about a fixed point (fulcrum)?
lever
Because they do not require ballistic movement or high impact, prying tools are generally _________ than striking tools.
safer
What is an unsafe addition of length of pipe to a prying tool to provide additional leverage?
cheater bar **(unsafe to use)**
What is perhaps the most diversified of the tool group?
cutting tools
Manual cutting tools can be divided into what four distinct groups?
chopping tools snipping type tools saws knives
What is a chopping tool with a thin, arched blade set at a right angle to the handle?
adze
What type cutting tool is generally safer when working close to a victim?
snipping tools
What cutting tools are useful for cutting objects that require a controlled cut but are too big to fit within the jaws of snipping type cutters?
handsaws **(do not create sparks, therefore safer in flammable atmospheres)**
What type of knife is sufficient for most rescue situations?
sharp, self locking
Jacks generally work best when the distance between the surface and the object to be stabilized is __________.
< 2 feet
As with all lifting operations, the load should always be _____________.
supported by secondary item
Because of their ease of application, durability, and relatively low cost, __________ are becoming increasingly more common in shoring operations.
screw jacks
To maintain stability, screw jack shafts should never be extended beyond ___________ of its length.
two-thirds
Screw jacks should be used for stabilization only and should not be used for _________.
lifting
The only substantial difference between using jacks and wooden cribbing components is that when the distance between the uprights has been determine, the pipe for the jack should be cut how short?
8” shorter than measurement
What is a type of screw jack that is used in trench operations and it made to fit a wooden strut?
Ellis screw jack **(doesn’t have 6’ limit of pipe based screw jacks)**
The bar screw jack is most commonly used when?
structural collapse rescue shoring
Which jack is generally recognized as the most dangerous of all the jacks?
ratchet jack
Also known as high lift jacks, ratchet lever jacks are classified as ________ -duty jacks.
medium
Rescuers should never _________ under a load supported only by a jack.
work
Axes or pointed tools should be maintained how?
semi-sharp, unpainted, with thin coat of light grade oil
Hydraulic tools may be divided into what two categories?
powered and manual
Although compressed air is used to operate most pumps, what types of motors are more commonly used?
electric engines or gas motors
What were the first powered hydraulic tool to become available to the fire service?
spreaders
How much force can be produced by powered hydraulic spreaders?
22,000 psi or more
How wide can powered spreader tips move?
as much as 32”
Shears are typically capable of developing ________ psi or more of cutting force and have opening spread of approximately ___ inches.
30,000 psi 7 inches
To prevent damage to the shears’ blades, cut should be made at what angle?
90 degrees
What is steel with a surface that is much harder than the interior metal?
case-hardened steel
What is the disadvantage of the combination hydraulic tool?
the cutting and spreading capabilities are less than the single purpose units
What are designed primarily for straight pushing operations?
extension rams
The largest these extension rams can extend from a closed length of 3 feet to an extended length of _______.
more than 5 feet
Extension rams open with a pushing force of more than ________. The closing force is about ______ of the opening force.
15,000 psi half
What is the primary disadvantage of manual hydraulic tools?
operate slower and labor intensive
What is a manually operated hydraulic tool that has been adapted from the auto body business to the rescue service (has a variety of tool accessories fit the device)?
Porta-Power
What are the primary advantages of the Porta-Power?
portability and accessories that allow it to be operated in narrow places
What are the primary disadvantages of the Porta-Power?
time consuming to assemble and limited capabilities
Most hydraulic jacks have lifting capacities up to what?
20 tons
Using a piece of __________ under the jack can spread the load over a larger area to prevent failure of the surface.
cribbing
The care and maintenance of hydraulic tools focus on what three elements?
powerplant/pump hose and couplings actual tools
What are tools that receive their power from compressed air?
pneumatic
What are well suited for cutting metal in confined spaces and voids?
pneumatic air chisel **(only operate air chisel when bit is firmly agains object)**
What air pressure is the pneumatic chisel designed to operate at?
100-150 psi
What is normal air consumption rate of the pneumatic chisel?
4-5 cubic feet/minute
What is a hand-held tool that blasts away surface dirt?
air knife
When operated at 90-100 psi, the exit velocity of an air knife is __________.
close to Mach 2
Air vacuums can pick up loose soil and rocks up to what size?
2 3/4 inches
How much does the whizzer saw weigh and what psi does it operate at?
2 pounds (1/10th of a circular saw) 90 psi
Operating at _________ rpm, its 3 inch blade cuts case hardened locks and steel up to ______ inch thick.
20,000 3/4”
How long will a whizzer saw run on one cylinder?
3 minutes
Can you use air bags as temporary stabilization?
Yes
High pressure air bags when deflated are how thick?
about 1”
What are the size ranges of air bags?
6x6 up to 36x36
What is the inflation pressure range for high pressure bags?
116-145 psi
The largest high pressure air bags can lift how much?
75 tons
An air bags weight lifting capacity decreases as _________ increases.
lift height
What is the formula for calculating the lifting capacity of high pressure air bags?
L x W x OP (operating pressure)
How do you ensure maximum lift with air bags?
crib up as close as possible to the object to be lifted
Use only _________ material between the bags and object to be lifted.
pliable **(rigid material can be forcefully ejected)**
Avoid positioning air bags against materials that are hotter than what?
220 degrees F
Low and medium pressure bags are considerably _______ than high pressure bags.
larger
Low and medium pressure bags are most commonly used to what?
lift or stabilize larger vehicles or objects
What are some of the advantages of the low/medium pressure bags?
greater lifting distance safer than stacking high pressure bags easier to repair
What are the disadvantages of low/medium pressure bags?
each bag capable of lifting less weight require twice as much space for insertion vulnerable to punctures
Depending on manufacturer, low/medium pressure bags can lift an object how high?
6 feet
Low pressure bags operate at what psi?
7-10
Medium pressure bags operate at what psi?
12-15
When should air bags be inspected?
regularly and after each use
Some lifting bag safety rules:
-don’t inflate without a load on them -inflate slowly -minimum of three pieces of cribbing per layer -no contact with temps >220 degrees F -don’t stack more than 2 bags
If you are going to stack air bags, how should they be organized and which is inflated first?
smaller on top inflate BOTTOM bag first **(single multi cell bag would be safer)**
You should never use compressed what to power pneumatic tools?
compressed oxygen **(oxygen mixed with grease and oil could explode)**
What is the process of providing additional support to key places between an object of entrapment and the ground or other solid anchor points, in order to PREVENT UNWANTED MOVEMENT?
stabliization
WHAT is used to stabilize vehicles and collapsed buildings during lifting operations at victim extrication incidents?
cribbing
What are the three most common dimensions of cribbing?
2x4 4x4 6x6
What are common cribbing lengths?
18 to 24 inches
Wood cribbing is one of the best resources for stabilizing horizontal objects because of its strength and _________.
ease of construction
What is an advantage of wood as it relates to failure?
it provides an audible indication as it reaches its failure point
While considerable more expensive that wooden cribbing, plastic cribbing has these three distinct advantages?
doesn’t absorb fuel, oil, or other substances weighs less than wood more durable than wood
How can you make identification of cribbing lengths easier?
paint the ends **(rest of cribbing should be unpainted otherwise it will be slick when wet)**
For maximum stability, cribbing should be built in a _________ configuration using _________ members per layer.
cross tie configuration three members
Cribbing can be effectively applied to vertical openings equal to a max of ___________ times its length.
three
What are angle cut pieces of timber used to ensure close contact between shoring and loads?
shims
What do you call shims used in pairs to provide close contact between a shoring system and the supported load?
wedge
If rescuers must work under a heavy horizontal object, such as a collapsed wall, cribbing should be installed _____________ and no more than ______ feet apart.
both sides of entry point 4 feet apart
Wooden shoring material is similar to cribbing but is generally ___________.
much longer and larger cross section dimension (usually 6x6)
Pneumatic or hydraulic shores having a minimum capacity of ______ tons may be used for stabilizing heavy objects.
10 tons
What are pneumatic shores (aka air shores or rescue struts) usually made of?
aluminum
What is the operating range of most pneumatic shores (in psi)?
100-350 psi
All pneumatic shores have some type of ___________ to keep the unit from retracting when the air pressure is released.
positive locking device
Where are the top and bottom shores located?
within 2 feet of top within 2 feet of bottom
Overview of Shoring Capabilities
What do you call shores or jacks with movable parts that are operated by the action of hydraulic fluid?
hydraulic shores
What two things may occur when a saw (or any tool) is pushed beyond the limits of its design?
tool failure
injury to the operator
Gas driven says may be unable to operate in what types of atmosphers?
smoky or dusty
What type of saws are capable of cutting wood, masonry, and metal when equipped with the proper blade?
rotary saw
When cutting metal, a crew with what should standby?
charged hoseline
fire extinguisher
When should water be applied to a blade thats cutting concrete?
apply the water BEFORE cutting
stop the water BEFORE turning off (allows the water to clear the blade)
Putting water on a blade that is already hot could cause it to what?
shatter
What causes a rotary saw to twist in your hand?
rotational torque
What is the first and most important step to prolong blade life?
choose the correct wheel
Cutting blades can be grouped by the material they cut. What are the three main types?
carbide tipped blades
abrasive blades
diamond segmented blades
Carbide tipped blades are designed to cut what?
wood
(can also cut nails in the wood)
The main advantage of a carbide tipped blade is what?
long life of cutting edge
**(designed to work at high speeds, slow speeds will result in tip loss)**
Abrasive blades are designed to cut what?
steel and certain other metals
When cutting steel, it is important to start at ___________.
full speed
What are abrasive blades particularly susceptible to?
chipping, cracking, or shattering
**(for this reason, the saw should never be transported with the blade attached)**
What is an indication of uneven blade wear on an abrasive blade?
thinning of the blade toward the outer edge
Diamond segmented blades are useful for cutting what?
concrete
Are diamond blades as susceptible to chipping and cracking as abrasive blades?
No
Diamond segmented blades must be _________ before cutting begins.
“broken in”
What is the most common cause of uneven blade wear on diamond segmented blades?
lack of adequate water coverage to one side of the segment
How do you recondition or dress a diamond blade?
operate it in a softer material
What saw is most often used to cut pieces of cribbing or shoring?
circular saw
What is the major limitation of a circular saw?
cutting depth
**(when greater depth is needed, use a chainsaw)**
How do reciprocating saws compare to circular saws?
more controllable, maneuverable, and safer
When using a reciprocating saw, most of the ignition hazard comes from what?
blade on material (not the motor)
What is the best type of chainsaw?
one powerful enough to penetrate dense material, yet lightweight enought to be easily handled in awkward positions
What type of injury accounts for 40% of all chain saw injuries?
leg injuries
Although carbide tipped chains cost almost ______ times as much, they also last _______ times longer.
4x as much
12x longer
What occurs when the upper tip of the bar comes in contact with a solid object?
kickback
What occurs when the chain on bottom of the guide bar gets pinched and the saw is pulled into the work?
pull in
What occurs when the chain on top of the guide bar gets pinched, which suddenly stops chain movement?
pushback
What are the three tasks that rescuers are most likely to perform in regards to maintenance on power saws?
replace air filters
spark plugs
fuel systems
Most chain saws have what two filters?
pre-filter
fine filter
Both filters on a chainsaw should be checked when?
every time tank is filled
**(more often in dusty conditions)**
Before removing any filter, always ________ the choke in order to prevent dirt getting into the engine.
close
Mesh fine filters should be cleaned _________ and more often in dusty areas.
once per operation
What should you do with “paper type” fine filters when they are dirty?
discard them
**(always carry extras)**
What can become fouled from a too-rich oil mixture or when the engines idles too long?
spark plug
If after starting a 2-stroke engine, it stalls within 10-15 seconds, the one way valve may have become clogged. You should open the fuel cap slowly and listen for what?
rush of air to enter
**(this would indicate that the fuel tank is not venting)**
The most common exothermic cutting device carried on rescue vehicles is what?
oxyacetylene torch
What is a high temperature luminous electric discharge across a gap or through a medium?
arc
What do you call a cutting torch that uses a chemical reaction to produce heat and flame?
exothermic cutting device
What is a colorless gas that has an explosive range from 2.5 to 81% in air?
acetylene
When preheating metal (w/ oxyacetylene torch), the flame temperature is ________. When additional pre oxygen is added, a flame over _______ is created.
4,200 degrees F
5,700 degrees F
Acetylene cylinders must be kept in ________ position to prevent explosion.
upright
In some rescue units, acetylene has been replaced by what?
methylacetylene-propadiene, stabilized (MPS)
The oxygasoline torch produces a cutting temperature of _______ with a higher heat release rate of oxyacetylene.
5,200 degrees F
What are the advantages of the oxygasoline system?
availability and cost of gas
safety of fuel delivery to torch
**(when configured properly, it can work underwater)**
Exothermic cutting rods can produce cutting temperatures in excess of _______.
7,000 degrees F
Exothermic cutting rods range in size from _______ inch diameter and from _________ in length.
1/4 to 1 inch
18 inches to 10 feet
Cutting rods are considered safer to operate than oxyacetylene torches because of what?
instantaneous burning of target material results in lower level of heat transfer
Plasma cutters produce cutting temperatures as high as ________.
25,000 degrees F
(require 220v power)
Vehicle mounted winches can usually be deployed _______ than other lifting/pulling devices, generally have a _________ travel distance, and are often much ________.
faster
longer
stronger
The three most common drives for winches are what?
electric
hydraulic
PTO
What is an accessory mechanism attached to a vehicle engine, usually linked to the transmission, that supplies power to drive a device?
power take off (PTO)
Why should rescuers position the winch as close to the object being pulled as possible?
if the cable breaks, there will be less recoil
The winch cable should not be _________ to the load.
attached directly
**(attach to a sling or choker thats attached to the load)**
and whenever possible the pull line should be in line with long axis of the rescue vehicle
What can you use to reduce the load on the cable when pulling heavy loads at or near the capacity of the winch?
pulley block or snatch block
How should you place the hook of a winch on an object?
where the back of the hook is to the ground or away from the operator
Keep the duration of winching pulls as short as possible. Do not pull for more than ________ when operating the winch at or near capacity.
one minute
You should drape a blanket, coat, or tarp over the cable approximately ______ feet from the hook.
5 to 6 feet
What are some safety reminders when using winches (3 non obvious)?
never operate winch with less than 5 wraps
never wrap the cable and hook by on itself
never use with live person load
What is a manually operated pulling tool that use a ratchet/pulley arrangement?
come-along
What are the most common ratings of come-alongs?
1 to 10 tons
What is the best chain for rescue work?
Grade 80 (aka Grade T)
**(can be identified with an 8 or T on the links)**
What is the minimum chain size for rescue operations?
3/8”
What are the most dangerous hazards that rescuers encounter at a trench or building collapse?
secondary collapse
What are some devices that can be used to detect movement in a structure?
plumb line
transit
carpenter’s level
What do you call a device use to secure any power switches on a machine to prevent accidental re-energization?
lock out tag out
What is oxygen deficient?
< 19.5%
What is an oxygen enriched environment?
> 23.5%
An atmosphere containing a flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of _____ percent of it LFL is considered hazardous.
10%
What is the lower limit at which a flammable gas or vapor will ignite and SUPPORT combustion?
lower flammable (explosive) limit
LFL or LEL
The LFL of airborne combustible grain dust can be approximated when the dust obscures vision of a distance of _________.
five feet or less
If oxygen levels are below normal, what does this mean?
some other gas has displaced the oxygen
What is the major limit of thermal imagers when it comes to searching?
they cannot detect through solid objects
What are the four most common marking devices for searches?
markers
latch straps
spray paint **(international orange)**
adhesive stickers
Search Markings
Using the appropriate _________ is the HALLMARK OF PROFESSIONALISM.
PPE
What is essential to managing a well-organized rescue operation?
crowd control
Who is responsible to ensure that the scene is secured and properly managed?
IC
Appointing a ________ who will listen to concerns in a sensitive and understanding manner and who can explain incident operations may provide a calming influence and reduce potential hazards.
liaison
The key to successful evacuation is __________.
pre-incident planning
What do you call having occupants remain in a structure or vehicle in order to provide protection from an approaching hazard?
shelter in place
Evacuees should be given clear direction as to where they should relocate and ___________.
how long they will be displaced
The most common method of organizing any emergency incident is to establish ____________.
control/operating zones
The _________ is where the rescue takes place.
hot zone
Treatment areas, if established at the incident may be located _____________.
in the warm zone
**(opposite just about every other book)**
Survival Time at Various Water Temps
Picket Load Capacity
Properties of Common Material
