Tech Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Definition of V1? Must be less/greater than?
A

o V1 must be greater than or equal to Vmcg
o V1 must be less than or equal to Vr
o V1 must be less than or equal to Vmbe
o V1 = The speed on which from a balanced field takeoff it is possible to either reject the takeoff and stop within the available stopping distance or to continue after engine failure and clear a screen height of 35 feet at the end of the surface available. In effect V1 is a “go speed”.

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2
Q
  1. Definition of V2 (must be greater/equal to?)
A

o V2 must be greater than or equal to 1.2 Vs
o V2 must be greater than or equal to 1.1 Vmca
o V2 is the take-off safety speed or initial target climb speed. It is the speed to be attained at or before 35’ following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients are achieved and hence obstacles are cleared by the required margins.

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3
Q
  1. Definition of Vmca
A

o The minimum airspeed at which, when sudden and complete failure of the critical engine occurs at that speed, it is possible to recover the airplane with that engine still inoperative and maintain it in straight flight at that speed, either with zero yaw or with an angle of bank not in excess of 5 degrees.
o Must be greater than or equal to 1.2 Vs (with undercarriage retracted and flaps in take off position).

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4
Q
  1. Definition of Vmcg
A

o Is the minimum speed on the ground during the take off run, at which it is possible to recover control of the aircraft with the use of the primary aerodynamic controls and the take off can be continued safely, when the critcal engine suddenly becomes inoperative, with the remaining engines at take off thrust.

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5
Q
  1. Definition of Va
A

o Design Manoeuvring Speed, the maximum speed at which application of full available rudder, aileron or elevator will not overstress the aircraft.

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6
Q
  1. Performance Group A
A

o Capable of continuing a flight in IMC after failure of a critical engine at speed V1 and proceeding to a suitable aerodrome and landing.
o All multi-engine turbo-jet and all multi-engine turbo-prop with more than 9 seats or with MTOW > 5,700kg

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7
Q
  1. Definition of runway
A

o Defined rectangular area for take off and landing run of aircraft.

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8
Q
  1. Definition of stopway
A

o Clear area immediately beyond the runway and at least as wide, capable of supporting aircraft for braking.

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9
Q
  1. Definition of clearway
A

o Clear area immediately beyond the runway over which aircraft may fly at a height of 35 ft. Can include stopway.

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10
Q
  1. What is ASDA?
A

o Accelerate Stop Distance Available is the combined distance of runway and stop-way.

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11
Q
  1. What is TODA?
A

o Take off distance available, is the runway and clearway. Clearway includes stopway.

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12
Q
  1. What is A Balanced Field?
A

Is when TODR = ASDR i.e. when the clearway is the same as the stopway.

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13
Q
  1. How is ASDA calculated (time to react)?
A

o Distance to accelerate to V1 - 1 second recognition - 2 second transition phase - distance to bring aircraft to stop. Engine failure occurs prior to V1, as your decision should have been made by V1.

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14
Q
  1. What is take off run required TORR?
A

o Is the distance required to accelerate to V1, engine fail, continue to midway between Vlof and 35ft point.
o Or 115% of distance to reach to point midway between lift off and 35ft point (all engines), whichever is greater.

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15
Q
  1. What is the take off distance required (TODR)?
A

o The distance required to accelerate to V1, engine fail, continue climb to 35 ft. (15ft wet)
o Or 115% of the distance to reach 35ft point (all engines), whichever is greater.

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16
Q
  1. Vlof is limited by?
A

o Speed at actual lift off is limited by:

o Max tyre speed / Vmbe

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17
Q
  1. State the climb requirements for each segment
A

o 1st segment, 35ft to gear retracted (+ve ROC)
o 2nd segment, end of 1st segment to 400ft or higher flap retract height, at V2 (2.4% climb gradient required)
o 3rd segment, end of second segment, level acceleration to final climb speed (1.2% climb gradient capability required)
o 4th segment, end of 3rd segment to 1500ft, at or greater than 1.25 Vs (1.2% min climb gradient required).

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18
Q
  1. The net take off flight path is deemed to end when..
A

o the aircraft passes 1500ft

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19
Q
  1. What is the use of the extended second segment climb?
A

o Rather than retract flap in the 3rd segment, the flaps are kept down, and on reaching the 5 min take off thrust time, the power is set to MCT. After which the flaps are then retracted, this allows for improved climb gradient but is only to be used for obstacles within the 2nd and 3rd segement. The aircraft must be clean by the 400ft point if obstacle clearance is required in the final segment.

20
Q
  1. Reduced thrust take offs are dependant on…(4)
A

o Field length
o Take off flight path (obstacles)
o Engine inop climb gradients
o Aircraft take off weight

21
Q
  1. What are the disadvantages of a reduced thrust take off?
A

o Longer climb time

o Higher fuel burn

22
Q
  1. What conditions should reduced thrust take off not be used?
A

o Standing water (ice/slush/snow)
o Mixed engine configuration
o Any non-standard take off

23
Q
  1. What is the reduced screen height for a wet take off?
A

o 15ft

24
Q
  1. State the critical engine on a jet during take off?
A

o Nil in head wind
o The most upwind engine in crosswind due to increased yaw if engine fails (weather cocking).
o In the cruise the outboard engines of a 4 engine aircraft are critical.

25
Q
  1. What effect does a balanced field have on take off performance?
A

o A balanced field means that it is critical that an abort is carried out immediately on engine failure recognition.
o Also that the take off on one engine could be marginal if continued as a balance field is a take off right on performance limits for the given aircraft weight - not favourable.

26
Q
  1. Definition of second segment of take off path?
A

o From gear retraction to level acceleration altitude, which is normally a minimum of 400 ft above take off surface. In this segment the gear is retracted, the flaps are in take off position and the aircraft is set in take off power. The speed is equal to V2 (initial climb out speed) and the required minimum gross gradient of climb, in a two engined aircraft, is 2.4%. The net flight path gradient is the gross flight path gradient reduced by 0.8%, i.e 1.6%.
o Conditions are
o Landing gear is retracted
o Flaps are still in take off position
o Speed is V2
o The minimum gross climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 2.4%
o The minimum net climb gradient in a twin engined aircraft is 1.6% and
o take off power is still set.

27
Q
  1. Definition if ISA
A

o 1013.25 hPa (29.92”hg)
o 15 degrees Celcius
o Lapse rate is 1.98 degrees celcius per 1000’ up to 36,090’ then -56.5 degrees celcius
o Density is 1.225 kg/m3

28
Q
  1. Temperature at 39,000ft?
A

o -56.5 degrees celcius

29
Q
  1. Aircraft maintains a constant IAS in climb, what happens to TAS & LSS & Mach?
A

o TAS will increase
o LSS will decrease
o Mach will increase

30
Q
  1. How does temperature affect the speed of sound? (formula?)
A

o The speed of sound is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature (the speed of sound will increase with an increase in temperature)
o LSS =38.94 X square root Kelvin
o At sea level ISA LSS=661kts
o At 35,000’ ISA LSS=575kts

31
Q
  1. Airspeed in a climb at a constant TAS/IAS/Mach No. What do each other do?
A

o Constant IAS = Both TAS & Mach No INCREASE
o Constant Mach No = Both IAS & TAS DECREASE
o Constant TAS = Mach No INCREASE, IAS DECREASE

32
Q
  1. Cruise Mach No is more limiting when?
A

In warm temperatures
The higher the aircraft flies
When Mach number is reduced (high altitudes) and when TAS is reduced (warm temperatures)

Mach No = TAS
LSS

33
Q
  1. What happens to the speed of sound with altitude / temperature?
A

o LSS reduces with altitude and with cooling temperatures

34
Q
  1. Formula for True Altitude?
A

TA = Actual temp (K) x Indicated altitude
. ISA temperature (K)

True altitude is your actual altitude above mean sea level, no errors.

35
Q
  1. Explain airspeed errors?
A

o IAS - Position error - CAS - Compressibility error - EAS - Density error - TAS

36
Q
  1. What errors does a Mach meter NOT suffer from?
A

o Density error and compressibility error

37
Q
  1. The two capsules in a Mach meter are what?
A

o Airspeed

o Altitude calibration

38
Q
  1. Mfs is…
A

o Free stream Mach Number - airflow unaffected by the aircraft

39
Q
  1. Ml is…
A

o Local Mach number - is the speed of air relative to the local speed of sound measured at a point on the aircraft.

40
Q
  1. Mcrit is…
A

o MCRIT is the critical Mach number. This is the speed at which the airflow over certain parts of the airframe (most likely the point of maximum camber of the aerofoil) reaches M1.0. MCRIT is increased through slimness and through the use of sweepback.

41
Q
  1. How does weight affect Mcrit?
A

An increase in weight will reduce Mcrit

42
Q
  1. Drag divergence Mach number is…
A

o The increase in drag associated with compressibility effect (110-115% of Mcrit)

43
Q
  1. What happens to the centre of pressure (CP) leading up to super sonic flight? (relative to MCrit)
A

o The CP is well forward (below Mcrit)
o The CP moves rearward (in excess of Mcrit)
o The CP moves forward Mcrit - Mfs > M1
o The CP gradually moves further rearward as speed increases further

44
Q
  1. Wave drag is…
A

o The separation of the airflow behind the shock wave

45
Q
  1. A shock stall is the result of…
A

o The boundary layer behind the shock wave becoming turbulent and separating, spilling rearwards and striking the tailplane, creating buffet and rearwards CP movement. Rear movement of the CP causes nose pitch down.

46
Q
  1. Wing design for high speed flight takes into consideration..
A

o Minimal camber to delay shock waves
o Manoeuvrability
o Low thichness chord ratio

47
Q
  1. Formula for Mach No?
A

o M = TAS / LSS