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Alessandro's upgrade study > TECH > Flashcards

TECH Flashcards

1
Q

Can you explain sources of electrical generation and their priorities

A

“GEAR-B”
G- GENs
E- External Power
A- APU
R- RAT
B- BAT

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2
Q

In flight, in norm ops which generator has the higher load and why?

A

the GEN1
because it feeds the AC ESS BUS (?)

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3
Q

what does the emergency gen cover?

A

DC ESS + AC ESS

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4
Q

approximately how long does it take for the emergency gen to come online and during that time what is powering the aircraft and with that power what is it powered on the flight deck?

A

8 seconds
in the meantime Batteries are powering the PFD1, Upper DU and FMGC1.
basically what we need to fly an aircraft (Pitch and Power)

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5
Q

what is the purpose of EMER ELEC GEN 1 LINE on the overhead panel?

A

To energize the Fuel Pumps n.1 during the Smoke configuration. Otherwise in EMER ELEC we have gravity feeding.

Technically:
GEN 1 LINE contactor opens. GEN 1 remains running and supplies 1 fuel pump in each wing tank. AC BUS 1 is supplied by GEN 2 through the bus tie contactor

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6
Q

approximately what Spd must be maintained for the RAT?

A

140kt

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7
Q

what is the diff between selecting the gen off and the IDG off?

A

IDG disconnect all the drive generator (including generator) and cannot be reverted.
GEN PB disconnects only the generation part of the IDG (not the drive and the cooling)

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8
Q

what is the purpose of selecting the APU master switch ON the overhead panel in the REMOVAL OF SMOKE/FUMES QRH checklist?

A

IN EMER ELEC if you press the master sw the battery contactors will close for a max of 3’ allowing the crew to manually control the outflow valve that is powered by the DC BAT BUS.

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9
Q

under what circumstances will the RAT extend automatically

A

AC BUS 1+2 FAULT (>100kt)

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10
Q

at what altitude can the APU be started in the EMER ELEC CONFIG and why

A

Below 250
To preserve battery power

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11
Q

under normal ops what altitude can the APU support Electrical load and Bleed demand?

A

22500’ single pack
15000’ dual pack

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12
Q

Name the sources of power of each of the HYD systems

A

Green: ENG 1 pump
Blue: B Elec Pump + RAT
Yellow: ENG 2 pump + Y Elec pump

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13
Q

what services does the GREEN SYS power

A

slats&flaps, 2 pairs of spoilers, ailerons, THS, L elevator, Rudder, L/G, Normal Braking

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14
Q

what services does the YELLOW SYS power?

A

2 pair of spoilers, flaps, THS, R elevator, rudder, Alternate BRK

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15
Q

what services does the BLUE SYS power?

A

slats, 1 splr, 1 aileron, both elevators, rudder

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16
Q

why on the HYD SYS page in flight is the green reservoir lvl always showing slightly less than the other 2?

A

cause the fluid is being used to retract the landing gear (?)

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17
Q

how are the HYD reservoirs pressurized and why?

A

with HP bleed air from engine 1. If bleed pressure is too low then the system takes from the crossbreed duct.
The aim is to prevent pump cavitation.

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18
Q

what is the purpose of the HYD priority valves?

A

cut off hydraulic power to heavy load users if hydraulic pressure in a system gets low

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19
Q

what is the purpose of the HYD accumulators

A

helps to maintain a constant pressure by covering transient demand during normal ops

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20
Q

explain the purpose of the PTU

A

enables the yellow system to pressurize the green and vice-versa (no fluid exchange).

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21
Q

what is the typical sys pressure for the three hyd systems and what pressure do you expect to see when the RAT is powering the system

A

normal: 3000 PSI
RAT: 2500 PSI

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22
Q

at what point does the system pressure become AMBER?

A

PSI < 1450

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23
Q

of the dual HYD failures which in your opinion is the worst and why?

A

G+Y: extremely long landing listance required because of loss of Flaps and braking norm and alternate (only accumulator available)

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24
Q

which of the dual hyd failures maintainins the aircraft in normal law?

A

B+Y

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25
Q

why is the gear extended by gravity with the HYD B+Y system failure? (after all we still have the G system available)

A

to preserve the green system integrity

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26
Q

what is the purpose of extending the landing gear at 200kt with the GREEN+BLUE sys failure?

A

we have only limited roll and pitch surfaces available therefore the direct law helps the controllability of the aircraft.

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27
Q

why in the green and yellow sys failure is flap 3 selected before gear is selected down?

A

because we lost the stabilizer therefore the aircraft uses the elevator to compensate. Once the gear is down the aircraft loses the auto trim functions and the elevator might not have enough authority to pitch as we need.

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28
Q

which hyd services power the ailerons?

A

Green and Blue

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29
Q

name the F/CTL laws

A

Normal, Alternate (with and without reduced protection), Direct, Abnormal attitude law, mechanical backup

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30
Q

what is the purpose of mechanical backup?

A

it’s to cover a temporary loss of flight control computers until we recover one of them. Still won’t control the aircraft in case of loss of fluid.

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31
Q

what is the purpose of abnormal attitude law?

A

to provide the PF with maximum efficiency to recover normal attitude

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32
Q

in normal law explain bank angle prot

A

up to 33° roll rate command and auto trim function.

above 33° up to 67° if side stick released bank returns to 33° (spiral stability) and there is no auto trim function.

in OVERSPEED (high speed protection) max bank is 40° (to avoid high Load Factors) and if you are still in overspeed and release the stick it will return to 0°.

LOW SPEED: within the Alpha Prot Speed band max bank will be 45° but if you release there’s no return to 0° (like it is in overspeed). Won’t have FDs beyond 45° and they come back at 40°.

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33
Q

what is the max bank angle when alpha port is in force? and what is the maximum bank angle when high speed protection is in force?

A

45° when in Alpha Prot
40° in Overspeed

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34
Q

within the alpha protection band what happens when you release the sidestick?

A

The aircraft returns to alpha prot speed (top of the alpha prot band)

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35
Q

what is the max pitch available in clean configuration and in config full?

A

30°
25°

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36
Q

what the max g loading in clean and in other configs?

A

clean 2.5/-1
other 2.0/-0

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37
Q

can you explain:
alpha floor
alpha prot
alpha max?

A

Alpha Floor: is an A/THR function which commands TOGA when the aircraft is in the alpha prot band (Dashed yellow/black).

Alpha Prot: is the angle of attack protection speed. Within this band the pitch inputs are an angle of attack demand, not anymore a G Load demand.

Alpha Max is the lower end of the alpha prot band. Is the maximum angle of attack which the aircraft will allow if keeping the stick full back.

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38
Q

once you ‘re out of the alpha floor conditions what thrust mode do you expect to see and how do you recover?

A

TOGA LOCK. Must press the A/THR instinctive disc PBs.

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39
Q

what is the VLS and it’s relationship with the stall speed?

A

Lowest Selectable Speed, is and A/THR function and corresponds to:
1.13 VS during TO
1.23 VS after one step flap retraction
1.28 VS in clean config
1.23 VS1G of the selected landing CONFIG

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40
Q

can the high speed protection be overridden?

A

Yes, if you continue to push the side stick it allows you to override (reason for that is a potential need of TCAS RA). If you keep pushing though, at last the AC will reduce your inputs to 0 to avoid structural overload.

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41
Q

can you draw the speed tape in alternate law and in normal law?

A

NORM: VMO/MMO-VLS-V⍺Prot-V⍺Max
ALT: VMO/MMO-VLS-VSW

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42
Q

when might you see “use man pitch trim” and when do you see “man pitch trim only”

A

1- in direct law
2- when we lose the elevator (mechanical backup)

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43
Q

what is alpha lock and when might you see it?

A

prevents slats retraction at high AoA or low speed when the flap lever is moved from 1 to 0.
“A. LOCK” pulses above the E/WD Slat indication.

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44
Q

in alternate law explain high and law speed stability

A

High speed Stability: Above VMO and MMO a nose up demand is introduced. But unlike what happens in normal law, the pilot can override this.

Low speed Stability: from approx 5-10kt above Stall warning speed a gentle progressive nose down signal is introduced but the pilot can still override this demand (unlike in normal law where the Aircraft will maintain Valpha max). The system also injects a bank-angle compensation to maintain a constant angle of attack.

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45
Q

what protections do we have in DIRECT law?

A

none, and the speed tape looks the same as the one in alternate law

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46
Q

which control system have a mechanical link to the flight deck?

A

THS and Rudder

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47
Q

what is the purpose of aileron droop and how do you know if your aircraft is fitted with?

A

They extend 5° to 10° (depending on the variant) down when the flaps are extended or up when the ground spoilers are extended

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48
Q

in PITCH how long does it take to transition from GROUND mode to FLIGHT mode?

A

blends in 5”

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49
Q

what is ground mode?

A

direct correlation between side stick deflection and surfaces deflection. Will progressively enter in effect:

in roll: 0.5 sec after landing
in pitch: 5 seconds after landing

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50
Q

what is FLARE mode?

A

at 50’ the pitch is memorized and the trim is frozen.
at 30’ FLARE mode inputs a 2° pitch down over 8” to induce a FLARE by the Pilot.

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51
Q

what computer controls the characteristic speeds you see in your speed tape?

A

FAC

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52
Q

what is the low energy alert and when does it occur?

A

In config 2-3 or Full when the FAC detects that the energy level is going too low and we need to increase the thrust to maintain a positive flight path

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53
Q

what computer controls the characteristic speeds you see on your speed tape on the PFD

A

FAC

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54
Q

what is the purpose of the BETA target and when might you see it?

A

Computed by the FAC, is a modified sideslip index and shows the PF how much rudder to use to get the best climb performance. It comes in case of an engine failure at takeoff or go-around

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55
Q

what is the purpose of mechanical backup

A

it’s to cover a temporary loss of flight control computers until we recover one of them. Still won’t control the aircraft in case of loss of fluid.

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56
Q

sidestick priorities: what is it meant if you see a red arrow in front of you?

A

that my side stick has lost authority

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57
Q

when do you see the side stick indication on the PFD and when does it disappear?

A

(?) on the ground. Disappears in flight (?)

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58
Q

explain the movements of the flaps and slats between position 2 and position 3 (what does move)

A

slats stay at 2, flaps move at 3.

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59
Q

what is the difference between selecting Flap1 in the air and on the ground?

A

on the ground you get 1+F, in the air 1 only.

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60
Q

VFE, and VFE next are based on what?

A

VFE: max speed on a Flap Configuration
VFE next (amber =): maximum speed for the next (further extended) flap lever position.

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61
Q

overspeed WARNING and VLS are based on what?

A

Overspeed warning is based on the actual Slats/Flaps position, but the red and black strip is based on the flap lever position.

VLS is computed by the FAC and corresponds to:
1.28 VS in clean configuration
1.23 VS after retraction of 1 step of flaps
1.13 VS during TO or following a touch and go.
During Approach is 1.23xVS

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62
Q

what protections might come into play when operating on heavy weight?

A

Alpha Lock Protection: when asking flaps 0 prevents the slat retraction when the AoA is too high or the speed too low (asked too early).

ARS (automatic Retraction System):
when accelerating and cleaning up, the max speed for 1+F (215) is very closed to the S speed so the ARS helps retracting the Flaps. therefore the new V max is 230.

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63
Q

with dual channel failure or loss of flaps and slats why is it still necessary to select config 1?

A

To arm the AP/FD go-around (SRS)

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64
Q

in the”flaps and slats jammed” QRH checklist when talked about ground if you have a GREEN and YELLOW HYD why is it recommended to maintain VAPP or VLS whichever higher?

A

? because VAPP is based on entered ZFW+FOB, but VLS is calculated by the FAC considering also the actual flaps/slats position ?

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65
Q

which spoilers act as speed brake and which as roll spoiler and which for ground spoiler?

A

SPD BRK: 2-3-4
GROUND SPLR: 1-2-3-4-5 (all the spoilers)
ROLL SPLR: 2-3-4-5 (+ ailerons)

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66
Q

at what speed will the ground spoilers deploy in case of RTO?

A

72kt

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67
Q

explain phased lift dumping and its purpose

A

logic on the new SEC which prevents hard landing after bouncing in case of forgetting to arm the Spd brakes or select the idle.

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68
Q

what is the effect on VLS when operating the speed brakes?

A

increases

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69
Q

what is the effect of the speed brakes when operating on high mach numbers and approximately how long does it take to the speed brake to come from full ext to fully ret?

A

Pitch UP (compensated by AP)
reduction of speed envelope (increases VLS and reduces buffet margin)

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70
Q

what is the minimum height for the autopilot on takeoff?

A

100’ or 5” after TO

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71
Q

what is the minimum height for the AP using FINAL, APP/VS or FPA?

A

250’

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72
Q

what is the minimum height for the AP for a circling app

A

500’

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73
Q

what is the minimum height for the AP in a CAT1 approach

A

160’

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74
Q

in the FMGC wha is it meant as Rec Max?

A

Max Recommended Altitude:
gives 1.3G buffet limit

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75
Q

what is a good gross error check for calculation green dot?

and for V Ref?

A

A320:

Green Dot:
60 Tons = 205 kts
2 kt per add/sub T.
i.e. 64 Tons: 213Kts

VREF:
60 Tons =130 kts
1 kt per add/sub T.

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76
Q

on some types there maybe a discrepancy between the VAPP on the FMGC and the one displayed on the speed tape…why?

A
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77
Q

when is the auto land light armed?

A
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78
Q

can you briefly explain the function of ground speed mini?

A
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79
Q

if you lose 1 FMGC what annunciation would you expect to see in the PDF 5th column and how does it effect the ND?

A
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80
Q

what methods does the aircraft have to calculate its position?

A
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81
Q

what is the aircraft’s FM position comprised of and what is EPE?

A

Flight Management Position.
In this order of priorities:

1- IRS + GPS
2- IRS + DME/DME
3- IRS + VOR/DME
4- IRS only

EPE= Estimated Position Error (lower right corner PROG page)
It’s also called EPU (estimated position uncertainty).

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82
Q

what is meant for GPS PRIMARY

A

That the FM position is being taken by IRS+GPS (GPS is the main source of navigation).

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83
Q

what the loss of both FMGS how do you recover the radio navigation?

A

NAV backup mode

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84
Q

prior to enter a hold what would happen when you press the IMM EXIT PB?

A

A/C won’t enter the hold but will resume its applicable manage speed of the current flight phase

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85
Q

once you’re in the hold what is it happening when you press the IMM EXIT PB?

A

A/C will turn immediately to the holding fix

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86
Q

for alternate planning what assumptions are made the flight level and speed by the FMGC in terms of its fuel burn for your alternate?

A

A/C weight = LW at primary DEST

Alt F-PLN <100nm -> FL100
100<Alt F-PLN<200nm -> FL220
Alt F-PLN longer -> FL310

CI 0

Constant Wind (alt field of DES WIND)

Constant Delta-ISA

FPLN dist or ALT FUEL if inserted

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87
Q

explain the differences between your TOD profile and geometric descent

A

Both are on DES mode:
If the aircraft is not in IDLE than will be on the geometric path and the A/THR mode will be SPEED/MACH

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88
Q

explain SRS, what is its function?

A

Speed Reference System:
SPD Target:

TO: V2 or current Spd if higher but max V2+15

GA: Vapp or current spd if higher but max VLS +15

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89
Q

are there any protections with SRS?

A

3 PROTECTIONS:
1- flight path angle protection: ensures min V/S of 120ft/min
2- pitch angle protection: reduce the nose-up (18° max or 22.5° in case of windshear)
3- Speed protection: V2+15KT in TO, VLS+15 in GA.

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90
Q

what happens when selecting a revised altitude when the aircraft is in alt *

A

Reverts to current V/S

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91
Q

what is the 2 engine operating range of the auto thrust?

A

IDLE to CLB

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92
Q

what is the single engine operating range of the auto thrust?

A

IDLE to MCT

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93
Q

with A/THR FAILURE what FMA do you expect to see?

A

THR LK

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94
Q

if you took off in flex how do you achieve MCT in an engine failure on takeoff?

A

go out of the MCT detent, back on CLB detent, and MCT again (“recycle thrust MCT”)

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95
Q

what is the guidance for selecting rev thrust with 1 thrust reverser inop?

A

Select BOTH thrust levers to reverse.

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96
Q

your operating in two eng operation with THR levers in climb, you then move THR levers to below climb: what FMA do you expect to see?

A

THR LVR message on first column of the FMA

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97
Q

what is the maximum speed you can set on the FCU? what is the minimum?

A

399kt, 100kt

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98
Q

what is the backup speed scale and when may you need to use it? where is its data derived?

A
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99
Q

explain the bird and where it gets its data from

A
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100
Q

what is meant by the phrase “data lock”

A
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101
Q

what is LAND mode?

A
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102
Q

what failures would illuminate the AUTOLAND light?

A

\

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103
Q

what is the definition of ALERT HEIGHT?

A
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104
Q

what is the approach ban?

A
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105
Q

would the failure of a single engine illuminate the AUTOLAND light?

A
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106
Q

what is the definition of fail operational and fail passive?

A
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107
Q

runway lighting: you see in front of you alternating amber-red light: how much runway is remaining?

A
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108
Q

runway lighting: you see in front of you red lights: how much runway is remaining?

A

300

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109
Q

what is the difference between disconnecting the A/THR via the FCU and with the instinctive PB on the THR Levers?

A
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110
Q

What is the max speed for gear retraction?

A
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111
Q

at what speed is the gear safety lock activated?

A
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112
Q

which LGCIU powers the landing gear indicator panel?

A
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113
Q

what happens to the gear doors with the gravity gear extension?

A
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114
Q

what is the approx increase in fuel burn with the gear extended?

A
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115
Q

which HYD powers the NWS?

A
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116
Q

which HYD SYS powers the NORMAL BRAKING?

A
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117
Q

when would you expect to see the “decel” on the Autobrake PB or when you expect to see the decel illuminate on the auto brake PB? why might you not see it? can you give an example of the conditions in which this may occur?

A

Comes on when the actual deceleration is 80% of the selected rate.
(On slippery runways the predetermined deceleration may not be reached. In this case, the DECEL light won’t come on. But this doesn’t mean the auto brake is not working!
As well is not an indication of the Autobrake being operating. It could come on with LOW selected and full reverse for instance).

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118
Q

what is the effect of selecting the A/SKID NW selector OFF?

A
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119
Q

alternate braking without anti skid: what brake pressure must be maintained?

A
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120
Q

what information is shown in the triple brake indicator?

A
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121
Q

briefly explain the center tank pump logic

A
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122
Q

how is the IDG cooled and where does the returning fuel get fed to?

A
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123
Q

on a CEO, when approximately does the outer tank start to feed the inner tank?

A
124
Q

when might you expect to see the low level fuel scam?

A
125
Q

what is a jet pump and why do you think the may have and advantage compared to the normal pumps

A
126
Q

fuel leak: what indications on the flight deck may help you with locating a leak from the engine or engine pylon?

A
127
Q

when operating in colder climates, you may see fuel tank low temp caution: what might you consider operationally to help increasing the temperature back into the normal operating range?

A
128
Q

in which order is the fuel burned? from which tank and why?

A
129
Q

in single engine ops hen might the APU bleed be available?

A
130
Q

with the loss of both FMGC how would the PRESS system obtain the landing elevation? what is the procedure?

A
131
Q

for the loss of CPC 1+2 how is the cabin altitude controlled?

A
132
Q

when using the MAN VS toggle what happens to the outflow valve when the toggle is selected UP?

A
133
Q

what is the RAM air used for? what is its purpose?

A
134
Q

how many motors power the outflow valve and why?

A
135
Q

on takeoff why does the pressurization system slightly pressures the cabin?

A

To avoid pressure bump

136
Q

what is the purpose of the residual pressure control unit?

A

if installed automatically depressurizes the aircraft in case of abnormal residual pressure on ground.

137
Q

for ventilation: can you briefly explain the open circuit configuration when the aircraft is on the ground?

A

explain

138
Q

in the emergency descent what is meant with speed max appropriate and what might consider and why?

A

in case of loud bang must suspect structural damage therefore set SPEED/MACH pb to Speed to maintain or reduce IAS.

139
Q

stall on takeoff: what is your pitch target?

A

15°

140
Q

UNRELIABLE AIRSPEED: Trust/Pitch targets below THR red alt, above THR red alt but below FL100, and if it occurs above FL100.

A

TOGA/15°
CLB/10°
CLB/5°

141
Q

windshear reactive: if the FD bars are not displayed what is the pitch target?

A

17.5°

142
Q

in the FUEL leak checklist why don’t we select reversers?

A

in order to prevent contact between fuel and hot surfaces of engines and brakes.

143
Q

SMOKE removal: in the emergency electrical configuration what is the purpose of turning the GENs back on at either 3’ or 2000ft AAL before landing?

A

to recover normal breaking, while minimizing possible reactivation of a smoke source

144
Q

can you state the warning and caution classifications?

A

MEMO- info
Advisory- sys parameter monitor (automatic call of the relevant page on the S/D).

Level 1- Amber Caution no chime: failures leading to loss of redundancy (crew monitoring)
Level 2- Amber Caution Single Chime: system failure without any direct consequence on the flight safety (crew must be aware but doesn’t require immediate action, still must be dealt with at first opportunity).
Level 3- Red warning: requires immediate action

145
Q

can you explain what are secondary, primary and independent failure is? can you give an example of a primary failure?

A
146
Q

F/CTL and HYD: can we still fly the aircraft without computers? and without computers and Hydraulics?

A

no computer still works, but no HYD no party.

147
Q

when is the OVERSPEED alter triggered?

A

if the speed/Mach exceeds VMO + 4kt / MMO + M0.006 and lasts until speed is below VMO/MMO

148
Q

Severe OVERSPEED

A

the AP disconnects and the (in NORMAL law) high speed protection (approx around green bars (=) on PFD…but not exactly) commands a pitch up.

149
Q

on high speed protection: does the AP disconnects exactly on the green bars (=)?

A

Not necessarily, it depends on the speed variations and the high speed protection logic

150
Q

high speed protection: do we have to follow the CDs orders?

A

NO! FDs don’t take into account High Speed Protection

151
Q

FCTM: OVERWEIGHT LANDING

A

long straight in approach
early stabilized approach technic
at very high weight, if VFE CONF1 is below VLS the crew must disconnect the A/THR to decelerate to VFE CONF1

152
Q

Overweight Landing: above what V/S at Touch Down is a maintenance action required?

A
  • 360 ft/min
153
Q

Takeoff following a RTO:

A

if considering a new TO than we most:

1- reset both CDs and set FCU
(see QRH-SI-80 proc -TAKEOFF FOLLOWING LOW SPEED RTO )

2- reset SOPs from the After Start checklist

154
Q

What is VLS?

A

is the Lowest selectable speed.
Computed by the FAC, based on aerodynamic data, corresponds to:
1.13 Vs during TO or following a T&Go.
1.23 Vs after retraction of one steps of flaps
1.28 Vs when in clean configuration.

155
Q

What is Green Dot Speed

A

Engine-out operating speed in clean configuration which is the best lift-to-drag ratio speed).

Below 20000ft = 2x weight + 85.
es. 66 Tons: 66x2=132+85= 217kt

156
Q

in Normal laws what are the pitch limits on high alpha regimes? (Below Alpha prot and above alpha max)

A

25° config 0-3
20° config Full

157
Q

what’s the pitch limits in normal speed regimes in Normal Law?

A

+30° (+25 in conf Full)
-15°

158
Q

in Normal Laws on negative pitch when do you lose the FDs? when are they coming back?

A

disappear at -13° and come back at -10°

159
Q

Explain the modes in Normal Law

A

Flight Mode: roll rate and G load demand
Flare mode:
Ground mode

160
Q

Pitch Attitude Protection Normal Law (and FDs display behavior)

A

+30°(+25° if Flaps Full)/-15°
FDs disappear at +25°/-13°
FDs return at +22°/-10°

161
Q

Bank angle protection in Alternate Law

A

none!

162
Q

FLARE mode in Alternate law

A

comes with the L/G down and is a direct stick to elevator relationship.

163
Q

Alternate law without reduced protection

A

identical to ALT LAW but it doesn’t have low-speed and high speed stability but still have Load Factor Protection

164
Q

bank angle protection in alternate law?

A

none (amber x x)

165
Q

pitch protection in alternate law?

A

none (amber =), but still have Load Factor Protection

166
Q

roll in DIRECT LAW

A

stick-to-surface-position relationship.
Max 30°/sec (25° with slats), uses only ailerons and spoilers 4-5

167
Q

pitch in direct law

A

stick-to-surface-position relationship. Still, the maximum elevator deflection depends on the CG and is a compromise for controllability

168
Q

Abnormal Attitude Law: Pitch, Roll, Yaw

A

Pitch: like in alt law but without Load Factor prot
Roll: like in direct law
Yaw: mechanical

169
Q

Abnormal Attitude Law: what happens after you exit from the conditions for this law?

A

aircraft stays in Alternate Mode

170
Q

IDG: what does “integrated” mean?

A

because it integrates: drive, generation and cooling

171
Q

Difference between inverter and rectifier

A

inverter converts DC into AC
rectifier converts AC in DC

172
Q

DC ESS BUS FAULT big picture

A

Initial loss of aural warnings (so disorienting) then recoverable.
Loss of B HYD
Loss of A/THR
landing capability is CAT2 (initially lies and states CAT 3 single).

173
Q

When do we get an EMER ELEC CONFIG?

A

when we lose AC BUS 1+2
or manually with its PB.

174
Q

What does power the manual control of the Outflow Valve?

A

the DC BAT BUS

175
Q

What’s the TREF for 319, 320 and 321?

A

319: ISA+30°
320: (CEO+NEO): ISA+29°
321: ISA+15°

176
Q

Fire Loops: how many do we have and how do they work?

A

2 loops (A & B) mounted in parallel.
AND logic when both operative
OR logic when one loop is INOP

177
Q

FIRE DETECTION: a fire warning appears if?

A

-Both loops A and B send a fire signal to the FDU, or
-one loop sends a fire signal and the other has failed, or
-breaks occur in both loops within 5 secs of each other (flame effect)
-a test is performed on the FIRE panel

178
Q

DUAL ENG FAIL: APU start and bleed limit

A

start: <FL250
bleed: 22500 single pack, 15000 dual pack ops.

179
Q

APU low oil level

A

if there is no oil leak, than the remaining oil quantity allows normal APU ops for about 10hrs.

180
Q

APU shutdown: if we don’t have external power, how long must we wait before shutting down the batteries for the FLAP to close?

A

2’

181
Q

Autothrust INOP: can I still do an Autoland?

A

yes, but we need wx minima for CAT 2.

182
Q

AUTOLAND: Can we do Autoland with Flaps 3?

A

yes, is approved with Flaps 3 and full (with 2 engines)

183
Q

AUTOLAND: in case of OEI, can we do also Flaps 3?

A

320 (CEO): Flap full only
319 and 320 NEO: Flap 3 or Full.

184
Q

A320 NEO rotation mode: what is it?

A

the side stick demands a rate of pitch instead of surface deflection. That results in a higher rate of change in Pitch than one would do in a CEO. DON’T PULL TOO MUCH.

185
Q

Ground Speed Mini: where does it take its speed from?

A

tower wind and actual wind aloft

186
Q

which parts of the aircraft are anti-iced?

A

Bleed:
Engine nacelle
Wing - outboard slats (3-4-5)
Electrically:
Windshield
Pitot and Statics
AoA
TAT
Drain

187
Q

Can we use APU bleed for wing anti-ice?

A

no

188
Q

If we switch ON the Wing Anti-ice on the ground, does it work?

A

No, it makes a self-test of 30” and than will come ON when we are in the air

189
Q

Wing Anti-ice bleed detection system

A

We don’t want hot air to go in other parts of the wing so this computer detects leaks in the system. It works with 2 loops, like all the fire detection systems and both the loops must detect the leak. If one loop is INOP, than just one is sufficient.

190
Q

Engine Anti-ice: if we turn the eng bleed OFF can we still use it?

A

yes, it’s independent from the bleed system. Takes hot air from the HP stage.

191
Q

Is the TAT probe heated on the ground?

A

no

192
Q

Is the pitot heated on the ground?

A

yes, in low power

193
Q

engine anti-ice: valve failure

A

if the electrical supply to the valve fails than it stays open.
If the valve itself fails than usually it will close.

194
Q

Is the APU bleed allowed to be used for wing anti-ice?

A

No

195
Q

minimum speed with ice accretion if wing anti-ice inop or not available?

A

VLS + 10kt / Green Dot

196
Q

Green dot speed and VLS

A

Green Dot speed is Engine Out operating Speed, also the speed for Max Lift/Drag ratio.

VLS is the lowest selectable speed.
Is computed by the FAC, based on aerodynamic data, and is 1.13VS during TO, 1.23VS after retraction of 1 step of flaps, 1.28VS when in clean config.

197
Q

What’s the V REF?

A

Reference speed used for normal final approach.
Equal to 1.23 x VS of CONF FULL

198
Q

VAPP = ?

A

VLS + wind correction (which is minimum 5kt and max 15kt)

199
Q

During an Autoland, or when A/THR ON, or in case of ice accretion or gusty winds >20kt Vapp mustn’t be lower than?

A

VLS + 5kt

200
Q

VLS is?

A

VLS is the lowest selectable speed.
Is computed by the FAC, based on aerodynamic data, and is 1.13VS during TO, 1.23VS after retraction of 1 step of flaps, 1.28VS when in clean config.

201
Q

minimum speed with ice accretion if wing anti-ice is available?

A

Flaps FULL: VLS+5kt
Other configs: VLS+10kt

202
Q

LVR ASYM = ?

A

1 THR LVR is in CLB or MCT detent and the other not

203
Q

when does ⍺ lock (called alpha/speed lock function) activate?

A

when selecting Flaps 0 and the AoA is ≥ 8.5° or the speed is <148kt

204
Q

when does the ⍺ lock function disengage?

A

when AoA <7.6° AND the speed goes > 154kt

205
Q

what is the ⍺ lock function

A

prevents the slats from retracting at high AoA or low speeds

206
Q

Which spoilers are used for ROLL?

A

(all but one)
2-3-4-5 + aileron

207
Q

which are the ground spoilers?

A

ALL 5!

208
Q

which spoilers are used for speed braking?

A

4-3-2

209
Q

phased lift dumping

A

The Phased Lift Dumping function allows the ground spoilers to deploy with a reduced deflection (SPOILER PARTIAL EXTENSION) and serves to accelerate the full spoiler extension when landing in CROSSWIND CONDITIONS or on CONTAMINED runways.
The necessary conditions to trigger the partial ground spoiler extension, independently of the position of the ground spoiler lever are:
-One main landing gear seen on ground.
-Reverse is selected on at least one engine (the other thrust lever must be at or below Idle notch).

210
Q

SEC 1 FAILURE: what do we lose?

A

spoilers 3-4 which are 2 over 3 of those used as SPD BRK. Therefore the FAC doesn’t get the poistion and cannot compute the VLS so commands ALL the SPD BRK inop.

211
Q

SINGLE Failure of SEC 2 or 3?

A

lose 1 or 2 set of spoilers so no big consequences

212
Q

2x SEC FAILURE:

A

Manual braking (cause they’re part of the ground logic)

213
Q

SEC 1+2+3 FAILURE:

A

lose all the SPOILERS:
ALTN LAW
goes on Direct law not when the L/G is down (FAC doesn’t know it’s position!) but when the Flap2 are extended.

214
Q

in ROLL how long does it take to transition from GROUND mode to FLIGHT mode?

A

1/2 second (almost immediately)

215
Q

When landing, how long it takes (from touch down)in PITCH to go from FLARE mode to GROUND mode?

A

ground mode enters 5” after t-down, and blends in additional 5”

216
Q

landing, ROLL from flight to ground mode:

A

changes at TDown and takes 0.5 seconds

217
Q

Low Energy Aural Alert

A

Computed by FAC.
“SPEED SPEED SPEED” warns the crew that the aircraft’s energy is going below a threshold under which the thrust have to be increased to maintain positive plight path.
It’s available in conf 2,3 and FULL. During deceleration comes before the ⍺ floor.

218
Q

Flaps auto retraction:

A

happens at 210kt if the crew doesn’t select flaps 0.

219
Q

Wingspan:

A

shark: 35,80m
wtips: 34,1m

220
Q

RED AUTOLAND light comes on when?

A

Loss of both APs
Loss of LOC >15ft
Loss of GS >100ft
Deviation of LOC/GS
RAD ALT Discrepancy >15ft
FMGS detects LONG/EARLY/UNTIMELY FLARE.

221
Q

Fail Operational means?

A

CAT 3 DUAL:
in the event of a failure below Alter Height (100’), the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically.
If a failure happens above alert height the system might still operate as FAIL PASSIVE.

222
Q

FAIL PASSIVE

A

CAT 3 SINGLE
in case of failure there is no significant out-of-trim condition but the landing is NOT COMPLETED AUTOMATICALLY. In case of failure Pilot has to take the control of the aircraft.

223
Q

LVO: what happens at 800’(RA)?

A

LDG INHIBIT (800’ to 80kt)

224
Q

LVO: what happens at 700’(RA)?

A

FMGC DATALOCK: ILS Course and Fred are frozen in the receiver. Vapp is also locked (if Spd managed).

225
Q

Stable Criteria at 1000 and 500’

A
226
Q

LVO: Failures > 1000’

A

Complete:
-ECAM/QRH
-Req equip CAT II/III QRH/OPS
-APPR LDG cap check
-RVR check
-DH adjust

227
Q

LVO: Failures <1000’

A

unless vis reference:
Master Caution or triple click: GO-Around.

228
Q

LVO: Failures between 200’ and 100’

A

The Autoland is armed and would come on. In that case and in case any other failure could come, we’ll have to go-around.

229
Q

Below 100’

A

Go-Around only in case of AUTOLAND RED.

230
Q

Lift Formula

A

Cʟ ˣ ½𝝆V² ˣ S

Cʟ=angle of attack
𝝆 = density of the air
V= speed
S= Surface of the wing

231
Q

F speed

A

minimum speed at which the flaps may be retracted at TO.
1.26xVS in CONF1+F

232
Q

S speed

A

minimum speed at which the slats may be retracted at TO. Used as target speed during approach when in CONF1.
= 1.23 VS clean config

233
Q

how many braking applications with the accumulator only?

A

7

234
Q

how long is the pressure on the parking brake staying?

A

approx 12 hrs

235
Q

when does the A/SKID become available?

A

> 20kt GROUND SPEED

236
Q

when does NWS stop?

A

tiller at 80kt
rudder pedals at 130kt

237
Q

L/G Gravity extension: how many turns to extend it?

A

3 clockwise

238
Q

Braking reversions - depending on the failures may revert in:

A

Alternate Braking with A/SKID

Alternate Braking without A/SKID

Alternate Braking on accumulator

239
Q

BSCU

A

Brake and Steering Control Unit

240
Q

ABCU

A

Alternate Braking Control Unit

241
Q

Alternate Braking with A/SKID

A

braking mode is controlled by ABCU and the A/SKID by the BSCU

242
Q

Alternate Braking without A/SKID

A

braking mode is fully controlled by ABCU

243
Q

Alternate Braking without A/SKID on accumulator

A

braking mode is fully controlled by ABCU

244
Q

Cabin Pressure Safety Valve: when does it open?

A

between 8.2 and 8.9 PSI (and -1PSI) depending if in Auto or Man mode.
The range is due to the potential lack of accuracy in the measurement system.

245
Q

How many motors does the Outflow Valve have?

A

3:
1 for CPC1
1 for CPC2
1 for MAN ops.

246
Q

what happens if CPC1+2 fail?

A

the Outflow valve freezes in the position it was before.

247
Q

Most important thing to remember if you have CPC 1+ 2 FAULT in cruise:

A

The cabin is happy like that! it’s probably worth diverting (no dispatching with CPC 1+2 INOP) but you can plan a “normal” descent

248
Q

AVIONIC VENTILATION: how many configs do we have in normal ops?

A

open-circuit configuration: SKIN AIR INLET & OUTLET VALVE OPEN
closed-circuit configuration: SKIN AIR INLET & OUTLET VALVE CLOSED
intermediate configuration: SKIN AIR INLET VALVE CLOSED, OUTLET VALVE PARTIALLY OPEN.

249
Q

AVIONIC VENTILATION: open circuit configuration

A

on ground when skin temperature is above the on-ground threshold which is approximately 10° (9°C when the temperature is decreasing, 12°C when the temperature is increasing)

250
Q

AVIONIC VENTILATION: closed circuit configuration

A

ON GROUND: when the skin temperature is below the on-ground threshold.
IN FLIGHT: when the skin temperature is below the in-flight threshold which is approximately 33°C (35° when increasing, 32° when decreasing).

251
Q

AVIONIC VENTILATION: intermediate configuration

A

happens only in flight and when the skin Temperature is above the in-flight threshold which is approximately 33°C (35° when increasing, 32° when decreasing). The inner part of the SKIN AIR OUTLET VALVE opens.

252
Q

AVIONIC VENTILATION FAILURES. If pressing Blower PB what happens? if pressing extract? What about if smoke is detected in the sys?

A

BLOWER OVRD: becomes closed circuit and the Blower Fan stops
EXTRACT OVRD: becomes closed circuit and the Extract Fan continues operating.
If smoke is detected than the skin air outlet valve partially opens.

253
Q

Fire Loops, how do they work? (what do they use to detect fire?)

A

they sense the change in RESISTANCE induced by a change in the temperature.

254
Q

which kind of SPOILER EXTENSION can we have upon landing?

A

Full and PARTIAL (in case of one wheel on the ground is Phased lift dumping, in case is 2 wheels on the ground then is the new BOUNCE REDUCTION LOGIC in the SEC120)

255
Q

which conditions do we have for the FULL EXTENSION of the spoilers on the ground upon landing?
(NO NEED TO KNOW)

A

with GND Spoilers ARMED:
-both MLG on the GND
-BOTH THR LVR idle or less, or REV is selected in 1 engine and the other is below MCT (SEC120 rwy excursion logic).
when GDN Spoilers NOT ARMED:
-both MLG on the GND
-at least 1 THR Rev deployed and the other THR LVR IDLE

basically if we forget to arm the ground spoilers before landing we will have full ground spoilers extended only if we select at least one reverser.

256
Q

if we forget to arm the ground spoilers before landing, will we have the extension of ground spoilers on the ground?

A

only if we select at least 1 reverser.

257
Q

in which cases to we have the PARTIAL spoiler extension?

A

In case of Phased lift dumping:
-regardless of the position of the speed brake lever
-1 wheel on the ground
-at least 1 reverser is selected

(NO NEED TO KNOW)
IN A BOUNCE REDUCTION LOGIC (new SEC120 bounce reduction logic):
-Ground spoilers must be armed
-Both main landing gears seen on ground.
-Both thrust levers AT OR BELOW the CLB notch (ATHR).

258
Q

SEC120 Bounce reduction logic: (NO NEED TO KNOW)

A

if we forget to retard the THR LVRs upon landing, as soon as we have 2MLG on the ground and the spoilers are armed, we get partial extension of the speed brakes.

259
Q

cargo smoke detection and fire suppression system: how many bottles?

A

1 bottle

260
Q

cargo smoke detection and fire suppression system: how many NOZZLES do we have?

A

3 nozzles in total: 1 in the FWD and 2 in the AFT cargo

261
Q

cargo smoke detection and fire suppression system: how many smoke detection units do we have?

A

6 smoke detectors: 2 in the FWD, 4 in the AFT.

262
Q

when depressing the Cargo fire extinguisher how long does it take to fully discharge and therefore for the light to come on?

A

up to 60”

263
Q

how many fire detection units do we have in the engines?

A

3: FAN, CORE, PYLON

264
Q

How many smoke detection units do we have on the CARGO?

A

6 SDUs: 2 in the FWD, 4 in the AFT

265
Q

How many Fire extinguisher bottles do we have on the CARGO?

A

1 only but with 3 nozzles: 1 in the FWD and 2 in the AFT.

266
Q

Avionic in smoke config:

A

skin inlet valve closes, blower stops, air is now driven in from the Air conditioning, extract fan keeps working and blows air outside through a partially opened skin outlet valve.

267
Q

Avionic compartment: does it have a fire detection or a smoke detection?

A

smoke det.

268
Q

Typical values on a engine driven GEN

A

116V
400Hz

269
Q

Typical values on a TR unit (after conversion of AC in DC)

A

28V
150 A

270
Q

⍺ FLOOR: in which phases of flight is it active?

A

from lift-off to 100’ RA before landing if A/THR operative (Not necessarily active)

271
Q

SDAC

A

System Data Acquisition Concentrator: we have 2, they acquire data and distribute them over 3 DMC (display management computers) and 2 FWC (flight warning computers).

272
Q

DMC

A

Display management computers (we have 2)

273
Q

T.O. INHIBIT:
LDG INHIBIT:

A

TO: 1st ENG TO PWR - 1500FT
LDG: 800ft - 80kt

274
Q

Parameter exceedance during approach

A

Speed: -5/10kt - “speed”
Bank: >7° - “bank”
Pitch: -2.5/+10° (321: 7.5°) - “pitch”
V/S >1000ft/min - “sink rate”

LOC/GLIDE: ½ dot - “LOC” or “GLIDE”
v-dev: ½ dot - “V/DEV”
course: ½ dot (VOR), 5° (ADF) - “COURSE”

275
Q

Parameter exceedance during Go-Around:

A

pitch <10° or >20°
bank >7°
“Sink rate” if no climb

276
Q

Stable Approach criteria

A

1000’:
Landing Configuration
Speed Vapp target +30kt

500’:
Landing configuration
correct lat/vert flight path
rod commensurate with FPA/spd
speed -5/+10kt
Bank: <15°
Landing checklist complete

277
Q

Stable Approach Criteria in CIRCLING

A

must be met at 400’ TDZE
parameters: like the normal landing except:
Bank: max 15° within ± 30° final track

278
Q

how long does it take to the VLS to appear after Takeoff?

A

7-8 seconds

279
Q

VAPP: how does FMGC compute it?

A

VLS + 1/3 of the HW comp.
LIMITED TO:
VLS+5 ≤ VAPP ≤ VLS+15

280
Q

RETARD a/thr mode

A

is an A/THR mode available only during Autoland:
if FLARE engages, when the Aircraft reaches 30ft RA the A/THR sets THR IDLE. At 10ft we get anyway a “RETARD” callout asking the crew to set the THR LVR to IDLE.

281
Q

“RETARD” Callout: when does it come in manual and autoland and what’s the difference?

A

Manual landing: 20ft RA
Autoland: 10ft RA.
in Autoland the RETARD mode engages at 30ft and sets the THR to IDLE even if the pilot doesn’t retard the thrust levers.

282
Q

how does the ELAC knows the gross weight?

A

the FAC computes the VS1G and from this deducts the GW.

283
Q

How does the FAC calculates the VS1G?

A

below 14625’ and 250kt it computes from current:
AoA, spd/Mach, altitude, thrust and CG.

above:
from the GW memorized and updated with a fuel consumption model

284
Q

ENG ANTI-ICE: where does the hot air come from?

A

directly from HP stage of Turbine. Doesn’t go through the Bleed system therefore is still operative with EBG BLEED Inop.

285
Q

Wing Anti-Ice: what happens if you switch it on on the ground?

A

makes a 30sec test and then it deactivates until we are in Flight.

286
Q

Wing Anti-Ice: where does the hot air come from?

A

from bleed system 1 which provides for both wings.

287
Q

which parts of the wings are heated when WAI on?

A

slats 3-4-5 (telescopic duct)

288
Q

LAF: what is it? which surfaces operate this function?

A

Load alleviation function:
spoiler 4-5 and aileron.

289
Q

Sidestick deactivation: how long do I have to press the Pakeover PB to deactivate the other side stick?

A

40 secs

290
Q

in case of dual input, what does CM1 and CM2 see on the glareshield?

A

both CAPT and F/O lights on the glareshield flash GREEN and we hear “DUAL INPUT” sound every 5 seconds

291
Q

if the CM1 takes over by pushing the takeover PB what does CM2 see on the glareshield?

A

red arrow ⟸
voice “Priority left”

this until the CM2 releases the sidestick

292
Q

level of disruptive pax

A
293
Q

Electrical power of the A320 system

A

Three-phase 115/200V 400Hz constant-frequency AC System.

28V DC system

294
Q

ELEC: GEN 1 fails, how does the system reconfigure?

A

Generator 2 takes over the AC BUS 1 and part of the galley load is shed.

295
Q

ELEC: Failure of AC BUS 1, how does the system reconfigure?

A

AC BUS 2 feeds AC ESS-ESS TR-DC ESS
TR2-DC2-DC BAT-DC1

296
Q

ELEC: Failure of one TR, how does it reconfigure?

A

The other TR replaces the faulty one
ESS TR supplies the DC ESS

297
Q

Reconfiguration when TR1+2 FAULT

A
298
Q

ALL ENG FAILURE QRH PROC: optimum relight speed and flight dist/nm at that speed and at green dot spe

A

300/0.77 (320NEO-321NEO 270kts)
2nm/1000ft (FL200 -> 40nm)
green dot: 2.5nm/1000ft (FL200 -> 50nm)

299
Q

What’s the total flight time on batteries only?

A

30’

300
Q

how many brake applications are available on the Y Accumulator?

A

7 applications

301
Q

ALL ENG FAILURE PROC: why do we reset the FAC?

A

to resume characteristic speeds and rudder trim

302
Q

ENG WINDMILL RELIGHT max Alt?

A

FL250

303
Q

why is the outer tank fuel usually warmer than the inner tank?

A

cause the IDG warm fuel return line spills into the outer tk (which then spills into the inner)

304
Q

normal law: name the 5 protections

A

1 load factor
2 pitch attitude
3 bank angle
4 high speed
5 high angle of attack

305
Q

Normal law, pitch attitude protection

A

CONF 0-3: +30° -15°
CONF FULL: +25° -15°

Alessandro's upgrade study (7 decks)

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