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Lt Test > Haz2Mat > Flashcards

Haz2Mat Flashcards

1
Q

What is the scope of the HazMat book limited to?

A

initial - and primarily defensive actions

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2
Q

What does CBRNE stand for?

A 
chemical
biological
radiological
nuclear
explosive
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3
Q

Many hazmats occur during what action?

A

transportation

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4
Q

What is the OSHA legislative mandates that relate to hazmats?

A

CFR 1910.120 (HAZWOPER)

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5
Q

What are the EPA regulations that pertain to worker safety and hazmats?

A

40 CFR 311

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6
Q

Who creates and enforces laws designed to protect air, water, and soil from contamination?

A

EPA

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7
Q

Who enforces standards and regulations for the workplace?

A

OSHA

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8
Q

HAZWOPER (29 CFR 1910.120) deals with what part of hazmats?

A

cleanup operations

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9
Q

What are the two levels of training that NFPA 472 identifies?

A

awareness

operations

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10
Q

What are the three levels that OSHA identifies above operations?

A

Technician
Specialist
IC

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11
Q

What are the 5 levels of operations as defined by NFPA 472?

A 
Technician
Branch Officer
Branch Safety Officer
IC
Private Sector Specialist
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12
Q

Personnel trained to the awareness level can perform what type of tasks at a hazmat incident?

A

defensive

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13
Q

Operations mission specific competencies allow responders to take what actions?

A

defensive and limited offensive

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14
Q

What is the lowest level of training for HazMats?

A

OSHA Awareness

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15
Q

OSHA Operations training allows for what type of actions?

A

defensive

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16
Q

What action does the Operations level training add in comparison to Awareness level?

A

confining a release

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17
Q

OSHA allows operation level trained individuals to perform offensive tasks on what materials?

A

gas
diesel
natural gas
LPG

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18
Q

What does TRACEM stand for?

A 
Thermal
Radiological
Asphyxiation
Chemical
Etiological/biological
Mechanical
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19
Q

What is a reaction in which two or more molecules chemically combine to form larger molecules (can be violent)?

A

polymerization

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20
Q

Cryogens are gases that when cooled below what temperature turn to liquid?

A

-130 degrees F

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21
Q

What do you call a gaseous, liquid, or solid material that can burn, irritate, or destroy skin tissue and severely corrode steel?

A

corrosive

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22
Q

What do you call any substance or material that yields oxygen and may stimulate the combustion of matter?

A

oxidizer

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23
Q

What do you call any material that when taken into the body is injurious to health?

A

poison

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24
Q

A liquified gas (such as propane or CO2) is one that at the charging pressure is partially liquid at what temperature?

A

70 degrees F

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25
Q

Flourine is a cryogen that also has what hazardous properties?

A

corrosive, oxidizer, and a poison

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26
Q

To be classified as an elevated temperature material, it must meet one of three criteria. What are they?

A

transported at temp above 212 degrees F
heated above liquid flash point at 100 degrees F
in a solid phase at 464 degrees F or higher

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27
Q

What is the least energetic form of radiation?

A

non-ionizing radiation (visible light & radio waves)

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28
Q

What do you call the most energetic (hazardous) form of radiation?

A

ionizing

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29
Q

What do you call radiation that has sufficient energy to remove electrons from atoms, resulting in a chemical change?

A

ionizing radiation

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30
Q

What charge do alpha particles carry?

A

positive

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31
Q

Alpha particles rapidly lose energy when they pass through what?

A

matter

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32
Q

When are alpha particles harmful?

A

if ingested or inhaled

not harmful outside of body (stopped by layer of skin cells)

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33
Q

What can block alpha particles?

A

sheet of paper

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34
Q

What charge to Beta particles carry?

A

positive or negative

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35
Q

How do Beta particles compare to Alpha particles?

A

Beta are more penetrating than Alpha

but less damaging over the same distance traveled

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36
Q

Can Beta particles penetrate the skin?

A

yes, but they are more harmful when ingested or inhaled

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37
Q

What can block Beta particles?

A

layer of clothing

.08 inch of material like aluminum

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38
Q

What makes up gamma radiation?

A

high energy photons

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39
Q

What charge does gamma radiation carry?

A

no charge OR mass

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40
Q

Can gamma radiation pass through the human body?

A

yes

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41
Q

What is needed to stop gamma radiation?

A

2’ of concrete
several feet of earth
2” of lead

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42
Q

What do you call high energy particles that have a physical mass but no electrical charge?

A

neutrons

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43
Q

What type of reactions produce neutrons along with gamma radiation?

A

fission reactions

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44
Q

Neutron radiation is difficult to measure int he field and is usually estimated based on what?

A

gamma measurements

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45
Q

The health hazard that neutrons present arises from the fact that they cause what?

A

release of secondary radiation when they interact with the human body

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46
Q

Can radiation spread?

A

no, radioactive materials/contamination spreads

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47
Q

You can’t have an exposure unless there is what?

A

biological damage

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48
Q

What do you call the condition of impurity resulting from a mixture or contact with a foreign substance?

A

contamination

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49
Q

The effects of ionizing radiation occurs at what level?

A

cellular level

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50
Q

The biological effects of ionizing radiation depends on what two things?

A

how much and how fast

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51
Q

Which type of dose is the body better equipped to handle, acute or chronic?

A

chronic, because it has time to replace dead cells

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52
Q

Asphyxiants can be divided into what two classes?

A

simple and chemical

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53
Q

Simple asphyxiants are those that do what?

A

displace oxygen needed for breathing

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54
Q

Chemical asphyxiants are those that do what?

A

prohibit the body from using oxygen

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55
Q

What do mutagens target?

A

DNA

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56
Q

What do teratogens target?

A

embryo/fetus

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57
Q

What do carcinogens target?

A

all organs

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58
Q

What do hepatoxins target?

A

liver

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59
Q

What do nephrotoxins target?

A

kidneys

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60
Q

Most corrosives are divided into what two categories?

A

acids and bases

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61
Q

What do you call any chemical that ionizes to yield hydrogen ions?

A

acid

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62
Q

Where do acids fall on the PH scale?

A

0-6.9

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63
Q

What do you call a water-soluble compound that breaks apart in water to form a negatively charged hydroxide ion?

A

base

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64
Q

Bases react with acids to form what?

A

salt

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65
Q

Where do bases fall on the PH scale?

A

8-14

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66
Q

What is a common sign of exposure to a base?

A

greasy slick feeling on the skin

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67
Q

What type of corrosive tends to adhere to tissues in the eye, which make them difficult to remove?

A

bases

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68
Q

What can react very violently when mixed together or water is added to them?

A

acids and bases

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69
Q

Carcinogens can cause disease and complications how far out from exposure?

A

10-40 years

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70
Q

What are substances that cause allergic reactions in people or animals?

A

allergens

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71
Q

What do you call chemicals that cause exposed people or animals to develop an allergic reaction after one or more exposures?

A

sensitizers

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72
Q

What is the simplest type of organism that can only replicate themselves in living cells or hosts?

A

viruses

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73
Q

What are microscopic, single celled organisms that invade tissues?

A

bacteria

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74
Q

What are specialized bacteria that live and multiply in GI tracts of carriers (ticks & fleas)

A

rickettsia’s

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75
Q

What do you call something that is transmittable, or able to infect people?

A

infectious

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76
Q

What do you call something that is readily capable of being transmitted from one person to another?

A

contagious

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77
Q

The CDC and NIOSH list what as the three main routes of entry?

A

inhalation
ingestion
skin contact

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78
Q

What are two other routes of entry?

A

injection and absorption

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79
Q

What US law created a tax on chemical and petroleum industries to fund federal responses?

A

CERCLA

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80
Q

What are the four main agencies involved in the regulation of hazardous materials?

A

DOT
EPA
Dept of Labor
Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)

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81
Q

What was enacted by Congress as the national legislation to community safety?

A

Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act (EPCRA)

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82
Q

Who regulates US commercial nuclear power plants and the civilian use of nuclear materials?

A

NRC

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83
Q

Who manages the national nuclear research and defense programs, including the storage of high-level nuclear waste?

A

DOE

Dept of Enegry

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84
Q

FEMA and the Coast Guard fall under who post 9/11?

A

DHS

Dept of Homeland Security

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85
Q

Who oversees and enforces compliance with FHSA, which requires that certain hazardous household products carry cautionary labeling for consumers?

A

Consumer Product Safety Commission

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86
Q

Who operates as the on scene manager for the federal government?

A

FBI

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87
Q

The majority of hazmat incidents involve what products?

A

flammable/combustible liquids (most)
corrosives (next most)
anhydrous ammonia
chlorine

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88
Q

Statistics indicate that the majority of hazmat incidents occur while the materials are being transported via what method?

A

highway

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89
Q

Any building with a fume hood exhaust stack on the roof probably has a functioning what inside?

A

laboratory

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90
Q

Awareness level personnel and first responders must be able to do what two things in the presence of hazardous materials?

A

detect and identify

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91
Q

What constitutes bulk packaging?

A

liquid > 119 gallons
solid > 882 pounds
gas - water capacity > 1001 pounds

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92
Q

Above ground storage tanks are divided into what two major categories?

A

non-pressure

pressure

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93
Q

Non pressure above ground storage tanks store at what pressure?

A

< .5psi

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94
Q

Above ground pressure tanks can be broken into low pressure and pressure. What are there operating pressures?

A

low pressure - .5-15psi

pressure vessel - > 15psi

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95
Q

A properly designed tank will break along what seam?

A

shell to top seam

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96
Q

Low pressure tank cars transport material with pressure below what?

A

< 25psi
tank test pressures are 60-100
capacities 4,000-45,000

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97
Q

Pressure tank cars transport at what pressures?

A

> 25psi @ 68 degrees F
tank test pressures 100-600
capacities 4,000-45,000

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98
Q

What is unique about placement of fittings on pressure tank cars?

A

fittings are out of sight under single housing, generally on top of car

99
Q

Pressure tank cars without insulation and without jacketed thermal protection may have at least what?

A

top 2/3 painted white

100
Q

Cryogenic tank cars carry refrigerated liquids at what pressure?

A

< 25psi

101
Q

With cryogenic cars, the combination of insulation and vacuum protects the contents from ambient temperatures for how long?

A

30 days

SHIPPER tracks these time sensitive shipments

102
Q

Tanks not constructed to meet one of the common MC or DOT specs are commonly referred to as what?

A

non spec tanks

103
Q

Can non spec tanks haul hazmats?

A

Yes, as long as the tank was specifically designed for a purpose exempted by the TC/DOT

104
Q

What is the most common intermodal tank?

A

low pressure intermodal (aka non-pressure IM)

105
Q

What are the pressures of the low pressure/non-pressure IM tank?

A

< 100psi

106
Q

What are the two types of the common intermodal tank and what are there pressure ratings?

A

IM 101 - 25.4-100psi

IM 102 - 14.5-25.4psi

107
Q

What pressure is the pressure intermodal tank designed to work at?

A

100-500psi

108
Q

What are specialized intermodal tanks used for and what is their operating pressure?

A

cryogens built to IMO Type 7 Specs

3,000-5,000psi

109
Q

It is estimated that what percent of the world’s cargo is transported by marine vessel?

A

90%

110
Q

Tankers are divided into what three categories?

A

Petroleum
Chemical (lowest annual loss of cargo)
Liquefied Flammable Gas Carrier

111
Q

What do you call containers and aircraft pallets used to consolidate air cargo into a single unit?

A

unit loading device

112
Q

Intermediate Bulk Containers (IBCs) are designed for what capacities?

A

.45 cubic meters < IBC < 3 cubic meters

113
Q

IBCs are divided into what two types?

A

flexible (FIBC) - aka “totes”

rigid (RIBC)

114
Q

A common FIBC can carry how many 55 gallon drums?

A

4-5

115
Q

Ton containers commonly contain what chemical?

A

chlorine

116
Q

Radioactive material is shipped in what five basic types?

A 
Excepted
Industrial
Type A
Type B
Type C
117
Q

What does “Excepted” mean?

A

very limited radioactivity / not marked as radioactive

118
Q

What does “Industrial” mean?

A

limited hazard to the public and environment / not identified as radioactive (slightly contaminated clothing, lab samples, or smoke detectors)

119
Q

What does “Type A” mean?

A

packaging must demonstrate the ability to withstand a series of test without releasing their contents under normal transportation conditions

120
Q

What does “Type B” mean?

A

packaging must withstand normal conditions but also severe accident conditions

121
Q

What does “Type C” mean?

A

packaging designed to withstand severe accident associated with air transport (used for HIGHLY radioactive materials)

122
Q

What are the 9 UN Hazard Classes?

A 
1-Explosives
2-Gases
3-Flammable Liquid
4-Flammable Solid
5-Oxidizers
6-Toxins
7-Radioactive
8-Corrosives
9-Miscellaneous
123
Q

What section of the ERG will you find the UN 4 digit codes?

A

yellow section

124
Q

Who is responsible for the DOT placards?

A

shipper

125
Q

On tank cars, what may be used to get information about the car’s contents from the computer or shipper?

A

reporting marks

126
Q

First responders are most likely going to need the DOT Class Number from tank car specs. Where can this be found?

A

first set of numbers after DOT

127
Q

What marking system is used to indicate the presence of hazardous materials at a fixed storage facility?

A

NFPA 704 System

128
Q

What are the limitations of the NFPA 704 system?

A

doesn’t tell quantity or exact location

129
Q

What does the NFPA 704 system communicate?

A

health - blue
flammability - red
instability - yellow
special hazards - (either reacts w/ water or oxidizer)

130
Q

What are the four signal words used under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act labels?

A

Caution - minor health effects
Warning - moderate hazards
Danger - highest hazard
Poison - required in addition to Danger for toxins

131
Q

ANSI Z535.1 uses what color codes in the US?

A 
red - danger or stop
orange - warning
yellow - caution (corrosives/unstable)
green - safety equipment
blue - safety signage
132
Q

What is the safest of the five senses to use in the detection of hazardous materials?

A

vision

133
Q

What is the medical term for pinpoint pupils?

A

miosis (sign of possible chemical exposure)

134
Q

What does it mean if agar is present?

A

biological lab

135
Q

What section of the ERG contains the names of materials?

A

blue

136
Q

Where are the container profiles found in the ERG?

A

white pages (used as last resort)

137
Q

What section of the ERG is of most importance?

A

orange / Initial Action Guides

138
Q

Each of the guides in the orange section are broken down into what three parts?

A

Potential Hazards
Public Safety
Emergency Response

139
Q

Under the Potential Hazards in the orange section, it will be broken down into what two types?

A

health
fire/explosion
(highest potential hazard listed first)

140
Q

The Public Safety Section in the orange guide pages will provide what information?

A

immediate isolation distance

recommended PPE & respiratory protection

141
Q

What information will be provided under the Emergency Response Section in the orange pages of the ERG?

A

Fire - extinguishing agent
Spill or Leak
First aid

142
Q

Where in the ERG is the table for initial isolation and protective action distances?

A

green pages

143
Q

What constitutes a small or large spill in the ERG?

A

small < 53 gallons

large > 53 gallons

144
Q

What will the initial isolation distance always be?

A

at least 100’

145
Q

When does the ERG table for distances not apply?

A

materials on fire

leaking longer than 30 minutes

146
Q

How does the protective action distance differ from initial isolation zone?

A

it is the downwind distance

147
Q

What is one of the most important means by which Awareness and Ops level personnel can ensure their safety and the safety of others?

A

isolation and scene control (this means in and out)

148
Q

What state is the following particulate in…dust?

A

solid

149
Q

What state is the following particulate in…fume?

A

??

150
Q

What state is the following particulate in…aerosol?

A

liquid

151
Q

What state is the following particulate in…mist?

A

liquid

152
Q

What state is the following particulate in…vapor?

A

gas

153
Q

What do you call the ignition temperature with no outside source or spark?

A

auto ignition temp

154
Q

What do you call a fuels susceptibility to ignite?

A

flammability

155
Q

What do you call the minimum temperature where a liquid gives off enough vapors to for ignitable mixture?

A

flash point

156
Q

What do you call the temperature at which a liquid fuel produces sufficient vapors to support combustion once ignited?

A

fire point

157
Q

How does the fire point generally compare to the flash point?

A

fire point is a few degrees above flash point

158
Q

What do you call something that is incapable of combustion under normal circumstances?

A

nonflammable

159
Q

What is commonly used to determine how flammable a liquid is?

A

flash point

160
Q

Liquids that have a low flash points are designated as what?

A

flammable

161
Q

Liquids with higher flash points are called what?

A

combustibles

162
Q

What is a colorless toxic gas with an odor of bitter almonds?

A

HCN (produced by nitrogen)

163
Q

Products with a low LEL and wide range between LEL and UEL are considered what?

A

most dangerous

164
Q

How does vapor pressure compare to boiling point?

A

inverse relationship

lower the boiling point the higher the vapor pressure

165
Q

What do you call the rapid vaporization of a liquid stored under pressure that is released following vessel failure?

A

BLEVE

166
Q

What do you call the change directly from solid to gas?

A

sublimation

167
Q

What does the vapor density value tell you?

A

> 1 heavier than air and will sink

<1 lighter than air and will rise

168
Q

What does the 4H MEDIC ANNA tell you?

A

the 13 chemicals that have vapor density lighter than air

169
Q

What are the degrees of solubility?

A 
negligible (insoluble) - < .1%
slight (slightly soluble - .1-1%
moderate - 1-10%
appreciable - >10-25%
completely soluble- >25-100%
170
Q

Water soluble agents will cause what types of health issues?

A

upper respiratory

171
Q

Partially water soluble agents will have what health effects?

A

lower respiratory (possibly delayed response)

172
Q

What do you call the degree or readiness to which two or more gases or liquids are able to mix with or dissolve into one another?

A

miscibility

173
Q

What do you call the length of time a chemical remains effective without dispersing?

A

persistence (generally considered persistent if > 24 hours)

174
Q

What do you call a chemical reaction in which a catalyst causes simple molecules to combine to form long chain molecules?

A

polymerization

175
Q

What do you call a material that is added to products that easily polymerize in order to control or prevent reactions?

A

inhibitor

176
Q

What tool is used to describe how hazmats are accidently released from their container?

A

GEMBO

177
Q

What are the six steps of a hazmat incident?

A 
1- stress on container
2- breach
3- release
4- dispersion/engulf
5- exposure/contact
6- harm
178
Q

What do you call a breach where the container suffers a general loss of integrity such as a glass bottle shattering or grenade exploding?

A

disintegration

179
Q

What do you call a breach where a crack develops as a result of some type of damage, which grows rapidly, breaking the container into two or more pieces?

A

runaway cracking (commonly associated with BLEVEs)

180
Q

What do you call a breach where a welded seam on a tank or drum fails?

A

split or tear

181
Q

Releases may consist of what three things?

A

product
energy
container

182
Q

Releases are classified based on what?

A

on fast they occur

183
Q

What type of release is an instantaneous and explosive release of stored chemical energy?

A

detonation (measured in 100s or 1000s of a second)

184
Q

What type of release is an immediate release of a chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks?

A

violent rupture (one second or less)

185
Q

What type of release is a fast release of pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices caused by damage valves, piping, or attachments in the container?

A

rapid release (several seconds to several minutes)

186
Q

What type of release is slow under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or usual openings/attachments?

A

spill/leak (several minutes to several days)

187
Q

What do you call the dispersion of material that forms a danger zone, or to flow over or enclose?

A

engulfment

188
Q

What dispersion pattern is semicircular or dome shaped pattern of airborne hazmat that is still partially in contact with the ground or water?

A

hemispheric

189
Q

What dispersion pattern is ball shaped pattern of airborne hazmat where the material has risen above the ground or water?

A

cloud

190
Q

What dispersion pattern is irregularly shaped pattern of airborne hazmat?

A

plume

191
Q

What dispersion pattern is triangular shaped with a point at the source and wide base downrange?

A

cone

192
Q

What dispersion pattern is a pattern of liquid that flows downslope?

A

stream

193
Q

What dispersion pattern is three dimensional and includes a depth?

A

pool

194
Q

What dispersion pattern is a deposit of hazmat like one carried by a first responder’s boots?

A

irregular

195
Q

What is the simplest dispersion pattern of a solid?

A

pile

196
Q

Exposures/contacts are associated with what four time frames?

A

1- immediate (milliseconds, seconds) deflagration or explosion
2- short-term (minutes, hours) gas or vapor cloud
3- medium term (days, weeks, months) lingering pesticides
4- long term (years, generations) radioactive source

197
Q

Respiratory protection is a primary concern because what is arguably the most significant route of entry for hazmats?

A

inhalation

198
Q

What are the positives with using SCBAs?

A

independence, maneuverability, and protection from atmosphere

199
Q

What are the disadvantages of using SCBAs?

A

weight, limited air supply, change in profile, limited vision, limited communication

200
Q

NIOSH classifies SAR’s as what type of respirator?

A

Type C

201
Q

What are the benefits and downfalls of SARs?

A

benefits - reduced weight

disadvantages - limit of length of line and exposure of line to elements

202
Q

What do you call a material, compound, or system that holds contaminants by adsorption or absorption?

A

sorbent

203
Q

When can you NOT wear APRs?

A

when there are unknown atmospheric conditions

204
Q

WIth APRs, what does “N” mean?

A

not oil resistant

205
Q

With APRs, what does “R” mean?

A

resistant to oil

206
Q

With APRs, what does “P” mean?

A

used when oil or non oil lubricants are present

207
Q

Which offers a greater degree of protection, APR or PARP?

A

PARP (powered APR)

208
Q

When can you not use PARP’s?

A

explosive or potentially explosive atmospheres

209
Q

What are the two types of chemical protective clothing (CPC)?

A

liquid splash

vapor protective

210
Q

Liquid splash protective clothing protect against liquid splashes, but not chemical vapors or gases. What are the two options of LCPC?

A

encapsulating

non encapsulating

211
Q

What clothing provides the highest degree of protection against hazardous gases or vapors?

A

Vapor Protective Clothing

212
Q

No single combination of protective clothing can do what?

A

protect against ALL hazards

213
Q

The effectiveness of Chemical Protective Clothing can be reduced by what three actions?

A

permeation - chemical passes through fabric
degradation - material is altered through contact
penetration - something enters an opening or puncture

214
Q

What are the four EPA levels of protection?

A

A
B
C
D

215
Q

What makes up Level A protection?

A

highest level w/ SCBA
total encapsulating suit
(Ops level not generally allowed to use)

216
Q

What makes up Level B protection?

A

SCBA
Liquid CPC
(same respiratory as Level A, but suit is step down)

217
Q

What makes up Level C protection?

A

lesser level of skin and respiratory protection
full face or half mask APR
(same skin as Level B, but lower respiratory)

218
Q

What makes up Level D protection?

A

lowest level
coveralls, gloves, boots
no atmospheric hazards
not for any emergency above Awareness level

219
Q

Overprotection as well as under protection should be what?

A

avoided

220
Q

What constitutes proper fluid consumption?

A

7 oz. every 15-20 minutes
chilled water before working
room temp water during work

221
Q

What is the difference in heat stroke and heat exhaustion?

A

heat stroke - dry red hot skin

heat exhaustion - cold skin w/ heavy sweating

222
Q

What do you call the physical process of immediately removing contaminants of individuals with life threatening situations?

A

emergency decon

223
Q

What do you call the process of deconning large numbers of people in the fastest time possible?

A

mass decon

224
Q

What do you call a planned systematic process of reducing contaminants to ALARA (as low as reasonable achievable)?

A

technical decon

225
Q

The most effective means of decon is often as simple as what?

A

removing the outer clothing or PPE that was contaminated

226
Q

When should technical decon be operational?

A

before personnel enter hot zone

227
Q

Decon member’s PPE should be what?

A

one level below entry team

228
Q

In most instances, where will triage be conducted?

A

cold zone after decontamination

229
Q

In most cases where emergency decon or mass decon is needed, what is the answer?

A

dilution

230
Q

What do you call an individual with the training and expertise to provide competent assistance and direction at hazmat or WMD incidents?

A

allied professional

231
Q

What do you call the process of changing the pH of a corrosive by raising or lowering it towards 7?

A

neutralization

232
Q

What is the difference between sanitization, disinfection, or sterilization?

A

sanitization - reduces microorganisms to SAFE level
disinfection - kills MOST microorganisms
sterilization - kills ALL microorganisms

233
Q

What process is similar to dilution but uses prepared solutions such as soaps or solvents?

A

washing

234
Q

What are some consideration for decon site location?

A
  • uphill/upwind
  • ideally “flat” or should slope back towards hot zone
  • nonporous ground (if unable, then use plastic covers)
  • drains and waterways should be avoided
235
Q

At what temperature should consideration be given to protect those involved in the decon process?

A

64 degrees F or lower

236
Q

What type of tactics are used to confine a hazardous material that has already been released?

A

spill control tactics (generally defensive in nature)

237
Q

What type of tactics are used to contain the product in its original container?

A

leak control tactics (mostly offensive in nature and must be performed by HazMat Tech or Specialist)

238
Q

Leak control has a what level of risk as compared to spill control?

A

higher level of risk

239
Q

What is the difference in absorption and adsorption?

A

absorption - one material retained within the other

adsorption - hazmat molecules physically adhere to adsorbent material (primarily used to control shallow liquid spills)

240
Q

What is the relationship between foams and hydrocarbons or polar solvents?

A

foams that work for polar solvents will work for hydrocarbons…but NOT vice versa

241
Q

What part of the ERG will tell you what foam to use?

A

orange section

242
Q

The use of dispersants may require approval by who?

A

government authorities

243
Q

What is the exception when someone under Tech level will engage in offensive actions like leak control?

A

when you can use a remote shutoff valve or when dealing with gas, diesel, LPG, and natural gas

Lt Test (5 decks)

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