Haz2Mat Flashcards
1
Q
What is the scope of the HazMat book limited to?
A
initial - and primarily defensive actions
2
Q
What does CBRNE stand for?
A
chemical biological radiological nuclear explosive
3
Q
Many hazmats occur during what action?
A
transportation
4
Q
What is the OSHA legislative mandates that relate to hazmats?
A
CFR 1910.120 (HAZWOPER)
5
Q
What are the EPA regulations that pertain to worker safety and hazmats?
A
40 CFR 311
6
Q
Who creates and enforces laws designed to protect air, water, and soil from contamination?
A
EPA
7
Q
Who enforces standards and regulations for the workplace?
A
OSHA
8
Q
HAZWOPER (29 CFR 1910.120) deals with what part of hazmats?
A
cleanup operations
9
Q
What are the two levels of training that NFPA 472 identifies?
A
awareness
operations
10
Q
What are the three levels that OSHA identifies above operations?
A
Technician
Specialist
IC
11
Q
What are the 5 levels of operations as defined by NFPA 472?
A
Technician Branch Officer Branch Safety Officer IC Private Sector Specialist
12
Q
Personnel trained to the awareness level can perform what type of tasks at a hazmat incident?
A
defensive
13
Q
Operations mission specific competencies allow responders to take what actions?
A
defensive and limited offensive
14
Q
What is the lowest level of training for HazMats?
A
OSHA Awareness
15
Q
OSHA Operations training allows for what type of actions?
A
defensive
16
Q
What action does the Operations level training add in comparison to Awareness level?
A
confining a release
17
Q
OSHA allows operation level trained individuals to perform offensive tasks on what materials?
A
gas
diesel
natural gas
LPG
18
Q
What does TRACEM stand for?
A
Thermal Radiological Asphyxiation Chemical Etiological/biological Mechanical
19
Q
What is a reaction in which two or more molecules chemically combine to form larger molecules (can be violent)?
A
polymerization
20
Q
Cryogens are gases that when cooled below what temperature turn to liquid?
A
-130 degrees F
21
Q
What do you call a gaseous, liquid, or solid material that can burn, irritate, or destroy skin tissue and severely corrode steel?
A
corrosive
22
Q
What do you call any substance or material that yields oxygen and may stimulate the combustion of matter?
A
oxidizer
23
Q
What do you call any material that when taken into the body is injurious to health?
A
poison
24
Q
A liquified gas (such as propane or CO2) is one that at the charging pressure is partially liquid at what temperature?
A
70 degrees F
25
Flourine is a cryogen that also has what hazardous properties?
corrosive, oxidizer, and a poison
26
To be classified as an elevated temperature material, it must meet one of three criteria. What are they?
transported at temp above 212 degrees F
heated above liquid flash point at 100 degrees F
in a solid phase at 464 degrees F or higher
27
What is the least energetic form of radiation?
non-ionizing radiation (visible light & radio waves)
28
What do you call the most energetic (hazardous) form of radiation?
ionizing
29
What do you call radiation that has sufficient energy to remove electrons from atoms, resulting in a chemical change?
ionizing radiation
30
What charge do alpha particles carry?
positive
31
Alpha particles rapidly lose energy when they pass through what?
matter
32
When are alpha particles harmful?
if ingested or inhaled
| not harmful outside of body (stopped by layer of skin cells)
33
What can block alpha particles?
sheet of paper
34
What charge to Beta particles carry?
positive or negative
35
How do Beta particles compare to Alpha particles?
Beta are more penetrating than Alpha
| but less damaging over the same distance traveled
36
Can Beta particles penetrate the skin?
yes, but they are more harmful when ingested or inhaled
37
What can block Beta particles?
layer of clothing
| .08 inch of material like aluminum
38
What makes up gamma radiation?
high energy photons
39
What charge does gamma radiation carry?
no charge OR mass
40
Can gamma radiation pass through the human body?
yes
41
What is needed to stop gamma radiation?
2' of concrete
several feet of earth
2" of lead
42
What do you call high energy particles that have a physical mass but no electrical charge?
neutrons
43
What type of reactions produce neutrons along with gamma radiation?
fission reactions
44
Neutron radiation is difficult to measure int he field and is usually estimated based on what?
gamma measurements
45
The health hazard that neutrons present arises from the fact that they cause what?
release of secondary radiation when they interact with the human body
46
Can radiation spread?
no, radioactive materials/contamination spreads
47
You can't have an exposure unless there is what?
biological damage
48
What do you call the condition of impurity resulting from a mixture or contact with a foreign substance?
contamination
49
The effects of ionizing radiation occurs at what level?
cellular level
50
The biological effects of ionizing radiation depends on what two things?
how much and how fast
51
Which type of dose is the body better equipped to handle, acute or chronic?
chronic, because it has time to replace dead cells
52
Asphyxiants can be divided into what two classes?
simple and chemical
53
Simple asphyxiants are those that do what?
displace oxygen needed for breathing
54
Chemical asphyxiants are those that do what?
prohibit the body from using oxygen
55
What do mutagens target?
DNA
56
What do teratogens target?
embryo/fetus
57
What do carcinogens target?
all organs
58
What do hepatoxins target?
liver
59
What do nephrotoxins target?
kidneys
60
Most corrosives are divided into what two categories?
acids and bases
61
What do you call any chemical that ionizes to yield hydrogen ions?
acid
62
Where do acids fall on the PH scale?
0-6.9
63
What do you call a water-soluble compound that breaks apart in water to form a negatively charged hydroxide ion?
base
64
Bases react with acids to form what?
salt
65
Where do bases fall on the PH scale?
8-14
66
What is a common sign of exposure to a base?
greasy slick feeling on the skin
67
What type of corrosive tends to adhere to tissues in the eye, which make them difficult to remove?
bases
68
What can react very violently when mixed together or water is added to them?
acids and bases
69
Carcinogens can cause disease and complications how far out from exposure?
10-40 years
70
What are substances that cause allergic reactions in people or animals?
allergens
71
What do you call chemicals that cause exposed people or animals to develop an allergic reaction after one or more exposures?
sensitizers
72
What is the simplest type of organism that can only replicate themselves in living cells or hosts?
viruses
73
What are microscopic, single celled organisms that invade tissues?
bacteria
74
What are specialized bacteria that live and multiply in GI tracts of carriers (ticks & fleas)
rickettsia's
75
What do you call something that is transmittable, or able to infect people?
infectious
76
What do you call something that is readily capable of being transmitted from one person to another?
contagious
77
The CDC and NIOSH list what as the three main routes of entry?
inhalation
ingestion
skin contact
78
What are two other routes of entry?
injection and absorption
79
What US law created a tax on chemical and petroleum industries to fund federal responses?
CERCLA
80
What are the four main agencies involved in the regulation of hazardous materials?
DOT
EPA
Dept of Labor
Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
81
What was enacted by Congress as the national legislation to community safety?
Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act (EPCRA)
82
Who regulates US commercial nuclear power plants and the civilian use of nuclear materials?
NRC
83
Who manages the national nuclear research and defense programs, including the storage of high-level nuclear waste?
DOE
| Dept of Enegry
84
FEMA and the Coast Guard fall under who post 9/11?
DHS
| Dept of Homeland Security
85
Who oversees and enforces compliance with FHSA, which requires that certain hazardous household products carry cautionary labeling for consumers?
Consumer Product Safety Commission
86
Who operates as the on scene manager for the federal government?
FBI
87
The majority of hazmat incidents involve what products?
flammable/combustible liquids (most)
corrosives (next most)
anhydrous ammonia
chlorine
88
Statistics indicate that the majority of hazmat incidents occur while the materials are being transported via what method?
highway
89
Any building with a fume hood exhaust stack on the roof probably has a functioning what inside?
laboratory
90
Awareness level personnel and first responders must be able to do what two things in the presence of hazardous materials?
detect and identify
91
What constitutes bulk packaging?
liquid > 119 gallons
solid > 882 pounds
gas - water capacity > 1001 pounds
92
Above ground storage tanks are divided into what two major categories?
non-pressure
| pressure
93
Non pressure above ground storage tanks store at what pressure?
< .5psi
94
Above ground pressure tanks can be broken into low pressure and pressure. What are there operating pressures?
low pressure - .5-15psi
| pressure vessel - > 15psi
95
A properly designed tank will break along what seam?
shell to top seam
96
Low pressure tank cars transport material with pressure below what?
< 25psi
tank test pressures are 60-100
capacities 4,000-45,000
97
Pressure tank cars transport at what pressures?
> 25psi @ 68 degrees F
tank test pressures 100-600
capacities 4,000-45,000
98
What is unique about placement of fittings on pressure tank cars?
fittings are out of sight under single housing, generally on top of car
99
Pressure tank cars without insulation and without jacketed thermal protection may have at least what?
top 2/3 painted white
100
Cryogenic tank cars carry refrigerated liquids at what pressure?
< 25psi
101
With cryogenic cars, the combination of insulation and vacuum protects the contents from ambient temperatures for how long?
30 days
| SHIPPER tracks these time sensitive shipments
102
Tanks not constructed to meet one of the common MC or DOT specs are commonly referred to as what?
non spec tanks
103
Can non spec tanks haul hazmats?
Yes, as long as the tank was specifically designed for a purpose exempted by the TC/DOT
104
What is the most common intermodal tank?
low pressure intermodal (aka non-pressure IM)
105
What are the pressures of the low pressure/non-pressure IM tank?
< 100psi
106
What are the two types of the common intermodal tank and what are there pressure ratings?
IM 101 - 25.4-100psi
| IM 102 - 14.5-25.4psi
107
What pressure is the pressure intermodal tank designed to work at?
100-500psi
108
What are specialized intermodal tanks used for and what is their operating pressure?
cryogens built to IMO Type 7 Specs
| 3,000-5,000psi
109
It is estimated that what percent of the world's cargo is transported by marine vessel?
90%
110
Tankers are divided into what three categories?
Petroleum
Chemical (lowest annual loss of cargo)
Liquefied Flammable Gas Carrier
111
What do you call containers and aircraft pallets used to consolidate air cargo into a single unit?
unit loading device
112
Intermediate Bulk Containers (IBCs) are designed for what capacities?
.45 cubic meters < IBC < 3 cubic meters
113
IBCs are divided into what two types?
flexible (FIBC) - aka "totes"
| rigid (RIBC)
114
A common FIBC can carry how many 55 gallon drums?
4-5
115
Ton containers commonly contain what chemical?
chlorine
116
Radioactive material is shipped in what five basic types?
```
Excepted
Industrial
Type A
Type B
Type C
```
117
What does "Excepted" mean?
very limited radioactivity / not marked as radioactive
118
What does "Industrial" mean?
limited hazard to the public and environment / not identified as radioactive (slightly contaminated clothing, lab samples, or smoke detectors)
119
What does "Type A" mean?
packaging must demonstrate the ability to withstand a series of test without releasing their contents under normal transportation conditions
120
What does "Type B" mean?
packaging must withstand normal conditions but also severe accident conditions
121
What does "Type C" mean?
packaging designed to withstand severe accident associated with air transport (used for HIGHLY radioactive materials)
122
What are the 9 UN Hazard Classes?
```
1-Explosives
2-Gases
3-Flammable Liquid
4-Flammable Solid
5-Oxidizers
6-Toxins
7-Radioactive
8-Corrosives
9-Miscellaneous
```
123
What section of the ERG will you find the UN 4 digit codes?
yellow section
124
Who is responsible for the DOT placards?
shipper
125
On tank cars, what may be used to get information about the car's contents from the computer or shipper?
reporting marks
126
First responders are most likely going to need the DOT Class Number from tank car specs. Where can this be found?
first set of numbers after DOT
127
What marking system is used to indicate the presence of hazardous materials at a fixed storage facility?
NFPA 704 System
128
What are the limitations of the NFPA 704 system?
doesn't tell quantity or exact location
129
What does the NFPA 704 system communicate?
health - blue
flammability - red
instability - yellow
special hazards - (either reacts w/ water or oxidizer)
130
What are the four signal words used under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act labels?
Caution - minor health effects
Warning - moderate hazards
Danger - highest hazard
Poison - required in addition to Danger for toxins
131
ANSI Z535.1 uses what color codes in the US?
```
red - danger or stop
orange - warning
yellow - caution (corrosives/unstable)
green - safety equipment
blue - safety signage
```
132
What is the safest of the five senses to use in the detection of hazardous materials?
vision
133
What is the medical term for pinpoint pupils?
miosis (sign of possible chemical exposure)
134
What does it mean if agar is present?
biological lab
135
What section of the ERG contains the names of materials?
blue
136
Where are the container profiles found in the ERG?
white pages (used as last resort)
137
What section of the ERG is of most importance?
orange / Initial Action Guides
138
Each of the guides in the orange section are broken down into what three parts?
Potential Hazards
Public Safety
Emergency Response
139
Under the Potential Hazards in the orange section, it will be broken down into what two types?
health
fire/explosion
(highest potential hazard listed first)
140
The Public Safety Section in the orange guide pages will provide what information?
immediate isolation distance
| recommended PPE & respiratory protection
141
What information will be provided under the Emergency Response Section in the orange pages of the ERG?
Fire - extinguishing agent
Spill or Leak
First aid
142
Where in the ERG is the table for initial isolation and protective action distances?
green pages
143
What constitutes a small or large spill in the ERG?
small < 53 gallons
| large > 53 gallons
144
What will the initial isolation distance always be?
at least 100'
145
When does the ERG table for distances not apply?
materials on fire
| leaking longer than 30 minutes
146
How does the protective action distance differ from initial isolation zone?
it is the downwind distance
147
What is one of the most important means by which Awareness and Ops level personnel can ensure their safety and the safety of others?
isolation and scene control (this means in and out)
148
What state is the following particulate in...dust?
solid
149
What state is the following particulate in...fume?
??
150
What state is the following particulate in...aerosol?
liquid
151
What state is the following particulate in...mist?
liquid
152
What state is the following particulate in...vapor?
gas
153
What do you call the ignition temperature with no outside source or spark?
auto ignition temp
154
What do you call a fuels susceptibility to ignite?
flammability
155
What do you call the minimum temperature where a liquid gives off enough vapors to for ignitable mixture?
flash point
156
What do you call the temperature at which a liquid fuel produces sufficient vapors to support combustion once ignited?
fire point
157
How does the fire point generally compare to the flash point?
fire point is a few degrees above flash point
158
What do you call something that is incapable of combustion under normal circumstances?
nonflammable
159
What is commonly used to determine how flammable a liquid is?
flash point
160
Liquids that have a low flash points are designated as what?
flammable
161
Liquids with higher flash points are called what?
combustibles
162
What is a colorless toxic gas with an odor of bitter almonds?
HCN (produced by nitrogen)
163
Products with a low LEL and wide range between LEL and UEL are considered what?
most dangerous
164
How does vapor pressure compare to boiling point?
inverse relationship
| lower the boiling point the higher the vapor pressure
165
What do you call the rapid vaporization of a liquid stored under pressure that is released following vessel failure?
BLEVE
166
What do you call the change directly from solid to gas?
sublimation
167
What does the vapor density value tell you?
>1 heavier than air and will sink
| <1 lighter than air and will rise
168
What does the 4H MEDIC ANNA tell you?
the 13 chemicals that have vapor density lighter than air
169
What are the degrees of solubility?
```
negligible (insoluble) - < .1%
slight (slightly soluble - .1-1%
moderate - 1-10%
appreciable - >10-25%
completely soluble- >25-100%
```
170
Water soluble agents will cause what types of health issues?
upper respiratory
171
Partially water soluble agents will have what health effects?
lower respiratory (possibly delayed response)
172
What do you call the degree or readiness to which two or more gases or liquids are able to mix with or dissolve into one another?
miscibility
173
What do you call the length of time a chemical remains effective without dispersing?
persistence (generally considered persistent if > 24 hours)
174
What do you call a chemical reaction in which a catalyst causes simple molecules to combine to form long chain molecules?
polymerization
175
What do you call a material that is added to products that easily polymerize in order to control or prevent reactions?
inhibitor
176
What tool is used to describe how hazmats are accidently released from their container?
GEMBO
177
What are the six steps of a hazmat incident?
```
1- stress on container
2- breach
3- release
4- dispersion/engulf
5- exposure/contact
6- harm
```
178
What do you call a breach where the container suffers a general loss of integrity such as a glass bottle shattering or grenade exploding?
disintegration
179
What do you call a breach where a crack develops as a result of some type of damage, which grows rapidly, breaking the container into two or more pieces?
runaway cracking (commonly associated with BLEVEs)
180
What do you call a breach where a welded seam on a tank or drum fails?
split or tear
181
Releases may consist of what three things?
product
energy
container
182
Releases are classified based on what?
on fast they occur
183
What type of release is an instantaneous and explosive release of stored chemical energy?
detonation (measured in 100s or 1000s of a second)
184
What type of release is an immediate release of a chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks?
violent rupture (one second or less)
185
What type of release is a fast release of pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices caused by damage valves, piping, or attachments in the container?
rapid release (several seconds to several minutes)
186
What type of release is slow under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or usual openings/attachments?
spill/leak (several minutes to several days)
187
What do you call the dispersion of material that forms a danger zone, or to flow over or enclose?
engulfment
188
What dispersion pattern is semicircular or dome shaped pattern of airborne hazmat that is still partially in contact with the ground or water?
hemispheric
189
What dispersion pattern is ball shaped pattern of airborne hazmat where the material has risen above the ground or water?
cloud
190
What dispersion pattern is irregularly shaped pattern of airborne hazmat?
plume
191
What dispersion pattern is triangular shaped with a point at the source and wide base downrange?
cone
192
What dispersion pattern is a pattern of liquid that flows downslope?
stream
193
What dispersion pattern is three dimensional and includes a depth?
pool
194
What dispersion pattern is a deposit of hazmat like one carried by a first responder's boots?
irregular
195
What is the simplest dispersion pattern of a solid?
pile
196
Exposures/contacts are associated with what four time frames?
1- immediate (milliseconds, seconds) deflagration or explosion
2- short-term (minutes, hours) gas or vapor cloud
3- medium term (days, weeks, months) lingering pesticides
4- long term (years, generations) radioactive source
197
Respiratory protection is a primary concern because what is arguably the most significant route of entry for hazmats?
inhalation
198
What are the positives with using SCBAs?
independence, maneuverability, and protection from atmosphere
199
What are the disadvantages of using SCBAs?
weight, limited air supply, change in profile, limited vision, limited communication
200
NIOSH classifies SAR's as what type of respirator?
Type C
201
What are the benefits and downfalls of SARs?
benefits - reduced weight
| disadvantages - limit of length of line and exposure of line to elements
202
What do you call a material, compound, or system that holds contaminants by adsorption or absorption?
sorbent
203
When can you NOT wear APRs?
when there are unknown atmospheric conditions
204
WIth APRs, what does "N" mean?
not oil resistant
205
With APRs, what does "R" mean?
resistant to oil
206
With APRs, what does "P" mean?
used when oil or non oil lubricants are present
207
Which offers a greater degree of protection, APR or PARP?
PARP (powered APR)
208
When can you not use PARP's?
explosive or potentially explosive atmospheres
209
What are the two types of chemical protective clothing (CPC)?
liquid splash
| vapor protective
210
Liquid splash protective clothing protect against liquid splashes, but not chemical vapors or gases. What are the two options of LCPC?
encapsulating
| non encapsulating
211
What clothing provides the highest degree of protection against hazardous gases or vapors?
Vapor Protective Clothing
212
No single combination of protective clothing can do what?
protect against ALL hazards
213
The effectiveness of Chemical Protective Clothing can be reduced by what three actions?
permeation - chemical passes through fabric
degradation - material is altered through contact
penetration - something enters an opening or puncture
214
What are the four EPA levels of protection?
A
B
C
D
215
What makes up Level A protection?
highest level w/ SCBA
total encapsulating suit
(Ops level not generally allowed to use)
216
What makes up Level B protection?
SCBA
Liquid CPC
(same respiratory as Level A, but suit is step down)
217
What makes up Level C protection?
lesser level of skin and respiratory protection
full face or half mask APR
(same skin as Level B, but lower respiratory)
218
What makes up Level D protection?
lowest level
coveralls, gloves, boots
no atmospheric hazards
not for any emergency above Awareness level
219
Overprotection as well as under protection should be what?
avoided
220
What constitutes proper fluid consumption?
7 oz. every 15-20 minutes
chilled water before working
room temp water during work
221
What is the difference in heat stroke and heat exhaustion?
heat stroke - dry red hot skin
| heat exhaustion - cold skin w/ heavy sweating
222
What do you call the physical process of immediately removing contaminants of individuals with life threatening situations?
emergency decon
223
What do you call the process of deconning large numbers of people in the fastest time possible?
mass decon
224
What do you call a planned systematic process of reducing contaminants to ALARA (as low as reasonable achievable)?
technical decon
225
The most effective means of decon is often as simple as what?
removing the outer clothing or PPE that was contaminated
226
When should technical decon be operational?
before personnel enter hot zone
227
Decon member's PPE should be what?
one level below entry team
228
In most instances, where will triage be conducted?
cold zone after decontamination
229
In most cases where emergency decon or mass decon is needed, what is the answer?
dilution
230
What do you call an individual with the training and expertise to provide competent assistance and direction at hazmat or WMD incidents?
allied professional
231
What do you call the process of changing the pH of a corrosive by raising or lowering it towards 7?
neutralization
232
What is the difference between sanitization, disinfection, or sterilization?
sanitization - reduces microorganisms to SAFE level
disinfection - kills MOST microorganisms
sterilization - kills ALL microorganisms
233
What process is similar to dilution but uses prepared solutions such as soaps or solvents?
washing
234
What are some consideration for decon site location?
- uphill/upwind
- ideally "flat" or should slope back towards hot zone
- nonporous ground (if unable, then use plastic covers)
- drains and waterways should be avoided
235
At what temperature should consideration be given to protect those involved in the decon process?
64 degrees F or lower
236
What type of tactics are used to confine a hazardous material that has already been released?
spill control tactics (generally defensive in nature)
237
What type of tactics are used to contain the product in its original container?
leak control tactics (mostly offensive in nature and must be performed by HazMat Tech or Specialist)
238
Leak control has a what level of risk as compared to spill control?
higher level of risk
239
What is the difference in absorption and adsorption?
absorption - one material retained within the other
| adsorption - hazmat molecules physically adhere to adsorbent material (primarily used to control shallow liquid spills)
240
What is the relationship between foams and hydrocarbons or polar solvents?
foams that work for polar solvents will work for hydrocarbons...but NOT vice versa
241
What part of the ERG will tell you what foam to use?
orange section
242
The use of dispersants may require approval by who?
government authorities
243
What is the exception when someone under Tech level will engage in offensive actions like leak control?
when you can use a remote shutoff valve or when dealing with gas, diesel, LPG, and natural gas
