Techn1cal Rescue Flashcards
1
Q
The 8th Edition of Fire Service Tech Rescue is written for what level rescuers?
A
Level 1
2
Q
The SCOPE of this manual in limited to _________ - level situations to which most FFs may be called.
A
Operations
3
Q
While experience is an important factor in the development and maintenance of these abilities, such experience must be built on a solid foundation of _________ and ___________.
A
training and education
4
Q
The consistent use of ______________ to COORDINATE the activities of rescuers increases the likelihood of a successful outcome for victims and decreases the likelihood of responder injury or death.
A
Incident Management System (IMS)
5
Q
What do you call the application of special knowledge, skills, and equipment to safely resolve unique and/or complex rescue situations?
A
technical rescue
6
Q
What do you call the individual who has been trained to perform or direct a variety of unique and/or complex rescue situations?
A
technical rescuer
7
Q
What is an organization, office, or individual responsible for enforcing the requirements of a code or standard?
A
authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)
8
Q
What is defined as a statement that describes the performance required for a specific job?
A
job performance requirement (JPR)
9
Q
Technical rescuer qualification under NFPA 1006 is _________ specific.
A
discipline
10
Q
Both Level 1 and Level 2 Rescuers identify hazards and use equipment. The difference comes in techniques used. What are they?
A
Level 1 – apply LIMITED techniques Level 2 – apply ADVANCED techniques
11
Q
What term will refer to an individual who enters the hazard zone?
A
rescuer
12
Q
What term will refer to an individual who may not enter the hazard zone, but may serve other functions?
A
responder
13
Q
The ratio of training to actual operations in technical rescue is ____________.
A
extraordinarily high
14
Q
All training and operational responses should be _________ with the lessons learned to identify additional training needs.
A
FULLY documented
15
Q
What are rules for HOW personnel should perform routine functions or emergency operations?
A
SOP/SOG
16
Q
Interagency cooperation and effectiveness can be best be accomplished through regular ____________.
A
joint-training exercises
17
Q
What is the written or unwritten plan for the disposition of an incident?
A
IAP
18
Q
Which incidents must have an IAP?
A
ALL (just smaller ones aren’t written)
19
Q
Who should perform a size-up of the situation and begin to develop and implement an IAP?
A
IC
20
Q
What do you call the ongoing evaluation of influential factors at the scene of an incident?
A
size-up
21
Q
If the size-up reveals that the incident is beyond the scope of the initial IC, when should command be transferred?
A
earliest opportunity to another responder who is MORE qualified
22
Q
Whenever the Command/Management system is implemented, there should only be one IC. What is the exception?
A
unified command **(still only single command post and single operations chief)**
23
Q
It is recommended that what should be designated as the ICP until it is determined a formal ICP will be needed?
A
first arriving emergency vehicle
24
Q
Every rescue operation requires that the _________ functions be carried out (NOT IC).
A
Incident Safety Officer (ISO)
25
What tasks should the first arriving responders begin to do when they arrive on scene?
tasks they are trained and qualified to do
26
First arriving responders should begin to formulate an IAP that reflects what four priorities?
-providing for rescue personnel safety and survival -prevent others from becoming victims -rescuing those who can be saved -recovering the remains of those beyond saving
27
What do you call the system of barriers surrounding designated areas at emergency scenes?
hazard-control zone
28
Team continuity among members in the hazard-control zone must be maintained through voice, touch, or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
sight
29
What type of communications is preferred whenever possible?
direct, face-to-face
30
What is the method for identifying which emergency responders are working an incident scene?
personnel accountability system
31
ICs should establish RIC on every incident requiring what?
rescuers to enter potentially IDLH or other hazardous environment
32
The evaluation of incident operations is process that begins _________ any actual incident or training evolution and continues _______ the termination of the operation.
before / well past
33
What is a document developed during pre-incident planning that contains the operational plan or set of procedures for safe and efficient handling of emergency situations at a SPECIFIC location?
pre-incident plan (PIP)
34
In order to request and utilize the most appropriate and effective resources for a given situation, agencies should know in advance what?
capabilities and availability of outside resources
35
What is a situation where the victim is determined to be dead (or very LIKELY to be dead)?
recovery
36
Are recoveries emergencies?
No
37
What is defined as operating independently of IC's command and control?
freelancing
38
What is the ICs first priority must be for what?
rescuer safety
39
What is the ICs second priority?
victim safety
40
Who on a rescue team should continuously evaluate an incident or training evolution?
EVERY member
41
What is defined as the perception of one's surrounding environment, and the ability to predict the future?
situational awareness
42
What is defined as reciprocal assistance from one fire service agency to another?
mutual aid
43
The successful and efficient mitigation of a technical rescue incident requires _________ of a robust IMS that is maintained throughout the response.
early implementation
44
The technical rescue disciplines identified by NFPA 1006 can be put into what two general categories?
land-based water-based
45
What is defined as rope that meets NFPA 1983 and dedicated solely to raising, lowering, or supporting people?
life safety rope
46
In all rescue operations, personnel must wear appropriate protective ______________ (specific).
headgear
47
What type of accessories can be mounted on helmets and used in potentially flammable or explosive environments?
intrinsically safe
48
In addition to wearing a helmet, it is essential that rescue personnel use proper \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
eye protection
49
For oxyacetylene or gas fueled cutting operations, eye protection with what shade rating may be sufficient?
3.0
50
For cutting operations with exothermic devices, eye protection with what rating should be used?
5.0
51
Do helmet face shields alone provide an adequate level of eye protection for most technical rescue operations?
No
52
FFs exposed to any noise in excess of _____ must be provided with appropriate hearing protection.
90 dB
53
What is the measurement of how well a hearing protection device will block noise?
noise reduction rating (NRR)
54
Hearing protection devices should have a noise reduction rating of at least _____ dB.
20
55
What are the two general types of hearing protection devices?
earplugs headsets
56
Most manufactured earplugs have an NRR of at least \_\_\_\_, and some exceed \_\_\_\_\_.
20 / 30
57
One disadvantage of earplugs is the possibility of what?
hand to ear contamination
58
How does headset performance compare to earplugs?
provide a higher level of noise attenuation and comfort
59
What two personnel must ensure that all personnel are wearing appropriate protective clothing?
IC and ISO
60
To increase visibility to oncoming traffic, rescuers should wear traffic vests with ____________ trim.
retroreflective
61
What is the protective clothing of choice for many rescue situations?
close fitting jumpsuits
62
When performing rescue work, rescuers must wear ______ that protect from the environment and task specific hazards like sharp objects, splinters, and rope burns.
gloves
63
Which harnesses fasten only around the waist and around thighs or under buttocks?
Class I & II
64
Class I harness is intended for __________ with a load up to \_\_\_\_\_\_.
emergency ESCAPE / 300 lbs.
65
Class II harness may be used in rescues with up to _____ load.
600 lbs.
66
Why are Class I & II harnesses not commonly used in rescue applications?
no upper body protection and they require the user to remain upright position
67
Class I & II harnesses appear identical. What is the best way to determine the class?
read the label
68
What may have a Class II harness incorporated into their design?
some FD PPE trousers
69
What is a ladder-belt type harness that is worn around the wearer's waist and is used only to secure a FF to a ladder or other object?
Class I Harness (aka pompier belt)
70
What is a sit type harness designed to support the weight of two people that also has additional support over the shoulders?
Class III Harness
71
Rescuers engaged in water based operations should use a ______ specifically designed for use in water.
helmet
72
What are the two types of protective outerwear used in water based rescue operations?
wetsuit drysuit
73
What type of water outerwear are also available that protect rescuers from contaminants in the water?
drysuit
74
Gloves worn during water based operations should provide a measure of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
thermal insulation
75
What is an important characteristic of footwear used in water operations?
-either exclude water altogether or drain easily -also needs thermal insulation
76
The most important flotation device in water operations is what?
PFD
77
How many categories of PFDs has the Coast Guard identified?
five
78
NFPA 1952 calls for personnel engaged in water rescue operations to use a Type ______ with at least _____ lbs. of buoyancy.
Type V 22 lbs of buoyancy
79
What are used to help rescuers move through the water with greater speed and efficiency?
swimming aids (swim fins and rescue boards)
80
Other than the Type V, which PFD is Coast Guard approved for rescue operations?
Type III
81
What type of atmosphere contains less than 19.5% oxygen?
oxygen-deficient
82
What percent of oxygen is needed for flame production and human life?
16%
83
What is a protective breathing apparatus designed to be used underwater?
SCUBA
84
What is an atmosphere supplying respirator for which the source of breathing air isn't carried by the user?
SAR
85
What type of respirator removes contaminants by passing ambient air through something?
APR
86
What is the difference in open circuit and closed circuit SCBA?
open circuit - discharges exhaust into atmosphere closed circuit - contains exhaust, filters out CO2 and re-oxygenates the air (not approved for firefighting)
87
What is defined as protective breathing apparatus that maintains constant pressure slightly above atmospheric pressure?
positive pressure SCBA
88
Why might your standard SCBA not be the best choice for extended rescue operations?
short functional duration per cylinder
89
How long can the hoses be on SARs?
up to 300'
90
Other than the constant supply, what is another benefit of the SAR?
smaller profile
91
SAR devices have what four components?
harness harness mounted regulator low pressure hose small reserve cylinder
92
What weighs less...closed circuit or open circuit SCBA?
closed circuit (uses smaller cylinder of pure oxygen)
93
What is the range of possible service times for closed circuit SCBA?
30 mins - 4 hours
94
HEPA filters must be at least _____ efficient at removing particles as small as ___ micrometers.
99.7% .3 micrometers
95
When should APRs not be used (list 3)?
oxygen deficient unknown airborne chemicals IDLH environments
96
What is the practice of preventing transmission of biological pathogens, especially blood-borne, when providing first aid or health care?
universal precautions (UP)
97
What is the practice of isolating all bodily substances in order to limit the spread of infectious disease?
body substance isolation (BSI) \*\*(used in tandem with UP)\*\*
98
Practices consistent with UP include:
-EMS gloves under rescue gloves if needed -impervious coveralls when necessary -shoe covers over leather boots -mask or eye protection
99
Primary decontamination must occur where?
at the incident site
100
What is secondary decontamination?
cleaning and disinfecting of small items that are carried into the fire station
101
Who can perform specialized maintenance on PPE?
rescuers or individuals who are manufacturer trained and certified
102
What is a tool manipulated and powered by human force?
hand tool
103
Hand tools are more likely to be ____________ than their powered counterparts.
intrinsically safe
104
What are tools characterized by large, weighted heads on handles?
striking tools
105
Striking tools should be used with \_\_\_\_\_\_, _______ strokes.
short, quick
106
In flammable or potentially flammable atmospheres, __________ tools should be used to prevent ignition.
nonsparking
107
What are hand tools that use the principle of leverage?
prying tools
108
What is defined as advantage created when levers, pulleys, and tools are used to make work easier during roper rescue or lifting/moving operations?
mechanical advantage
109
What is a device consisting of a bar turning about a fixed point (fulcrum)?
lever
110
Because they do not require ballistic movement or high impact, prying tools are generally _________ than striking tools.
safer
111
What is an unsafe addition of length of pipe to a prying tool to provide additional leverage?
cheater bar \*\*(unsafe to use)\*\*
112
What is perhaps the most diversified of the tool group?
cutting tools
113
Manual cutting tools can be divided into what four distinct groups?
chopping tools snipping type tools saws knives
114
What is a chopping tool with a thin, arched blade set at a right angle to the handle?
adze
115
What type cutting tool is generally safer when working close to a victim?
snipping tools
116
What cutting tools are useful for cutting objects that require a controlled cut but are too big to fit within the jaws of snipping type cutters?
handsaws \*\*(do not create sparks, therefore safer in flammable atmospheres)\*\*
117
What type of knife is sufficient for most rescue situations?
sharp, self locking
118
Jacks generally work best when the distance between the surface and the object to be stabilized is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
\< 2 feet
119
As with all lifting operations, the load should always be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
supported by secondary item
120
Because of their ease of application, durability, and relatively low cost, __________ are becoming increasingly more common in shoring operations.
screw jacks
121
To maintain stability, screw jack shafts should never be extended beyond ___________ of its length.
two-thirds
122
Screw jacks should be used for stabilization only and should not be used for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
lifting
123
The only substantial difference between using jacks and wooden cribbing components is that when the distance between the uprights has been determine, the pipe for the jack should be cut how short?
8" shorter than measurement
124
What is a type of screw jack that is used in trench operations and it made to fit a wooden strut?
Ellis screw jack \*\*(doesn't have 6' limit of pipe based screw jacks)\*\*
125
The bar screw jack is most commonly used when?
structural collapse rescue shoring
126
Which jack is generally recognized as the most dangerous of all the jacks?
ratchet jack
127
Also known as high lift jacks, ratchet lever jacks are classified as ________ -duty jacks.
medium
128
Rescuers should never _________ under a load supported only by a jack.
work
129
Axes or pointed tools should be maintained how?
semi-sharp, unpainted, with thin coat of light grade oil
130
Hydraulic tools may be divided into what two categories?
powered and manual
131
Although compressed air is used to operate most pumps, what types of motors are more commonly used?
electric engines or gas motors
132
What were the first powered hydraulic tool to become available to the fire service?
spreaders
133
How much force can be produced by powered hydraulic spreaders?
22,000 psi or more
134
How wide can powered spreader tips move?
as much as 32"
135
Shears are typically capable of developing ________ psi or more of cutting force and have opening spread of approximately ___ inches.
30,000 psi 7 inches
136
To prevent damage to the shears' blades, cut should be made at what angle?
90 degrees
137
What is steel with a surface that is much harder than the interior metal?
case-hardened steel
138
What is the disadvantage of the combination hydraulic tool?
the cutting and spreading capabilities are less than the single purpose units
139
What are designed primarily for straight pushing operations?
extension rams
140
The largest these extension rams can extend from a closed length of 3 feet to an extended length of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
more than 5 feet
141
Extension rams open with a pushing force of more than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The closing force is about ______ of the opening force.
15,000 psi half
142
What is the primary disadvantage of manual hydraulic tools?
operate slower and labor intensive
143
What is a manually operated hydraulic tool that has been adapted from the auto body business to the rescue service (has a variety of tool accessories fit the device)?
Porta-Power
144
What are the primary advantages of the Porta-Power?
portability and accessories that allow it to be operated in narrow places
145
What are the primary disadvantages of the Porta-Power?
time consuming to assemble and limited capabilities
146
Most hydraulic jacks have lifting capacities up to what?
20 tons
147
Using a piece of __________ under the jack can spread the load over a larger area to prevent failure of the surface.
cribbing
148
The care and maintenance of hydraulic tools focus on what three elements?
powerplant/pump hose and couplings actual tools
149
What are tools that receive their power from compressed air?
pneumatic
150
What are well suited for cutting metal in confined spaces and voids?
pneumatic air chisel \*\*(only operate air chisel when bit is firmly agains object)\*\*
151
What air pressure is the pneumatic chisel designed to operate at?
100-150 psi
152
What is normal air consumption rate of the pneumatic chisel?
4-5 cubic feet/minute
153
What is a hand-held tool that blasts away surface dirt?
air knife
154
When operated at 90-100 psi, the exit velocity of an air knife is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
close to Mach 2
155
Air vacuums can pick up loose soil and rocks up to what size?
2 3/4 inches
156
How much does the whizzer saw weigh and what psi does it operate at?
2 pounds (1/10th of a circular saw) 90 psi
157
Operating at _________ rpm, its 3 inch blade cuts case hardened locks and steel up to ______ inch thick.
20,000 3/4"
158
How long will a whizzer saw run on one cylinder?
3 minutes
159
Can you use air bags as temporary stabilization?
Yes
160
High pressure air bags when deflated are how thick?
about 1"
161
What are the size ranges of air bags?
6x6 up to 36x36
162
What is the inflation pressure range for high pressure bags?
116-145 psi
163
The largest high pressure air bags can lift how much?
75 tons
164
An air bags weight lifting capacity decreases as _________ increases.
lift height
165
What is the formula for calculating the lifting capacity of high pressure air bags?
L x W x OP (operating pressure)
166
How do you ensure maximum lift with air bags?
crib up as close as possible to the object to be lifted
167
Use only _________ material between the bags and object to be lifted.
pliable \*\*(rigid material can be forcefully ejected)\*\*
168
Avoid positioning air bags against materials that are hotter than what?
220 degrees F
169
Low and medium pressure bags are considerably _______ than high pressure bags.
larger
170
Low and medium pressure bags are most commonly used to what?
lift or stabilize larger vehicles or objects
171
What are some of the advantages of the low/medium pressure bags?
greater lifting distance safer than stacking high pressure bags easier to repair
172
What are the disadvantages of low/medium pressure bags?
each bag capable of lifting less weight require twice as much space for insertion vulnerable to punctures
173
Depending on manufacturer, low/medium pressure bags can lift an object how high?
6 feet
174
Low pressure bags operate at what psi?
7-10
175
Medium pressure bags operate at what psi?
12-15
176
When should air bags be inspected?
regularly and after each use
177
Some lifting bag safety rules:
-don't inflate without a load on them -inflate slowly -minimum of three pieces of cribbing per layer -no contact with temps \>220 degrees F -don't stack more than 2 bags
178
If you are going to stack air bags, how should they be organized and which is inflated first?
smaller on top inflate BOTTOM bag first \*\*(single multi cell bag would be safer)\*\*
179
You should never use compressed what to power pneumatic tools?
compressed oxygen \*\*(oxygen mixed with grease and oil could explode)\*\*
180
What is the process of providing additional support to key places between an object of entrapment and the ground or other solid anchor points, in order to PREVENT UNWANTED MOVEMENT?
stabliization
181
WHAT is used to stabilize vehicles and collapsed buildings during lifting operations at victim extrication incidents?
cribbing
182
What are the three most common dimensions of cribbing?
2x4 4x4 6x6
183
What are common cribbing lengths?
18 to 24 inches
184
Wood cribbing is one of the best resources for stabilizing horizontal objects because of its strength and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
ease of construction
185
What is an advantage of wood as it relates to failure?
it provides an audible indication as it reaches its failure point
186
While considerable more expensive that wooden cribbing, plastic cribbing has these three distinct advantages?
doesn't absorb fuel, oil, or other substances weighs less than wood more durable than wood
187
How can you make identification of cribbing lengths easier?
paint the ends \*\*(rest of cribbing should be unpainted otherwise it will be slick when wet)\*\*
188
For maximum stability, cribbing should be built in a _________ configuration using _________ members per layer.
cross tie configuration three members
189
Cribbing can be effectively applied to vertical openings equal to a max of ___________ times its length.
three
190
What are angle cut pieces of timber used to ensure close contact between shoring and loads?
shims
191
What do you call shims used in pairs to provide close contact between a shoring system and the supported load?
wedge
192
If rescuers must work under a heavy horizontal object, such as a collapsed wall, cribbing should be installed _____________ and no more than ______ feet apart.
both sides of entry point 4 feet apart
193
Wooden shoring material is similar to cribbing but is generally \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
much longer and larger cross section dimension (usually 6x6)
194
Pneumatic or hydraulic shores having a minimum capacity of ______ tons may be used for stabilizing heavy objects.
10 tons
195
What are pneumatic shores (aka air shores or rescue struts) usually made of?
aluminum
196
What is the operating range of most pneumatic shores (in psi)?
100-350 psi
197
All pneumatic shores have some type of ___________ to keep the unit from retracting when the air pressure is released.
positive locking device
198
Where are the top and bottom shores located?
within 2 feet of top within 2 feet of bottom
199
Overview of Shoring Capabilities
200
What do you call shores or jacks with movable parts that are operated by the action of hydraulic fluid?
hydraulic shores
201
What two things may occur when a saw (or any tool) is pushed beyond the limits of its design?
tool failure
injury to the operator
202
Gas driven says may be unable to operate in what types of atmosphers?
smoky or dusty
203
What type of saws are capable of cutting wood, masonry, and metal when equipped with the proper blade?
rotary saw
204
When cutting metal, a crew with what should standby?
charged hoseline
fire extinguisher
205
When should water be applied to a blade thats cutting concrete?
apply the water BEFORE cutting
stop the water BEFORE turning off (allows the water to clear the blade)
206
Putting water on a blade that is already hot could cause it to what?
shatter
207
What causes a rotary saw to twist in your hand?
rotational torque
208
What is the first and most important step to prolong blade life?
choose the correct wheel
209
Cutting blades can be grouped by the material they cut. What are the three main types?
carbide tipped blades
abrasive blades
diamond segmented blades
210
Carbide tipped blades are designed to cut what?
wood
| (can also cut nails in the wood)
211
The main advantage of a carbide tipped blade is what?
long life of cutting edge
\*\*(designed to work at high speeds, slow speeds will result in tip loss)\*\*
212
Abrasive blades are designed to cut what?
steel and certain other metals
213
When cutting steel, it is important to start at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
full speed
214
What are abrasive blades particularly susceptible to?
chipping, cracking, or shattering
\*\*(for this reason, the saw should never be transported with the blade attached)\*\*
215
What is an indication of uneven blade wear on an abrasive blade?
thinning of the blade toward the outer edge
216
Diamond segmented blades are useful for cutting what?
concrete
217
Are diamond blades as susceptible to chipping and cracking as abrasive blades?
No
218
Diamond segmented blades must be _________ before cutting begins.
"broken in"
219
What is the most common cause of uneven blade wear on diamond segmented blades?
lack of adequate water coverage to one side of the segment
220
How do you recondition or dress a diamond blade?
operate it in a softer material
221
What saw is most often used to cut pieces of cribbing or shoring?
circular saw
222
What is the major limitation of a circular saw?
cutting depth
\*\*(when greater depth is needed, use a chainsaw)\*\*
223
How do reciprocating saws compare to circular saws?
more controllable, maneuverable, and safer
224
When using a reciprocating saw, most of the ignition hazard comes from what?
blade on material (not the motor)
225
What is the best type of chainsaw?
one powerful enough to penetrate dense material, yet lightweight enought to be easily handled in awkward positions
226
What type of injury accounts for 40% of all chain saw injuries?
leg injuries
227
Although carbide tipped chains cost almost ______ times as much, they also last _______ times longer.
4x as much
12x longer
228
What occurs when the upper tip of the bar comes in contact with a solid object?
kickback
229
What occurs when the chain on bottom of the guide bar gets pinched and the saw is pulled into the work?
pull in
230
What occurs when the chain on top of the guide bar gets pinched, which suddenly stops chain movement?
pushback
231
What are the three tasks that rescuers are most likely to perform in regards to maintenance on power saws?
replace air filters
spark plugs
fuel systems
232
Most chain saws have what two filters?
pre-filter
fine filter
233
Both filters on a chainsaw should be checked when?
every time tank is filled
\*\*(more often in dusty conditions)\*\*
234
Before removing any filter, always ________ the choke in order to prevent dirt getting into the engine.
close
235
Mesh fine filters should be cleaned _________ and more often in dusty areas.
once per operation
236
What should you do with "paper type" fine filters when they are dirty?
discard them
\*\*(always carry extras)\*\*
237
What can become fouled from a too-rich oil mixture or when the engines idles too long?
spark plug
238
If after starting a 2-stroke engine, it stalls within 10-15 seconds, the one way valve may have become clogged. You should open the fuel cap slowly and listen for what?
rush of air to enter
\*\*(this would indicate that the fuel tank is not venting)\*\*
239
The most common exothermic cutting device carried on rescue vehicles is what?
oxyacetylene torch
240
What is a high temperature luminous electric discharge across a gap or through a medium?
arc
241
What do you call a cutting torch that uses a chemical reaction to produce heat and flame?
exothermic cutting device
242
What is a colorless gas that has an explosive range from 2.5 to 81% in air?
acetylene
243
When preheating metal (w/ oxyacetylene torch), the flame temperature is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. When additional pre oxygen is added, a flame over _______ is created.
4,200 degrees F
5,700 degrees F
244
Acetylene cylinders must be kept in ________ position to prevent explosion.
upright
245
In some rescue units, acetylene has been replaced by what?
methylacetylene-propadiene, stabilized (MPS)
246
The oxygasoline torch produces a cutting temperature of _______ with a higher heat release rate of oxyacetylene.
5,200 degrees F
247
What are the advantages of the oxygasoline system?
availability and cost of gas
safety of fuel delivery to torch
\*\*(when configured properly, it can work underwater)\*\*
248
Exothermic cutting rods can produce cutting temperatures in excess of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
7,000 degrees F
249
Exothermic cutting rods range in size from _______ inch diameter and from _________ in length.
1/4 to 1 inch
18 inches to 10 feet
250
Cutting rods are considered safer to operate than oxyacetylene torches because of what?
instantaneous burning of target material results in lower level of heat transfer
251
Plasma cutters produce cutting temperatures as high as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
25,000 degrees F
| (require 220v power)
252
Vehicle mounted winches can usually be deployed _______ than other lifting/pulling devices, generally have a _________ travel distance, and are often much \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
faster
longer
stronger
253
The three most common drives for winches are what?
electric
hydraulic
PTO
254
What is an accessory mechanism attached to a vehicle engine, usually linked to the transmission, that supplies power to drive a device?
power take off (PTO)
255
Why should rescuers position the winch as close to the object being pulled as possible?
if the cable breaks, there will be less recoil
256
The winch cable should not be _________ to the load.
attached directly
\*\*(attach to a sling or choker thats attached to the load)\*\*
and whenever possible the pull line should be in line with long axis of the rescue vehicle
257
What can you use to reduce the load on the cable when pulling heavy loads at or near the capacity of the winch?
pulley block or snatch block
258
How should you place the hook of a winch on an object?
where the back of the hook is to the ground or away from the operator
259
Keep the duration of winching pulls as short as possible. Do not pull for more than ________ when operating the winch at or near capacity.
one minute
260
You should drape a blanket, coat, or tarp over the cable approximately ______ feet from the hook.
5 to 6 feet
261
What are some safety reminders when using winches (3 non obvious)?
never operate winch with less than 5 wraps
never wrap the cable and hook by on itself
never use with live person load
262
What is a manually operated pulling tool that use a ratchet/pulley arrangement?
come-along
263
What are the most common ratings of come-alongs?
1 to 10 tons
264
What is the best chain for rescue work?
Grade 80 (aka Grade T)
\*\*(can be identified with an **8** or T on the links)\*\*
265
What is the minimum chain size for rescue operations?
3/8"
266
What are the most dangerous hazards that rescuers encounter at a trench or building collapse?
secondary collapse
267
What are some devices that can be used to detect movement in a structure?
plumb line
transit
carpenter's level
268
What do you call a device use to secure any power switches on a machine to prevent accidental re-energization?
lock out tag out
269
What is oxygen deficient?
\< 19.5%
270
What is an oxygen enriched environment?
\> 23.5%
271
An atmosphere containing a flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of _____ percent of it LFL is considered hazardous.
10%
272
What is the lower limit at which a flammable gas or vapor will ignite and SUPPORT combustion?
lower flammable (explosive) limit
LFL or LEL
273
The LFL of airborne combustible grain dust can be approximated when the dust obscures vision of a distance of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
five feet or less
274
If oxygen levels are below normal, what does this mean?
some other gas has displaced the oxygen
275
What is the major limit of thermal imagers when it comes to searching?
they cannot detect through solid objects
276
What are the four most common marking devices for searches?
markers
latch straps
spray paint \*\*(international orange)\*\*
adhesive stickers
277
Search Markings
278
Using the appropriate _________ is the HALLMARK OF PROFESSIONALISM.
PPE
279
What is essential to managing a well-organized rescue operation?
crowd control
280
Who is responsible to ensure that the scene is secured and properly managed?
IC
281
Appointing a ________ who will listen to concerns in a sensitive and understanding manner and who can explain incident operations may provide a calming influence and reduce potential hazards.
liaison
282
The key to successful evacuation is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
pre-incident planning
283
What do you call having occupants remain in a structure or vehicle in order to provide protection from an approaching hazard?
shelter in place
284
Evacuees should be given clear direction as to where they should relocate and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
how long they will be displaced
285
The most common method of organizing any emergency incident is to establish \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
control/operating zones
286
The _________ is where the rescue takes place.
hot zone
287
Treatment areas, if established at the incident may be located \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
in the warm zone
\*\*(opposite just about every other book)\*\*
288
If needed, decontamination will be located where?
warm zone
289
The outer boundary of the cold zone should be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
cordoned off from the public
290
\_\_\_\_ control zone can include a no-entry zone.
Any
291
The traditional way to estimate the size of a collapse zone is to take the height of the building and multiply by \_\_\_\_\_.
1 1/2
292
The safest location for defensive operations at a tall buiding is where?
corners
293
Who should ensure that each responder at a rescue incident understands the communication plan?
supervisors
294
Every rescuer has the right and obligation to _______ an assignment for which he/she is not qualified for or lacks necessary resources.
refuse
\*\*(know there may be reprocussions...you could also accept the assignment under protest...if you refuse the IC must inform the next individual that you refused and why)\*\*
295
On larger, more complex incidents, braches may be created and an _____________ should be appointed to coordinate the operations of the various branches, groups, and divisions.
operations section chief
296
Who is in charge of a group?
group supervisor
297
What is defined as the order of rank and authority in the fire service?
chain of command
\*\*(also defined as the proper flow of info as described by NIMS)\*\*
298
What are the three most common functional groups?
rescue group
triage/treatment group
transportation group
299
What group is responsible for detemining the number, location, and condition of all victims?
rescue group
\*\*(don't be distracted by CONDITION)\*\*
300
What group determines whether medical treatment is neccessary and if it can be safely delivered on-site or if they will need to be moved to the traige/treatment area?
rescue group
\*\*(again...counterintuitive)\*\*
301
What group gives the ALL CLEAR signal when all victims have been removed?
rescue group
302
What group within the incident comman system is responsible for traige and intial treatment of patients?
treatment group
303
Who advises the Transportation Group Supervisor of the number of victims so that appropriate transportation can be arranged?
Treatment Group Supervisor
304
Who determines the transportation priorities of patients?
treatment group
\*\*(think triage)\*\*
305
Who is responsible for taking stabilized patients to the appropriate facilities?
transportation group
306
Who COORDINATES the order of victim transportation and medical facility allocation?
Transportation Group
307
Rehab areas should not be staffed with personnel who are what?
treating victims
\*\*(same people can't treat both FFs and victims)\*\*
308
At least one ambulance should be on standby for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
rescuers
\*\*(BLS minimum...ALS preferred)\*\*
309
Emergency vehicles parked out of traffic lanes should ________ their emergency lights.
shut down
\*\*(eliminates distraction)\*\*
310
Where should assigned tools and equipment be safely stored?
resource cache/equipment staging
311
Lighting equipment can be divided into what two categories?
fixed
portable
312
What do you call any coil of conductors that is rotated within a magnetic field? As the coil turns, energy is produced.
Generator
313
What are the two types of power plants that are commonly used to provide power at incidents?
vehicle mounted inverters
generators
314
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are step up transformers that convert 12 or 24V DC to 110 or 220V AC.
inverters
315
What are the advantages of inverters?
fuel efficient
low/non-existent noise
316
What are the disadvantages of inverters?
limited power supply
limited mobility
317
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ generators usually have a larger power generating capacity than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Vehicle mounted
portable generators
318
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ must be followed for grounding the devices.
Manufacturer's guidelines
319
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ may be in the form of recorded radio transmissions between responders and dispatchers.
Documentation
320
What can assist responders with sizing up and managing incidents that are not commonly encountered?
tactical worksheets
321
These tactical worksheets may also qualify as _________ in situations where such documents are needed.
entry permits
322
What is a learning tool used to evaluate a project or incident to identify and encourage organizational and operational strengths and to identify weakness?
after action review
323
What is a general overview and critique of the incident by members of all responding agencies (including dispatchers)?
Post-incident analysis (PIA)
324
How soon should a PIA take place?
within two weeks of incident
325
The execution of a safe and successful reponse often depends on the evaluation and planning that the AHJ has done \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
before the response
326
What is the first step in the pre-planning process?
identifying the potential for technical search and rescue within a jurisdiction
327
Aging buildings and building under construction are possible sites for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
collapse
328
Areas used for recreation, such as swimming, boating, and fishing, should be considered \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
high probability areas
329
Whatever format is adopted, plans should be accessible to who?
on scene incident managers
330
Plans should include a list of the major __________ that would be required to mitigate the most likely rescue scenarios.
resources
331
Plans should include a list of where the needed resources are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
located
332
Contracts with private suppliers should be negotiated and finalized when?
before the need for them arises
333
After a plan has been developed and finalized, the _____________ must approve it.
governing body
\*\*(this provides the legal basis for implementation)\*\*
334
Once plans have been developed, tested, and approved, it should be distributed to who?
those that have direct or indirect involvement
335
What is the final element of the plan?
date of implementation
336
Most hazards associated with tech search and rescue fall into one of what four categories?
physical hazards
environmental hazards
water hazards
atmospheric hazards
337
What are two factors that have a significant effect on the stability of trench walls?
surcharge laods
vibration
338
What is any weight near the trench lip that increases instability?
surcharge load
339
What is the excavated material called at a trench site?
spoil pile
340
Before responders enter areas presenting engulfment hazards, all machinery and equipment that could produce movement should be _______ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
shut off
marked with lock out tag out
341
Monitoring the immediate area with a ___________ can aid responders in discovering and avoiding the electrical shock hazard.
power cable fault locator
342
Where practical, the work of supporting exposed utility conduit should be left to who?
utility company
343
To mitigate the effects of cold temperatures, warm air can be ___________ cold spaces.
pumped into
344
Current and anticipated water levels for water bodies in teh US are monitored by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
US Geological Survey
345
What is the smooth, non turbulent flow of a liquid?
laminar flow
\*\*(travels down the center of the body of water)\*\*
346
What is the corkscrew like flow of water?
helical flow
\*\*(effect of water's movement against the shore)\*\*
347
What are stationary objects in the water, such as rocks or old car bodies?
obstructions
348
What is muddy, cloudy, or murky condition of water caused by the stirring up of sediment?
turbiditiy
349
What is the current of water moving in opposition to the main stream, caused by contact with an object?
eddy
350
What is the difference between a strainer and sweeper?
strainer -- below water
sweeper -- above surface
351
What is one of the more dangerous hazards a water rescuer may encounter?
low-head dam (aka diversion dam)
\*\*(also called "drowning machine")\*\*
352
The atmosphere within any space should be sampled \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
often
353
Oxygen deficiency can result from what three things?
biological activity (fermentation)
fire (or other oxidation process)
another gas diplaces the O2
354
What is the most common cause of oxygen deficiency?
gas diplaces the O2
355
Spaces shown to be oxygen-deficient should be ______________ until atmospheric monitoring shows safe levels.
mechanically ventilated
356
Where should the atmosphere within a space be sampled?
outside the space before entry
then at the top, middle, and bottom, or at FOUR foot intervals
357
If the atmospheric readings change for the worse after entry, rescuers should \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
withdraw
\*\*(if a rescue, they can don respiratory protection and reenter...if recovery, then ventilate and wait)\*\*
358
Reponders must not enter a space until ventilation has decreased the O2 level to below \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
23.5%
359
What three things can you check for toxic gas limits?
confined space entry permit
SDS
NIOSH pocket guide
360
What are reference materials that provide information on chemicals that are used, produced, or stored at a location?
safety data sheets (SDS)
361
Often, the only clue to the presence of a gas other than what the monitor is designed for is what?
decrease in O2 of the atmosphere
362
The back-up rescue team should have the _________ level of PPE as the primary team.
at least same level
363
What is the comparison between known hazards and potential benefits?
risk benefit anaylsis
364
What the four phases of a technical search and rescue incident?
Phase I: Assessing the Rescue Incident
Phase II: Developing the IAP
Phase III: Implementing the IAP
Phase IV: Terminating the Rescue Incident
365
All of the info gathered during the initial and ongoing assessments help the IC to make what important decision?
whether it is feasible to think that the victims are alive
366
When does the incident assessment begin?
before the initial dispatch
367
Technical rescue activities generally begin with a __________ to locate trapped victims?
search
368
What is a mobile computer that communicates with other computers via a radio system?
mobile data terminal (MDT)
369
What is mobile computer that, in addition to functioning as a MDT, has programs that enhance the ability of responders to function at incident scenes?
mobile data computer (MDC)
370
Before committing resources to hazardous tactical activities, the IC should conduct a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
risk benefit analysis
371
Where should witnesses be interviewed?
at the location where they last saw the victim
372
For incidents that are expected to last for an extended period of time, an updated _________ should be requested.
weather forecast
373
An important component of the ___________ phase involves locating and interviewing witnesses to the incident.
assessment
374
When dealing with the family, rescuers should refrain from \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
speculating about the outcome
375
What is a person with the ability and authority to identify and adress hazards in an environment?
competent person
376
What is a system for determining position on earth's surface by calculating the difference in time for teh signal from a number of satellites to reach the ground?
GPS
377
The standard system for locating a building on any block is as follows:
use existing numbers and fill in unknowns
in no numbers are know, keep the numbers small and maintain even and odd sides of the street
378
What is information related to the movement of currents and tides in bodies of water?
hydrological data
379
What are areas which, from their nature or location, are likely to provide evidence of victim movement (ie. muddy river bank)?
track traps
380
At the scene of structural collapse, __________ are invaluable for determining probably survivable spaces.
blueprints
381
During responses to industrial areas, ___________ are essential in the planning process for detemining access routes and potential hazards.
site plans
382
What show the location of underground power and communication cables, water mains, sewer lines, and other infrastructure?
Infrastructure plans
383
The length of the pre-entry phase may last \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
from a few minutes to several hours
384
What is a period of time scheduled for execution of a specified set of operational goals?
operational period
\*\*(can be 12 or 24 hours, or any other arbitrary amount of time)\*\*
385
A new ________ is created for each operational period.
IAP
386
At a minimum, the IAP should reflect the possibility that __________ may need to be rescued.
rescuers
387
What are the IC and appropriate Command and General staff personnel that are assigned to an incident?
Incident Mangement Team (IMT)
\*\*(five types...Type I and II are national teams, Type III are state/regional, Type IV are large departments, and Type V are smaller jurisdictions)\*\*
388
A rescue group may be created within the ICS structrure to improve __________ at the incident and clarify responder roles.
span of control
389
What is the range of Span of Control?
generally 3-7
5 is optimum
390
Should the rescue group supervisor be directly involved in the rescue activities?
No, they are responsible to supervising and directing
391
Who should be involved in ALL aspects of a rescue?
ISO or ASO-RESCUE
392
Before entering the rescue environment, all entry team, back up team, and search team members should be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
evaluated both mentally and physically
\*\*(could be just baseline vitals)\*\*
393
When more than one rescuer is to be deployed, a __________ should be identified.
team leader
394
When entrants are inside a rescue environment, a __________ should be staged near the outside perimeter of the environment.
attendant
395
The attendant performs the following four tasks:
monitor the entrance for authorized entry
check entrants equipment
advise entrants of environments conditions
relay requests/info from the entry team
396
What is the ratio of rope tenders to entry members?
1:1
397
Effective __________ often makes the difference between success and failure.
communication
398
How many methods of communication should there be?
multiple
399
What type of communication is preferred?
direct voice
400
What type of communication is effective over long distances?
portable wireless
401
What type of communication is effective over short distances?
hard wired communication
402
What is effective if the others fail, but can easily be misunderstood?
nonverbal
403
Who should VERIFY that personnel accountability system is in place and maintained?
ISO
404
What is defined as readying a victim for transport?
packaging
405
Generally, equipment retrieval begins ________ and progresses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
at the edge
away
406
What section of IMS is the demobilization unit a part of?
Planning section
407
If the environment is too hazardous, it may be better to simply _________ the equipment.
abandon
408
The PIA process begins _____________ and continues through the completion of the final report.
immediately following an incident
409
What is sometimes referred to as a tailboard critique?
after action review
410
What two aspects make up the PIA?
after action review
post-incident report
411
Who is responsible for assigning someone to write the post-incident report?
IC
412
While the report writer may also be responsible for investigating and documenting any serious injury or death, this function is typically carried out by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
another govt agency
413
Who is an individual or group of people that are legally responsible or liable for a decision or action and therefor liable outcome?
responsible party
414
Responders are typically in control of the scene as long as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
emergency responders are on scene
415
Before release of the scene, the responsible party should be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
escorted on a tour showing hazards
416
How does attendance and participation work at a CISD?
attendance is mandatory
participation is optional
417
When should the CISD process begin?
before rescuers enter the scene if it is known that conditions exist that could cause psychological stress.
\*\*(if known conditions exist, there should be a FORMAL briefing)\*\*
418
When should defusings take place?
at the end of each shift a worker is required to be in the conditions
419
Rescuers should attend the full debriefing process within _______ hours of completing their work at the incident.
72
420
When all responders at an incident are acting in suppport of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, the likelihood of successful response is greatly increased.
IAP
421
What are the two overarching classifications of searches?
physical
technical
422
The physical search uses the searcher's \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
senses
423
The technical search uses \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
electronic equipment
424
What two things are the beginning of formal information gathering specific to the event?
size up
recon
425
The most logical starting point in a search is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
last known location of any victim
426
What do you call the space where victims may find safety from hazards common to an incident?
area of safe refuge
427
What do you call a fast, initial response of well trained, self-sufficient, and very mobile searchers?
hasty search
428
The procedure for the physical search should begin with personnel \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
walking around the site in an organized manner.
429
What is defined as calling out to victims and listening for responses during physical searches?
hailing
430
Any "hit" by a search dog should be what?
verified by a second dog
431
Motion detectors are available with with two types of operating principles?
seismic
radar
432
What are devices that detect minute vibrations and movement within a collapsed structure?
seismic victim locating device
433
Portable short distance radar units generate a signal that penetrates any \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
nonmetallic building material
434
Any movement within what range of a short distance radar unit will trigger an audible alarm?
about 20 feet
\*\*(with a cable attachment, this can go out to 200 feet)\*\*
435
The IC should coordinate what to help during listening operations?
short pauses of noise producing activities
436
Are thermal imagers effective for locating remains?
No
437
Searches must be planned in order to maximize ________ and minimize or mitigate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
safety of responders
hazards that are encountered
438
When found, victims may be classified according to what?
physical condition
situation
439
Although a Level I responder will _____________ aircraft operations, he or she must be able to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
NOT coordinate
interact safely with any aircraft
440
What position is usually created if ICS expands to involve aircraft?
Air Operations Branch Director
441
What are two important keys to aircraft communications?
at least one radio channel dedicted
single point of contact on the ground
442
When communicating location with a pilot, who's point of view do you use?
the pilot's
443
You should let the pilot know as soon as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
the aircraft is heard or seen.
444
What do you call air turbulence that is created under and around the rotors of a helicopter?
rotor wash
445
You should never approach the helicopter from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
rear
446
The appropriate actions for dealing with victims that are injured but not trapped are what?
remove them to safe location for treatment
447
Victims who are injured but not trapped account for what percentage of all victims?
50%
448
Typically remains of deceased victims should be __________ until the appropriate authorities authorize movement.
left in place
449
Rescuers should make ________ with victims at the earliest opportunity.
verbal contact
450
Rescuers who reassure victims are less like to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
encounter victim interference
451
Responders can begin to mentally prepare for victim care as soon as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
the nature of response is determined
452
Actual evaluation of a victim's condition can begin as soon as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
voice or visual contact is established
453
Victim treatment should be initiated based upon _________ of the responders and the __________ of the AHJ.
level of training
medical care protocols
454
The START triage method uses what three things to categorize patients?
respiratory
circulatory
neurological function
455
What are the four care categories under the START triage method?
Minor (Green)
Delayed (Yellow)
Immediate (Red)
Expectant (Black)
456
What method is used to IDENTIFY accident casualties as to extent of injury?
triage tags
457
Which victims should be evaluated according to the medical protocols of the AHJ?
ALL, even with minor injuries
458
What is decreased blood volume?
hypovolemia
459
What is potentially fatal failure of the blood circulatory system?
shock
460
What is the "result of traumatic injury where teh patient's muscle tissues becomes swollen and tightly encased"?
compartment syndrome
461
What is a "potentially fatal condition that occurs as a result of crushing pressure on a part of the body for four to six hours; the injured tissue begins to die and release toxins."?
crush syndrome
\*\*(a sudden release of pressure may allow the toxins to flow into the bloodstream and damage critical bodily organs)\*\*
462
Pre-release treatment for crush injuries includes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, large volumes of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, ________ monitoring, and certain \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
O2 w/ NRB
IV fluids
cardiac
medications
463
What occurs as a result of a victim (or rescuer) remaining immobile for an extended period of time in an upright position?
suspension syndrome
\*\*(victim usually faints due to lack of bloodflow to briain)\*\*
464
What is a condition in which fluid escapes into the tissues and causes localized or generalized swelling?
edema
465
Victims with hypothermia are susceptible to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
cardiac arrhythmias
466
Without proper protection, rapid immersion in cold water can kill a strong swimmer how quickly?
4 to 5 minutes
467
Survival Time at Various Water Temps
468
What is the autonomous physiologic response to immersion in cold water, in which the blood and oxygen supply is shunted to the brain and other core functions?
mammalian diving reflex (MDR)
469
Several people who have been submerged in water as warm as 70 degrees F have been revived after more than _____ minutes.
60
470
What is one of the leading causes of early death of trauma victims?
impact or blockage of chest/upper airway
471
What may be used to settle dust and prevent inhalation injuries?
water mist
472
What is an associated symptom of claustraphobia that may produce a sensation of oxygen deprivation?
hyperventilation
473
When practical, a victim's condition should be reevaluated after \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
every significant maneuver
474
What is a victim packaging device used in extrication that is slightly longer and wider than the patient?
long spine board
\*\*(can be used with stokes basket for vertical movements)\*\*
475
What is defined as a board used to package a patient with suspected spinal injury; may be used with harness for lifting?
miller board
\*\*(looks like backboard but has individual leg cutouts....this is not mentioned in the text. Difficult to distinguid between Miller Boad and long spine board)\*\*
476
The ____________ has been the standard tool for victim removal over rough terrain or vertical movement for year.
stokes basket (litter)
477
What is a lightweight, compact device for patient packaging; shaped to accommodate a long backboard and may be used with a rope system?
SKED
\*\*(device rolls up and made to be carried on rescuer's back)\*\*
478
What is particularly useful for immobilizing a victim found in a sitting or partially accessible position?
KED
479
What route should be used for removing patients from a hazard location?
the one that has been evaluated for feasibility and safety
480
Removing victims from the area of operations and leaving them without a formal transfer of care could be contrued as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
patient abandonment
481
During the transfer of care, what status should be reported?
decon status
482
What refers to the connective materials that are used in conjunction with other equipment?
software
\*\*(nylon webbing, rope, and harnesses)\*\*
483
What are the three general classifications of rope?
lifeline
accessory cord
utility rope
484
Lifeline may be purchased in what lengths?
100-600 feet
485
Much of the hardware today is desinged to work with what size rope?
1/2 inch
486
Only rope of what construction is suitable for life safety applications?
block creel construction
487
What do you call rope that consists of protective shield over the load bearing strands?
kernmantle
\*\*(mantel = shield / kern = core strands)\*\*
488
The core provides about ___ percent of the ropes strength and carries the majority of the working load.
75%
489
NFPA requires that lifeline use for a two-person, or rescue load, must be capable of supporting roughly _______ pounds.
9,000 lbs
490
The 9,000 lbs comes from the safe working load of 600 lbs multiplied by the safety factor of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
15:1
491
What do you call the manufacturer's recommended maximum load for a rope or other component?
working load
492
What is a dynamic and sudden load placed on a rope?
impact load
493
According to NFPA 1983, all lifeline must stretch between a minimum of ___ percent and a maximum of ___ percent when loaded with 10 percent of its rated breaking strength.
1
10
494
What can help rescuers immediately identify rope lengths?
dyeing rope ends
495
Accessory cord is rope that is ________ in diameter than lifeline.
smaller
496
When a piece of rope is purchased, a ______ must be started and kept with the rope throughout its working life.
rope log
497
Life safety rope should be checked _______ and _______ before and after each use.
visually
tactilely
498
Any damage to the outer sheath indicates \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
probable damage to the core
499
Cool water and _______ are not likely to damage the rope while cleaning.
mild liquid soap
500
What are the best washing machines for washing synthetic rope?
front loading without window
501
Some synthetic rope may feel stiff after washing, which is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
not a concern
502
Webbing loses _________ strength when bent around a small diameter object.
very little
503
1" webbing is the most commonly used for lashing and has a _________ pound breaking strength.
4,000 lb
504
Flat webbing is constucted of a ________ layer of material.
single
505
Flat webbing is stiffer and more difficult to tie in knots. For this reason, flat webbing is mainly used for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
straps and harnesses
506
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is more supple and easier to tie and flat webbing, and is the most commonly used in rescue work.
tubular webbing
507
Tubular webbing may be constructed in what two ways?
edge stitched
spiral weave \*\*(preferred)\*\*
508
Knots for rescue work must have the following characteristics:
easy to tie
easy to identify
easy to untie
hold securely under load
reduce rope strength as little as possible
509
What is a simple, open u shaped fold in a rope?
bite
510
What is the free end of the rope used for hoisting, pulling, or belaying?
running part
511
What is the middle of the rope, between the running part and working end?
standing part
512
What is the end of the rope used to tie a knot?
working end
513
A rope's strength is reduced whenever it is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
bent
\*\*(sharper the bend, the more loss of strength)\*\*
514
All knots should be _______ after they are tied.
dressed
515
What are used to prevent another knot from failing?
safety knot
516
The _________ safety is often used in conjunction with other knots to reduce the chance of the rope slipping through.
overhand
517
What knot is often tied near the end of a line to keep the end of the rope from slipping through the system?
figure eight
518
What knot should be used in place of the bowline when working with synthetic fiber rope?
firgure-eight knot
519
What knot makes an extremely secure connection between two pieces of rope?
double fisherman's knot (double overhand)
\*\*(most often used to create Prusik loops)\*\*
520
What is the preferred knot for joining two pieces of webbing?
water knot
521
What attaches a rope or piece of webbing to an object?
clove hitch
\*\*(consists of two half hitces)\*\*
522
What attaches a rope or webbing to an ANCHOR point or other object?
girth hitch
\*\*(if attached improperly, can create a weak link in system)\*\*
523
What are the three imporant functions that a Prusik loop can perform?
pulling prusik
braking prusik
ratchet prusik (used in MA systems)
524
What knot creates a movable connection point between two ropes?
Prusik knot
525
What is the climbing term for safety line?
belay
526
What figure-eight knot is used to tie a loop in the middle of a rope?
figure-eight on a bight
\*\*(makes sure its tied inline)\*\*
527
What is the preferred figure-eight knot used to tie a rope around or through an object?
figure-eight follow through
528
What is a knot used to form a loop; it is easy to tie and untie, and does not constrict?
bowline
529
The bowline knot weaken a rope as much as ____ percent while the figure-eight knot weakens it as much as ____ percent
30
20
530
What is used to tie a loop in the middle of a rope that can be pulled from VARYING directions?
butterfly knot
531
What refers to the mechanical devices needed to fully and safely contruct MA systems?
hardware
532
What is rescue hardware and equipment that is designed, tested, and labeled for lifting and lowering specific loads?
general use
533
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are commonly used lifting frame that extend between 7 and 12 feet above and opening.
Tripods
534
Lashing the tops of ________ together can also be used to create a lifting frame.
ladders
535
What is a steel or aluminum snap link device for attaching components of rope rescue systems?
carabiners
536
In rescue work, carabiners must have a _________ and ______ pound breaking strength.
locking gate
5,000 lb
537
Carabiners are designed to be loaded in _______ direction only.
one
538
Carabiners should _______ be connected to one another.
never
539
If a carabiner ha been dropped from _______ height or higher onto a hard surface, it should not be used until tested.
waist
540
What are triangular in shape and used for handling multidirectional loads?
Tri-links
541
Rescue _____ are also designed to be used when a multidirectional load must be supported.
rings
542
What are designed to prevent the twist that sometimes develops in MA systems?
swivels
543
What are devices used to attach multiple anchors to a single point?
anchor plates
544
What is a friction or mechanical hardware device used to control a descent down a fixed line or to lower a load?
descent device
545
What is a forged metal device in the shape of an eight; used to help control the speed of descent?
figure-eight plate
546
What is a device used to create friction for rappellilng and as a connection point. This descent device has extra protrusions to prevent the rope from slipping?
rescue eight
547
What is a descent device that allows the user to apply or disengage friction bars to change the amount of weight that can be controlled by the device?
rappel rack
\*\*(doesn't twist the rope or generate much friction)\*\*
548
What is a mechanical contrivance that allows upward but not downward movement on rope?
ascending device
549
In drop tests, ascending devices have caused serious damage or failure at approximately _______ of the ropes rated strength.
one-third
550
\_\_\_\_ devices can be used as ascenders in MA systems.
Cam
551
Two basic types of cam devices are:
free running
spring loaded
552
Handled ascenders are ___ designed to be used in hauling systems but intended only to support the weight of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
NOT
one person
553
What are steel or aluminum rollers used to change direction or reduce friction in rope rescue systems?
pulleys
554
The diameter of the pully sheave should be ____ to ____ times the size of the rope being used.
three to four
555
What are the simplest pulleys used with rescue rope?
single-sheave pulleys
556
What type of pulleys have an internal cam that allows the rope to only pass through in one direction?
self-tending pulleys
557
What is a single object used to secure a rope rescue system?
anchor
558
What do you call the total combination of anchor points?
anchor system
559
What do you call a system capable of withstanding forces in excess of those that might be generated or even catastrophic failure?
bombproof anchor point
560
What two people should ensure that the safety check is performed prior to entry into the hazard zone?
IC and ISO
561
What do you call loads that involve motion; includes the forces from falling objects?
shock loading
562
What do you call ropes or cables used with lifting or pulling devices such as block and tackle?
rigging
563
In ideal conditions, two bombproof anchors would be placed inches from one another so that each anchor supports ______ percent of the load.
50%
564
Responders should rig systems so that the angles remain less than 90 degrees ( ___ percent of the load per leg).
70%
565
At 120 degrees, each leg of the anchor is subject to a force equal to that of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
working load
566
At 150 degrees, the load at each anchor point is _______ the weight of the working load.
twice
567
Pickets used for creating an anchor should be a minimum of ____ inch thick and extend into the ground at least ____ feet.
one inch thick
two feet deep
568
Living trees greater than ___ inches are generally thought to be bombproof?
six inches
569
Which anchor is quick and easy method to provide a dependable anchor with minimum equipment?
tensionless
\*\*(diameter of anchor must be at least 8 times the rope diameter)\*\*
570
Was is a prebuilt length of 2" webbing with a fixed or adjustable length?
rigging strap
571
The multiwrap anchor also known as wrap three/pull two can be constructed of webbing or rope. This anchor is strongest when the know is _______ to the anchor point.
flush
572
Load sharing anchor systems work well as long as the direction of pull remains \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
constant
573
If a change in load direction is anticipated, a better solution is the __________ anchor system.
self-adjusting
574
The most commonly employed self-adjusting anchor systems are the ________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
two-point system
three-point system
575
What is one option available when reinforcing a questionable anchor or just to provide a back up?
pretensioned tie back anchor
576
The picket anchor system is only as strong as _________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
picket material
soil into which its driven
577
A picket should be how long?
4 feet
578
Picket Load Capacity
579
Pickets are directional anchors and should be driven into the ground _________ of their length.
two-thirds
\*\*(THIS DOESN"T MATCH EARLIER STATEMENT OF 2 FEET INTO THE GROUND)\*\*
580
How far apart should the pickets be placed?
distance equal to their height (4 feet)
581
Most incidents require the same response strategy during the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and the develop of the IAP includes specialty features.
initial response
582
The recommended belay tactic uses a lifeline attached to the rescuer and to a separate \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
anchor point
583
What do you call the team member positioned at the edge so that signals from the entry team can be relayed?
edge tender
584
What is the 10/20 rule for haul teams?
When raising one personk the force calculation should be near 10. When raising two people this number should be near 20.
585
What does the term "falling" indicate in rope operations?
engage the belay line
586
What do you call an environment with a shallow grade that does not require rope systems, but movement would be hazardous or difficult without them?
low-angle
\*\*(can be above or below grade)\*\*
587
What is an environment in which rescuers must be secured with rope for safety?
high-angle
588
Primary hazards at a high-angle rescue include sharp elevation difference. Secondary hazards will include:
downed electrical wires
leaking hazmat
potential for fire/explosions
terrain features
589
It is acceptable for multiple rescuers and victims to be attached to same main and belay line as long as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
safety factor for rope isn't exceeded
590
Pulleys that move within the MA system are referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
traveling pulleys
591
Each traveling pulley in a system will contribute a minimum of _______ advantage.
2:1
592
Stationary pulley are often referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
change of direction pulley
\*\*(don't contribute to MA)
593
What is a rigging system using one or more pulleys that move a load in line with the anchor?
simple MA system
\*\*(most elementary form is the 2:1)\*\*
594
One of the most commonly used simple systems is the 3:1 system, which is frequently referred to as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Z-rig
595
What is a series of pulleys (sheaves) contained within a wood or metal frame; used with rope to provide a MA for pulling operations?
block and tackle
596
Another common simple system is a ______ block and tackle system using two sets of double pulleys.
4:1
597
A _______ MA system is also the standard benchmark used for one rescuer to raise one person.
4:1
\*\*(practical upper limit for simple MA systems)\*\*
598
For the purpose of tech rescue, all equipment should be rated for "general use" at ____ pounds.
600 lbs
599
Why is the ACTUAL MA different from the theoretical MA?
friction
600
In what system do traveling pulleys move in the same direction, but at different speeds?
Compound MA System
\*\*(may also be described as two simple systems working in concert)\*\*
601
A compound system has a _________ effect on the calculation of MA.
multplicative
602
What is a system where a series of pulleys move in different direction?
complex MA system
603
A complex system has a __________ effect on the calculation of MA.
summative
604
A complex system can be ______ efficient than a simple or compound system, allowing for a change of pull direction to be built in or using fewer pulleys to create greater MA.
more
605
Factors that decrease theoretical MA can include incorrectly sized equipment, rope twist, drag, and other dynamics that cause \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
friction
606
If the rope is attached to the load, the underlying simple system will have an _____ MA ratio.
odd
607
If the rope is attached to the anchor point, the underlying simple system will have an _____ MA ratio.
even
608
Who should perform the safety check? Who confirms the check?
a member of the team that didn't set it up
ISO
609
What are the three main components in the belay system?
anchor
belay device
belay line
610
What do you call the technique of sliding or descending down a rope in a controlled manner?
rappelling
\*\*(uses gravity to move responder toward victim)\*\*
611
What is the primary difference in rappelling and a lowering system?
in a lowering system, a tender at the top controls the descent
612
In descending operations, the _______ controls the rate of descent.
rescuer on the line
613
Rescuers are reportedly ______ percent of all confined space victims in the US.
60%
614
Unless only one entrant will fit, the entry team should be composed of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
at least two responders
615
What does the OATH communication acronym stand for?
1 tug = Ok
2 tugs = Advance
3 tugs = Take up (slack)
4 tugs = Help!
616
If a ________ is available, it should be obtained and reviewed.
confined space entry permit
617
What criteria must a space meet to be a confined space?
large enough to enter
limited means of access or egress
not designed for continuous occupancy
618
What is a confined space that includes an extra safety hazard in addition to the baseline definition of a confined space?
permit required confined space
619
Where do you sample atmosphere in confined space?
first from outside space
then top, middle, and bottom or at 4' intervals
620
What is ventilation by any means other than natural airflow?
forced ventilation
621
What is a location or feature that attracts curious children or adults and is likely to require tech rescue?
attractive nuisance
622
What are water tight barriers installed or constructed to provide a relatively dry environment in which to work?
coffer dam
623
All confined spaces are potentially ________ environments.
hazardous
624
What do you call the penetration of one substance into the structure of another?
absorption
625
What is the adherence of a substance in a liquid or gas to a solid; surface based process?
adsorption
626
What do you call the release of a substance through a surface?
desorption
\*\*(when a container leaches a contaminant)\*\*
627
What do you call a main pipeline used for carrying large quantities of liquids, often with a diameter of 8 to 48 inches?
trunk pipeline
628
One of the most common forms of biological activity with which responders must be concerned is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
fermentation
629
What do you call introducing a nonflammable gas into a flammable atmosphere in order to remove the oxygen and prevent explosion?
inerting
\*\*(possibly argon or nitrogen)\*\*
630
What technique involves using smoke ejectors to pull smoke out of a building?
Negative pressure ventilation
631
A commonly accepted industry guideline is to implement ventilation that will result in at least _____ air exchanges per hour.
20
632
If only one opening is available in a confined space, what can be used for ventilation?
ducting
633
How many people die on average in the US during trench cave ins?
60-100
634
Before any trench rescue or entry operations are initiated, the ____________ must be evaluated for stability.
area around the trench
635
Who is assigned the function of measuring and placing shoring members in the trench environment?
shoring team
636
The shoring team may also be tasked with what?
evaluating the trench lip and reinforcing stability of walkway if needed
637
Who builds the shoring and cribbing components?
cut team
638
What are used to remove dirt from trenches during rescue operations?
collapsible canvas buckets
639
Only buckets with _________ should be used.
secure handles
640
One type of equipment that has proven useful for trench rescue operationsis the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
vacuum truch
641
Using what two powered tools minimizes the likelihood that a victim will be further injured during rescue efforts?
vacuum truck
pneumatic shovel
642
Generally, protective equipment at a trench rescue is disassembled in __________ order.
reverse order of placement
643
When does the assessment process begin for a trench rescue?
at the time of dispatch
644
The skill set of a Level I rescuer is limited to conducting trench rescues in what two environments?
non intersecting trench
trench no deeper than 8 feet
645
Trenches have all of the characteristics of a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, although most standards differentiate between the two.
confined space
646
CFR 1926 says in general that a trench is a excavation where the _________ is greater than the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. But the width cannot be greater than 15 feet.
depth
width
647
A registered professional engineer must design shoring plans for trenches deeper than ______ feet.
20
648
What is finely divided rock composed of natural mineral materials present in the earth's crust?
soil
649
Soil can be categorized into specific types based on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
identified traits
650
Regulatory agencies generally recognize how many soil types and what are they?
5
rock
cemented
cohesive
granular
loams
651
Which soil type is recognized as the most stable?
rock
\*\*(however rescuers should not consider it stable during a rescue)\*\*
652
What do you call the property of sticking or binding together?
cohesiveness
653
Cemented soils can lose stability through \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and water can dissolve the minerals that bond the soil.
fissuring
654
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ soils get their strength through the friction and chemical bonding that occurs between particles.
Cohesive
655
What are cohesive soils primarily composed of?
clay
656
Granular soils are identified based on the ______ of the particles.
size
\*\*(ie. gravel, sand or silt)
657
Loams are mixtures of ________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
cohesive and granular
658
To simplify field classifications, regulatory agencies in the US classify soils into what four types?
Stable Rock
A
B
C
659
A cubic yard of soil can easily weigh over a \_\_\_\_.
ton
660
Soil classification should be determined based on what two tests?
one visual
one manual
661
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ soils remain in clumps; ________ materials wil break up easily.
cohesive
granular
662
A soil is considered cohesive if a 1/8" piece at least ___ inches can be held on one end without breaking.
2 inches
663
Deep fissures near the trench lip should be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
monitored over time
664
Can victims assist in their own rescue?
yes
\*\*(provide them with a helmet and digging tools if possible)\*\*
665
What refers to the movement of soil or rack in large enough quantity to cause damage or entrapment?
cave in
666
What do you call trench failure where one or both walls fail at the bottom and leaves an overhang?
slough-in
667
What is the difference between a spoil pile cave in and a lip cave in?
spoil pile cave in -- EXCAVATED earth falls in
lip cave in -- lip caves in often due to surcharge loads
668
Given an average weight of _______ pounds per cubic yard, the weight of unsupported trench walls can generate incredible forces.
2,700 lbs
669
Pockets of softer soil often result from the soil having been \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
previously disturbed
670
What content has a tremendous effect on soil strength?
moisture
671
The full area of the lip of the trench is considered to be what?
horizontal out from the edge equal to the trench depth
672
The probability of a collapse of the trench walls is present as long as the trench \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
remains open
673
Regardless of all other conditions that are present, the two factors that have the MOST effect on the stability of the trench walls are _________ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
surcharge loads
vibration
674
Water service should be ____________ as quickly as possible.
locked out and tagged out
675
Plywood that is used for lip protection should have a minimum thickness of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
3/4"
676
Where sheets of plywood don't fit, ______ should be placed.
planks
677
The industry standard in the US is for the spoil pile to be a minimum of ____ feet from the lip of the trench.
2
678
Ground ladders should be placed where in a trench?
both ends
additional placed so no rescuer must travel more than 25' to one
679
The tops of the ladder should extend at least ____ feet above the lip.
three
680
When rescuers or workers must work in trenches deeper than ___ feet, employers are required to protect them from cave in.
four
681
What are the three strategies to prevent trench wall cave in?
sloping
benching
shielding
682
Sloping is used with trenches no deeper than ____ feet. Angle of incline is usually less than 34 degrees.
12
683
Both sloping and benching involve large amounts of excavation they are time conusming and costly. This makes them __________ in most rescue operations.
not practical
684
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ uses specialized equipment called trench boxes to protect workers in excavations.
Shielding
\*\*(doesn't prevent cave in, just protects workers in case it happens)\*\*
685
Timber shoring components are frequently used because of their availability and low cost; however, timber is the most \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
time consuming to install
686
The type of timber shoring system most often used consists of _______ planks, attached to ______ plywood sheets.
2x12
4x8
687
The planks used in a timber shoring system should be how long?
10 to 12 feet
688
Because of the extreme forces that could be encountered, the phywood sheets should be how thick?
1 1/8" CDX
3/4" artic white birch
689
How much of the plank should extend past the plywood?
1-2 feet
690
What are timbers placed against the sheeting planks to keep the sheeting planks in place?
wales
691
Cross braces must be installed no more than _____ feet apart and how far from top and bottom?
four
two feet from top and bottom
692
Wooden cleats for the cross braces should be made of what?
2x4
693
If joist hangers are used, they should be placed on ________ only.
one side
694
Timber horizontal shores are placed from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
top toward the bottom
695
How are horizontal timber shores constructed?
4x4 cut 1" shorter than measurement, wedges are then used to tighten fit
696
What is the safe zone of trench shoring?
space within 2' in all directions of an installed component
697
How many rescuers on entry team for structural collapse?
2
698
When must the back up team be in place?
before first team enters the structure
699
Structural collapse rescue differs from most of the other types of collapse in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
number and types of victims that might be present
700
Structural collapse incidents are frequently the result of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
civil or criminal wrongdoing
701
Structural collapse incidents may occur in one or more of four genral types of construction including what?
light frame
heavy wall
heavy floor
precast concrete
702
Light-frame contruction refers to residential homes, commercial occupancies, and apartments up to _____ blank stories.
four
703
The main weakness of light-frame buildings is the lack of _________ strength.
lateral
704
Level I rescuer for structural collapse are specifically focused on _________ construction.
light-frame
705
The initial assessment of a structural collapse incident begins when?
BEFORE receiving the dispatch
\*\*(pre-incident surveys)\*\*
706
Properties of Common Material
707
Responders should attempt to determine the cause of the collapse before \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
arrival
708
In what buildings does the pancake collapse most likely to happen?
high rises
buildings with wood or masonry load bearing walls
709
Which collapse pattern is least likely contain voids in which live victims may be found?
pancake collapse
710
Which collapse pattern is least stable and most vulnerable to secondary collapse?
cantilever collapse
711
Indicators of potential, imminent collapse that should generate immediate action include:
shifting debris
increase in airborne dust
sliding plaster
unexpected sounds
712
Void exploration uses minimal shoring because \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
intended to be quick primary search
713
Debris removal operations should only be undertaken to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
reach a known victim in known location
714
Once all live victims have been removed from the structure, ___________ removal can begin.
general debris
715
What may be the most appropriate and safest way to stabilize heavy horizontal or vertical objects?
system of wooden shores
716
What are the four basic configurations used with wooden shoring?
vertical
horizontal
struts/braces
raker shores
717
718
