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Alessandro's upgrade study > OM-A, OM-B Perf, Regulations & other > Flashcards

OM-A, OM-B Perf, Regulations & other Flashcards

1
Q

Database requirement to fly an RNP approach procedure

A

must be:
1- produced by an approved supplier
2- validated and approved by the operator

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2
Q

minimum decision height for ILS CAT 2:

A

100’

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3
Q

for a CAT 2 approach, if we wanna land manually, what’s the latest heigh we must disconnect the AP? (easyJet doesn’t allow it though)

A

80’

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4
Q

min decision height for SA CAT II

A

100’

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5
Q

Can I do an autoland with one engine inop?

A

yes, as long as all the eng out procedures are completed before reaching 1000’ and the landing is in conf FULL (A320 CEO, all others FL3 landing as well)

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6
Q

Can we do an autoland with conf 3?

A

yes (but if 1 engine inop only flaps FULL)

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7
Q

Autoland max winds:

A

A320:
30 HW
20 XW (15 with automatic rollout)
10 TW

A320 neo:
HW: 30kt
XW: 20kt (15kt for automatic rollout with one engine inop)
TW: 10kt

A319:
HW: 20kt (15 with OEI)
XW: 20kt (10 with OEI)
TW: 10kt (5kt with conf 3 or FULL with airport elev above 5750’)

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8
Q

AUTOLAND: if the ND shows a wind within the acceptable limits but the tower reported wind is beyond, can we still continue?

A

No, as the wind limitation is based on the surface wind reported by ATC. We have to perform a CAT 1 Approach (no Autoland).

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9
Q

Can we do an autoland with a CAT 1 beam?

A

Yes if:

1- the operator checked the beam quality and the terrain profile (particularly 300m before the ray threshold)

2- the crew is aware of the possible fluctuations and ready to take over.

3- at least CAT 2 capability is displayed on the FMA and the crew uses CAT II/III procedures

4- visual references are attained as per CAT 1 minima.

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10
Q

APU: how many start attempts can we operate?

A

3 consecutive attempts, thereafter we must wait 60’ before trying again

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11
Q

in normal procedures, what’s the maximum altitude to start an APU?

A

Maximum ceiling of the Aircraft (39800’)

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12
Q

What’s the max alt to start the APU on battery only? es. in emergency elec config

A

25000’

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13
Q

APU: what’s the max alt to operate the APU bleed?

A

22500’ for air conditioning and pressurization with one pack only
20000’ to assist an engine start
15000’ for air conditioning and pressurization with 2 packs

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14
Q

OVERSPEED RECOVERY technic

A

1- Keep AP and A/THR
2- Use speed brakes as req.
3- monitor IDLE thrust*
*if A/THR is OFF set thrust levers to idle

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15
Q

Airbus Golden Rules

A

1-fly nav comm
2-use the appropriate level of automation at all times
3-understand the FMA at all times
4-take action if things do not go as expected

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16
Q

Handling of ECAM: “STAUS” - “STOP ECAM” - ?

A

Normal C/L?
System Reset?
Additional Proc? (QRH summary/proc)
ENG Relight procedure (after eng fail with no damage)

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17
Q

Overhead Panel Guarded Controls:

black ≠ red

A

black = reversible
red = irreversible

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18
Q

LAND ASAP what’s the difference between Amber and Red

A

AMBER: CONSIDER landing at the nearest suitable airport

RED: Land AS SOON AS POSSIBLE where a SAFE LANDING can be made.

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19
Q

Normal sequence of Procedures in ABN situations

A

MEM ITEMS or OEB immediate actions
OEB
ECAM
QRH

this works in MOST of the situations and is the basic one. However, this sequence may not cover all operational situations. Therefore the flight crew should always exercise their judgment and adapt the sequence of actions to the real conditions.

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20
Q

WET Runway:

A

< 3mm of any visible moisture or water.

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21
Q

Contamined Runway DEFINITION

A

SIGNIFICANT PORTION of its surface is covered with:
- LAYER OF FLUID CONTAMINANT 3mm or more
- HARD CONTAMINANT

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22
Q

Fluid contaminants:

A

snow (wet & dry)
slush
standing water

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23
Q

Hard contaminants:

A

compacted snow
ice
wet ice

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24
Q

Missed Approach Climb Gradient

A

is part of an Instrument Approach procedure design.
When no gradient is published, a minimum gradient of 2.5% prevails.
A minimum climb gradient is only specified if >2.5%

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25
Q

Landing Dist Calc at dispatch on a dry rwy: can we take benefit of the thrust reverser?

A

NO, it’s calculated without the benefit of thrust reversers, as per regulation

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26
Q

Landing Dist Calc at dispatch on a wet rwy

A

no benefit of thrust rev and is dry rwy x 1.15

(At dispatch we can take credit of the thrust reverser only in case of contamined runways)

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27
Q

Landing Perf Calculation DISPATCH: when can we take credit of the reversers?

A

on Contamined Runways

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28
Q

RCAM stands for?

A

Runway Condition Assessment Matrix

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29
Q

Minimum Fuel / Mayday Fuel

A

Minimum Fuel: informs ATC that we are committed to land a t a single airfield and may be landing close to FRF. It’s a recognized way of sharing our mental model of our fuel state with ATC and informing ATC that any change to the existing plan could lead to an emergency.

Mayday Fuel: when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest airport where a safe landing can be made is less than the final reserve fuel.

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30
Q

CAT 1, and 2-3 holding point markings: where would you find the runway?

A

on the side of the dashed line on the CAT1 holding position markings (pattern type “A”)

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31
Q

LVP: RVRs mid point and stop end

A

rollout guidance: 75m, 75m
no rollout guidance:125m, 75m

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32
Q

LVO Takeoff RVR UK and EU?

A

for Cat C aircrafts a LVO takeoff is considered when RVR is <400m (UK) and <550m (EU).

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33
Q

RFFS category required?
can we downgrade?

A

321: 7
319/320: 6
-aerodromes which experience low volume of traffic: 5
-downgrade 2 categories below the Airplane category is permitted when is temporary (NOTAMs) not more than 72 hrs.

Alternates (TO, ENR, DEST) can be 4 (UK 5).

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34
Q

Alternate (NOT ALTERNATIVE!) Planning Minima for Type B instrument approach ops

A

ceiling: DA/H + 200ft
RVR/VIS: + 550m

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35
Q

FLIGHT MONITORING CONCEPT in the context of the new easyJet fuel scheme

A

new regulation allows the operator to reduce some wx alternate planning minima provided safety related info can be exchanged during flight between a/C and ICC

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36
Q

what is a Type A Instrument Approach Operation?

A

one with MDH or DH at or above 250ft

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37
Q

what is a type B Instrument Approach Operation?

A

when DH <250ft

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38
Q

Type B approach categories:

A

an operation with DH below 250’

CAT I: DH not lower than 200’ - RVR not less than 550m (VIS not less than 800m)

CAT II: 100’ ≤ DH < 200’, RVR ≥ 300m

CAT III with DH: 50’≤ DH < 100’ - RVR not lower than 175.
CAT III with DH <50’ - RVR 75m

CAT III NO DH - RVR 75m

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39
Q

Alternate Planning Minima for Type A instrument approach ops
(with Flight Monitoring)

A

3D type A facility with SYSTEM minima 200ft or less (i.e. ILS CAT I): DA/H + 200ft, RVR/VIS + 800m

2 or more usable type A apps each based on separate navaids: DA/H + 200ft, RVR/VIS +1000m (can choose the approach with the most convenient minima (??))

other type A approach ops: DA/H + 400ft, RVR/VIS + 1500m

Circling approach ops: MDA/H + 400ft, VIS + 1500m

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40
Q

ILS CAT I is a type A or B approach?

A

normally B, but is A when the MDH/DH are ≥ 250ft

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41
Q

alternate planning minima example: if we want AMS as alternate (rwy18R CATIII (0’/75m), what wx do we need?

A

is a Type B approach so +200’/+550m
so we need: 200’/625m

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42
Q

alternate planning minima example: if we want to take GRX as alternate (rwy27 circling 2250’/2.4km), what wx do we need?

A

is a Type A approach with circling minima so: +400ft/+1500m
so we need: 2650’/3.9km)

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43
Q

Alternate planning minima: what wx do we need at ENR or DEST Alternate in we want to use an ILS CAT 1?

A

we need the charted minima +200’/550m (Both for CAT 1 type A and type B).

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44
Q

in the context of fuel schemes, what is a SAFE LANDING?

A

1- at an adequate aerodrome
2- with no less than the Final Reserve Fuel
3- in compliance with the applicable operational procedures and aerodrome operating minima.

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45
Q

when do we declare a fuel emergency?

A

when we estimate that the Final Reserve Fuel can no longer be protected.

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46
Q

Minimum Fuel

A

informs ATC of 2 things:
1- all planned options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing.
2- any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than the final reserve fuel.

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47
Q

after a “minimum fuel” declaration, do we expect any priority handling?

A

no, but ATC is obliged to communicate to the flight crew any expected additional delays, as well as coordinate with other ATC units when transferring the control, to ensure that the other unit knows.

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48
Q

How does a commander declare a fuel emergency state?

A

by declaring “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL”

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49
Q

when would you declare fuel emergency?

A

when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned final reserve fuel.

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50
Q

max number of attempted approaches?

A

nor more than 2 successive approaches may be flown when there has been a go-around due to wx, unless there has been a significant improvement to the wx which would allow a SAFE LANDING, or in case that an emergency states exists.

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51
Q

minima for VISUAL APPROACH?

A

5km visibility
2500’ aal

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52
Q

what is a SA CAT I or II?

A

means Special Authorization.
is not a separate approach classification: it’s an operational credit applied to a CAT I or II operation

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53
Q

SA CAT I:

A

Special authorization CAT I: is an OPERATIONAL CREDIT that exploits a navigation solution with superior performance to that required for CAT1 by extending the instrument segment of a CAT 1 operation.
The DH down to 150’, corresponding reduction on the RVR (down to 400m)

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54
Q

SA CAT II:

A

operational credit that applies to the visual segment of an approach conducted where aerodrome, runway and approach lighting system DO NOT MEET THE USUAL REQ FOR CAT II.
the DH will be the same as for standard CAT II, but the RVR will depend on the class of light facility installed.

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55
Q

Landing Assured

A

has been replaced with SAFE LANDING

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56
Q

Take-off alternate: when do we need one and how far can be?

A

is required when PERFORMANCE or METEOROLOGICAL conditions preclude a return to the departure aerodrome.

Must be max at 1hr still air flight time at OEI cruising speed in ISA conditions based on actual TO weight (320nm)

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57
Q

APPROACH BAN: If we want to perform a NPA and the reported ceiling doesn’t meet the minima can we still start and continue the approach?

A

yes, only the visibility counts for banning the approach.

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58
Q

Approach ban

A

an approach may be commenced regardless of the reported RVR/VIS but cannot be continued beyond 1000’ aal unless we have the required applicable RVR/VIS minima.

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59
Q

APPROACH BAN: in case we have no RVR available but and the VIS is below the applicable minima can we use CMV to continue the approach?

A

yes, in that case we can continue to the DA/H MDA/H but not in lvo

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60
Q

controlling RVR for approach

A

the TDZ RVR is always controlling for an approach with MDA, DA or DH. If the TDZ RVR is not reported than the mid-point should be the controlling one.
If no RVR available we can still use CMV (but not for continuation of an Approach in LVO)

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61
Q

how many RVR reports do we need for a CAT III with no DH?

A

Air Ops requires only 1 RVR value at an the airport for CAT III with NO DH

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62
Q

LO VIS TO

A

RVR<550m (EU)
RVR<400m(UK)

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63
Q

Aircraft Lowest minima for TO

A

125m
but the airport can have a more restrictive minima (see AOI)

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64
Q

LO VIS TO: can the initial part of the takeoff run be replaced by pilot assessment?

A

yes

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65
Q

Relevant RVRs for LO VIS TO

A

those on the runway Required for accelerate at V1, reject a TO and come to a speed of 60kt.

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66
Q

LO VIS TAKEOFF: How many RVR are required?

A

Those relevant for takeoff (usually all three) but the first one can be replaced by pilot assessment.

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67
Q

LOVIS: minimum visual reference for CAT II

A

3 consecutive lights and a Lateral element

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68
Q

LOVIS: minimum visual reference for CAT III NO DH

A

NONE

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69
Q

LOVIS: minimum visual reference for CAT III with DH <50’

A

1 centerline light

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70
Q

LOVIS: minimum visual reference for CAT III WITH DH ≥ 50’ but < 100’

A

3 consecutive lights

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71
Q

in fail passive CAT III operations, if AP fails below minima do I have to Go-Around?

A

Go-around is the normal action, but if the commander assumes that continuing is the safest course of action, it may be continued manually.

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72
Q

Max Taxi speed in LOVIS

A

10kt

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73
Q

ENROUTE ALTERNATE: how far can that be?

A

1hr flight time with OEI:
A319: 380nm
A320-321: 400nm

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74
Q

Dispatching with no Alternate: can we do that?
at what conditions?

A

can be done under the Alternative Flight Planning Procedures. The destination aerodrome must have 2 separate runways where the risk of a sigle event (such as an aircraft accident) or meteorological deterioration at single aerodrome will not eliminate safe landing options.
CONDITIONS:
1- flight time must not exceed 6 hrs or 4 hrs in case of in-flight replanning.
2- wx forecast at ETA ±1h Ceiling 2000’ or circling height +500’ (whichever higher)
3- additional fuel is carried (15’ @1500’AAL - 800kg)

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75
Q

Conditions for Planning with NO DEST ALT:

A

It’s done under the ALTERNATIVE FLUGHT PLANNING PROCEDURES:

2 separate rwys
Flight Time ≤ 6hrs
WX ±1hr ETA:
2000’ (or circling height +500ft), VIS ≥ 5000m
Additional 15’ fuel (800kg)

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76
Q

If DATALINK not available which planning procedure must be use and what are the new planning minima?

A

Alternative Planning Minima:
Type B: +200ft / +800m
Type A & Circling: +400ft / +1500m

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77
Q

Aerodrome Categories

A

A- non complex

B- complexity requiring specific briefing (eg audio visual…)

B restricted- requiring specific restrictions but no visit or specific training

C- Special Crew qualification required achieved with visit or training

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78
Q

Airplane Categories: which is the criteria used?

A

IAS at the Threshold (Vat) in the landing config

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79
Q

Aircraft CAT C speeds?

A

121-140kts

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80
Q

LOVIS TO: how many centerline lights would we see with 125RVR when lined-up on the rwy for Takeoff?

A

7 (90m visual segment)

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81
Q

Lowest system minima for ILS CAT III DH<50ft or NO DH?

A

75/75/75
ROLLOUT required
multiple RVR req (only one if NO DH)

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82
Q

Lowest RVR for ILS CAT III with DH≥ 50ft but <100ft

A

175/125(75)/75
multiple RVR req

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83
Q

Lowest system minima for ILS SA CAT II?

A

100ft
350/125/75
multiple RVR req

84
Q

Lowest system minima for ILS CAT II?

A

100ft
300/125/75
multiple RVR req

85
Q

Lowest system minima for ILS SA CAT I?

A

150ft
400/125/75
only Touchdown RVR is required

86
Q

Lowest system minima for ILS CAT I?

A

200ft
550/125/75
only Touchdown RVR required

87
Q

CMV factor for Planning Purposes:

A

1.0

88
Q

CMV factor for in-flight purposes:

A

see table OM-A 8.1.3.5(1)

89
Q

When are we NOT ALLOWED to use CMV?

A

-if we have a RVR
-to takeoff minima
-for the continuation of an approach in LVO

90
Q

When can we use Alternative Flight Planning Procedure?
What can we do?
What do we require additionally?

A

are normally limited to those flights that are payload or performance restricted.

We can reduce:
Taxi fuel
contingency fuel
Trip fuel
No Alternate

91
Q

RCF (reduced contingency fuel)

A

It’s one of the “tools” available in the ALTERNATIVE FLIGHT PLANNING PROCEDURES.

Requires the selection of a Fuel ERA.

If SCF available, the contingency fuel can be reduced to the greater of:
1. CONT90
2. 5 min. at holding spd 1500’
3. Ca. 200kg
(A319: 190kg
A320CEO: 204kg
A320NEO: 170kg
A321NEO: 200kg)

If no SCF available ⇒ 3% Trip Fuel or 5’ whichever is greater.

ERA requirements: located within a circle having as radius 20% of the route distance and being centered along the route at 25% of the dest to dest (or 20%+50nm whichever greater).

92
Q

Pax classifications

A

≥ 12 ADULTS
2 =< CHILDREN <12
INFANT < 2

93
Q

std masses for crew:

A

85kg flight crew, 75kg cabin crew

94
Q

masses values for pax (EU)

A

Adult: Male 93, female 75kg
child: 35kg

95
Q

mass values for check luggage

A

domestic 11kg
within EU: 13kg
intercontinental: 15kg

96
Q

Defects Level 1 and Level 2

A

1 affects the airworthiness
2 doesn’t

97
Q

which airplane certificates must be carried onboard in PAPER format?

A

ARL
Certificate of Airworthiness
Certificate of Reg
Radio License

98
Q

MORA

A

Minimum Off-Route Altitude:
provides 1000’ (or 2000’ for terrain >5000ft) terrain clearance within 20nm of the route segment centerline.

99
Q

Relevant RVR

A

TO: accelerate to V1 and decelerate to 60kt
Land: decelerate to 60kt

100
Q

if in-flight I realize that I might be short on fuel what can I do?

A

-Cost Index 0
-Obtain direct routings
-Fly closer to OPT FL
-Change alternate to a closer
-Land and Refuel

101
Q

when planning for an alternate, a PROB TEMPO indicates that the wx will be below planning minima: can we take it?

A

YES, PROB TEMPO deterioration may be disregarded.
PROB TEMPO improvement SHOULD be disregarded.

102
Q

Planning minima for dest alt and fuel ERA if we want an Airport with a Type A approach?

A

ILS type A (higher chart/notams minima than 250ft): DA/H+200, RVR/VIS + 800

2 or more Type A approaches available, each based on a separate nav aid: +200ft, +1000m

other Type A: +400ft, +1500m

103
Q

Planning minima for DEST ALT and fuel ERA if we want an Airport with only a circling procedure?

A

MDA/H +400ft, VIS + 1500m

104
Q

Planning minima WITHOUT Flight Monitoring Concept or for Flight Time >6hrs

A

TYPE B: +200’/+800m
TYPE A & circling: +400’/+1500m

(8.1.2.2.2.7)

105
Q

commit to land, explain

A

All landing options reduced to 1.
we should be able to perform a SAFE LANDING (previous version says: in case of deterioration in wx or sigle failures on ground and/or in airborne facilities)

106
Q

fuel discrepancy when you fill in the Tech Log: what do you do?

A

a maintenance action is due. See OM-B 2.3.6.12.
i.e. for FOB between 6 and 12 Tons (most of the cases) max discrepancy 500kg.

107
Q

Boarding with reduced cabin crew from originating base

A

it is possible if:
at least 1 Flight Crew member is in the Flight Deck
SCCM is present and covers 1L and 1R
CC2 in the rear and covers 2L and 2R
CC3 in the middle responsible for overwind exits
NO REFUELLING AND BOARDING
MAX 150 pax (50/CC member)

108
Q

Reduced Cabin Crew Ops (what is it)

A

unforeseen circumstances lead to a cabin crew member being unable to operate:

not permitted from an originating base

have to be approved by the Network Duty Manager.

Max 150 pax

109
Q

are Reduced Cabin Crew Ops permitted from an originating base?

A

NO, only the boarding is

110
Q

SCCM unable to operate:

A

if becoming incapacitated after departing from an originating base than:
the most appropriately qualified CC will be assigned to act as SCCM ad interim in order to complete the flight or the series of flights.
For continuation the designated SCCM ad interim must have at least 12 months of experience as CC and have at least 20 sectors on the type.

111
Q

if the SCCM becomes incapacitated after departure, can the interim SCCM continue in the next sectors in the role if we are continuing from a Transit Base?

A

only if there is no other SCCM to be called in the Transit base and he/she is experienced (12 months and >20 sectors).

112
Q

Transit Base:

A

a company base in the Easyjet network which is not the originating base.

113
Q

Reduced cabin crew operation Procedures are subject to which limitations?

A

(Not applicable for 319 with 150 seats and 3 cc)
only 1 less than the original crew number
50 pax per CC (excluding infants and the sick CC),
shall only be done to complete the series of flights,

114
Q

after a failure (i.e. ENG FAIL) we have CAT III SINGLE displayed on FMA. What’s the minimum DH and RVR that we need to have to land?

A

DH 50’
RVR 175m, 125m, 75m

115
Q

max airport elevation for auto land with A320 CEO?

A

2500’ (319/320NEO/321NEO 9200’)

116
Q

what do we need as ground equipment to have automatic Rollout?

A

must be a minimum of CAT 1 ground equipment

117
Q

requirements for automatic rollout:

A

NWS and ANTISKID
at least CAT 2 capability
non-contamined rwy

118
Q

can we perform automatic Rollout on a CAT 1 approach?

A

YES!
Autoland system performance is demonstrated with CAT II and III, but also on CAT I if precautions are taken and minima for CAT I are used

119
Q

which landing capability do we need to have to do Automatic Rollout?

A

Need to see at least CAT 2 on FMA

120
Q

how many RVRs do we need for CAT III without DH?

A

only one. If TDZ RVR not available than Mid-Point can be used.

121
Q

Can we use CMV for LVO approach?

A

No. CMV cannot be used for the purpose of continuation of an LVO approach. (OMA 8.1.3.5.

122
Q

CMV for planning purposes

A

can be used with a factor of 1.0 (do not apply the table)

123
Q

when can we use the Conversion of reported VIS to RVR/CMV table?

A

in-flight, for non LVO approaches.
For planning use factor 1.0
Can’t be used to satisfy the Takeoff Minima.

124
Q

APPROACH BAN, Failed or Downgraded ground equipment:
if we receive information of a Failure on the ground equipment after passing 1000’ above the aerodrome, are we supposed to check the LIDO table?

A

No, the approach can be continued at captain’s discretion. Above 1000’ though, the failure must be considered and the approach abandoned.

125
Q

how does the Landing Performance application calculates the GA GRADIENT?

A

Go-Around Flaps Config
OEI
TOGA
L/G UP

126
Q

with windshear/turbulence what is the preferred Landing Flap Configuration?

A

Flap 3

127
Q

OEI Climb Gradients: Second Segment and Final Segment:

A

Second segment: 2.4% gross
Final segment: 1.2% gross

128
Q

when is an All Engine Climb Gradient (ACG) specified in a SID?

A

when exceeds 3.3% (2.5 + 0.8 net margin).

129
Q

Obstacle Clearance Requirements: TAKEOFF FLIGHT PATH. When does it start? vertical and lateral clearance?

A

starts at 35 ft above the end if the TO distance. Vertically must clear by 35ft all the obstacles, laterally 90m + (D travelled x 0,125).
If no track changes >15° ⇒ obstacles with lat distance > 600m not to be considered.
Other cases: obstacles with lat distance > 900m must not be considered

130
Q

what is the NET Takeoff flight path?

A

is the gross flight path reduced by a decrement of 0.8% (for 2 engines aeroplanes)

131
Q

if the ENG fails when already established on a SID what do we have to do?

A

Turn the nearest way to the EO Holding Pattern.

132
Q

Takeoff Flaps policy:

A

319/320:
CONF 1+F is preferred for normal ops
But consideration should be given to the use of conf 2/3

If an opt calc is made and the result shows conf 3 change the conf to 2 if possible.

321:
CONF 2 (1+F increase the risk of tail strike)

133
Q

when is Flex TO prohibited?

A

contamined runway
dispatching with L/G extended

134
Q

TO slippery when wet:

A

allowed if selecting the rwy condition accordingly.
Max allowed x-wind 25kt

135
Q

“Significant Portion” means?

A

> 25% of the third of runway within the required rwy length and width being used

136
Q

are we allowed to take benefit of the reversers in the takeoff perf calculation on CONTAMINED runways?

A

yes

137
Q

Takeoff perf calc EQUIVALENCES: Compacted Snow >-15°?

A

= dry snow 10mm

138
Q

Takeoff perf calc EQUIVALENCES: Compacted Snow ≤ -15°?

A

= compacted snow

139
Q

Limitations for Contamined Runway Takeoff:

A

TOGA
Captain must be PF
no TO if contaminant depths exceeding:
13mm standing water or slush
30mm wet snow
100mm dry snow

140
Q

what are considered Hard Contaminants?

A

ICE
WET ICE
COMPACTED SNOW

141
Q

TO PERF COMPUTATION: DOWNGRADES
in case of downgrade to RWYCC 3?

A

compute with dry snow 10mm

142
Q

TO PERF COMPUTATION: DOWNGRADES
in case of downgrade to RWYCC 2?

A

request further information or delay takeoff

143
Q

TO PERF COMPUTATION: DOWNGRADES
in case of downgrade to RWYCC 1?

A

compute the takeoff perf with ICE cold &dry

144
Q

How many RVRs do we need for CAT 1 and SA CAT 1?

A

only 1

145
Q

MGA (Minimum Grid Altitude)

A

provides 2000’ separation from the highest obstacle within Grid where terrain is >6000’
1000’ separation if ≤ 6000’

146
Q

for what Temperatures do we apply Temperature Corrections?

A

-10°C or below

147
Q

ISOLATED AERODROME:

A

CNR (FRF+Alternate Fuel) is more than 2hrs.
EasyJet DOESN’T hold the required specific approval for that.

148
Q

DH/DA/MDA

A

DH: SA CAT I; SA CAT II; CAT II; CAT III.
DA: CAT I; MDA: non precision Approach

149
Q

TRIP FUEL: Point Merge pattern and Point Trombone Pattern

A

Point MERGE: the fuel for this STAR may be included in the CONTINGENCY FUEL.
Point TROMBONE: the fuel for this STAR must be included in the TRIP FUEL.

150
Q

What is the contingency fuel for?

A

to cover for possible deviations between the planned and actual operating conditions.

151
Q

Commander’s discretion Policy (general)

A

provided they are satisfied that the flight can be made safely, modify the limits on flight duty, duty and rest periods in the case of UNFORSEEN CIRCUMSTANCES in flight operations that start AT OR AFTER THE REPORTING TIME.

152
Q

Discretion

A

provided they are satisfied that the flight can be made safely, modify the limits on flight duty, duty and rest periods in the case of UNFORSEEN CIRCUMSTANCES in flight operations that start AT OR AFTER THE REPORTING TIME.

153
Q

SRS stands for?

A

Speed Reference System

154
Q

SRS speed command in engine out

A

T/O: V2 or current speed if higher but max V2+15kt
Go-Around: Vapp or current speed if higher but max Vapp+15kt

155
Q

SRS bank angle limitation in EO during TO and APP

A

if F,S,Green Dot -10kts: max 15° of bank
increasing progressively to:
25° when F,S,Green Dot -3kts in SELECTED GUIDANCE
30° when F,S,Green Dot -3kts in MANAGED GUIDANCE

156
Q

Current easyJet fuel scheme:

A

combination of:
1- Fuel policy
2- Aerodrome selection policy
3- In-flight fuel management policy

157
Q

FAS = Final Approach Segment

A

The segment of an Instrument Approach Procedure in which alignment and descent for landing are accomplished

158
Q

FRF = Final reserve fuel

A

Amount of fuel for all turbine powered airplanes, calculated to fly:
30 MINUTES at HOLDING SPEED at 1500FT ABOVE THE AERODROME ELEVATION in STD CONDITIONS.

159
Q

LVO

A

Approach or TO operations on a runway with a RVR less than 550m or with a DH less than 200ft

160
Q

Operational credit:

A

a credit for operations with an advanced aircraft enabling lower aerodrome operating minima than would normally be established by the operator for a basic aircraft, based upon the performance of advanced aircraft systems utilising the available external infrastructure.

161
Q

Levels of disruptive pax:

A

4 levels:
1- non-compliance, irrational & disorderly.
2- physically disruptive including damage to aircraft or property, physical assault of crew or pax.
3- Life threatening behaviour
4- Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck door, including violence directed at the door.

162
Q

Disruptive pax after departure:
which level requires the flight deck door to remain locked?

A

3-4

163
Q

disruptive pax after departure: for which levels we have to inform ATC?

A

3-4 requires the flight deck door to remain locked and we must inform ATC accordingly.

164
Q

for level 1 disruptive pax do we have to call police?

A

not necessarily, only if it has escalated to an unacceptable level.

165
Q

for which levels of disruptive pax do we always have to call police upon arrival?

A

2-3-4

166
Q

if a disruptive pax refuses to disembark what do we as CPT do?

A

we have to lease with police and ground handling agent to establish the best method of dealing with the situation.

167
Q

if a disruptive pax refuses to disembark can any crew member leave the aircraft?

A

no, the crew must remain on board to ensure safety of aircraft and pax.

168
Q

if a disruptive pax refuses to disembark can the pax be removed by force by the crew?

A

NO! crew members are NOT to remove the pax by force. Only police or law enforcement officers can do that.

169
Q

OMA, 8.1.1.3, MFA corrections:
Low altitude temperature corrections are applied when Temperature is? to what do we apply?
how much approximately do we have to add if T=-10°?

A

-10° or below to:
DA, MDA
NPA minimum alts after passing the FAF
FAF (except Baro-VNAV procedures with temperature limit).
ATC must be informed when corrections are applied to FAF to ensure vertical separation with other traffic.
-10° = 10% of the height above the elevation.

170
Q

RFFS for A320/A321 for alternates?

A

5
(UK 4)

171
Q

RFFS can be downgraded?

A

yes
- changes not more than 72hrs ⇒ 2 below
- Cat 5 permitted if low volume of traffic (see OFP)

172
Q

SUITABLE aerodrome:

A

ADEQUATE and WEATHER PERMISSIBLE

173
Q

WEATHER PERMISSIBLE = ?

A

around ETA:

wx is above minima

surface condition indicate that a SAFE LANDING is possible.

174
Q

minimum required OEI climb gradient for 2nd Takeoff segment ?
where does it start and where does it end?

A

2.4% Gross.
Starts at 35’, and finishes at THR/RED ACC (800’ AAL)

175
Q

what is the standard missed approach climb gradient?

A

2.5%

176
Q

OEI Go-Around Acceleration Alt: in which cases can we accelerate already at 1500AAL?

A

in VMC
when following the EO SID
in case it is a OEI GA procedure

177
Q

Gross and Net T/O gradient: meaning

A

Gross= flown by Test Pilot
Net= average pilot
Net is the Gross decreased by 0.8%

178
Q

is the “EVACUATE” command reversible?

A

NO! once we call “Evacuate” the whole circus is starting and we cannot stop it.

179
Q

in an EMER EVAC what do we have to take with us before leaving the cockpit?

A

“VLE”
Hi-vis vest
Loading Form Certificate
Emer Equip as req

180
Q

what’s the new name of “extra fuel” in the Easyjet fuel scheme (Austrian AOC)?

A

Commanders Discretionary Fuel

181
Q

how much does our extra fuel burn / hr of flight?

A

3% of the extra fuel carried per hour of flight

182
Q

what does ADDTL Fuel on OFP mean?

A

it’s planned by LIDO only if the FOD will be <1500kg (to prevent the ECAM LOW FUEL message)

183
Q

PROB TEMPO for planning. Must be considered?

A

no

184
Q

PROB30/40 - TEMPO […] deterioration. PERSISTENT CONDITIONS. Must be considered for planning?

A

yes

185
Q

PROB30/40 - TEMPO […] deterioration, transient/showery conditions. Must be considered for planning?

A

no

186
Q

PROB30/40 - TEMPO […] improvement. Persistent and transient conditions. Can be considered for planning?

A

no, should be disregarded

187
Q

Alternative Flight Planning procedures: if we want to reduce taxi fuel how much per minute do we have to consider for 1 or 2 engine?

A

1 engine: 7 kg/min
2 engines: 10 kg/min

188
Q

Alternative Flight Planning procedures: if we want to reduce trip fuel how do we do?

A

we compare FMGC miles with OFP miles and:
-4kg/mile reduction
+5kg/mile addition

189
Q

Alternative Flight Planning procedures: reduced contingency fuel

A

SCF available:

CONT90 or 5 min (1500 holding Spd above destination aerodrome in STD conditions) whichever greater.

no SCF available:

3% trip fuel or 5’ whichever greater

in both cases we NEED FUEL ERA

190
Q

extra-fuel carriage penalty

A

3% of the extra fuel is burnt to carry itself every hour of flight

191
Q

ASC=?

A

Airport Suitability Check (LIDO OFP’s function)

192
Q

What do we need to commit?

A

Landing must be ASSURED

193
Q

Separate Runways: meaning?

A

2 runways are considered separate when the risk of a single event (such as an Aircraft accident) or wx deterioration won’t eliminate a safe landing option.

(See Dispatch with no alternate - Alternative Flight Planning Proc.)

194
Q

Stable approach definitions: Correct Vertical Flight Path

A

ILS: within 1 dot on GS
RNP APP: ¾ dot V/DEV bar
2d APP: 100ft
PAPI: 4 white or red (unless ≠ Angle or Cold Temperature).

195
Q

Stable approach definitions: Correct Lateral Flight Path

A

ILS: within 1 dot on LOC
RNP APP: XTK ≤ 0.3NM
Visual/Circling APP: within 30° of Final App Trk

196
Q

max duty hours 7 consecutive days

A

60

197
Q

max duty hrs in 14 consecutive days

A

110

198
Q

max duty hours in 28 days

A

190

199
Q

max total block hours in 28 days?

A

100

200
Q

change from a morning duty to evening duty and viceversa how is that called?

A

transition

201
Q

Landing perf calc dispatch: ALD

A

distance from 50ft above rwy to stop.

202
Q

Land Perf Calc: RLD dry=?

A

ALD dry x 1.67

203
Q

Land Perf Calc: RLD wet=?

A

ALD dry x 1.92

204
Q

Land Perf Calc: RLD Contamined=?

A

ALD contamined x 1.15

205
Q

Adequate aerodrome

A

on which the aircraft can be operated considering performance req and runway characteristics.

206
Q

Who has the responsibility for the obstacle clearance on the initial and intermediate approach? PILOT or ATC?

A

ATC.
Pilot is responsible during the Final approach segment

207
Q

When do we use early stabilised approach technique?

A

All 2D approaches (FPA)

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