Takeoff Flight Path Flashcards

1
Q

what are the climb requirements for the first segment of the takeoff

A
Min. climb gradient: - 0% twin, 0.5% quad 
Starts at: V2 at 35ft
Slats/flap config: Takeoff 
Engine rating: TOGA/FLEX
Speed reference: V2 
LDG gear: retracted 
Weight reference: weight at start of retraction 
Ground effect: Nil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the climb requirements for the second segment of the takeoff

A
Min. climb gradient: - 2.4% twin, 3.0% quad 
Starts at: gear fully up 
Slats/flap config: Takeoff 
Engine rating: TOGA/FLEX
Speed reference: V2 
LDG gear: retracted 
Weight reference: weight at point when gear fully up 
Ground effect: Nil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the climb requirements for the third segment of the takeoff

A

Min. climb gradient: - nil% twin, nil% quad
Starts at: acceleration height reached (400ft)
Slats/flap config: slat/flap retraction
Engine rating: TOGA/FLEX
Speed reference: acceleration from V2 to green dot
LDG gear: retracted
Weight reference: weight at start of acceleration
Ground effect: Nil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the climb requirements for the fourth segment of the takeoff

A
Min. climb gradient: - 1.2% twin, 1.7% quad 
Starts at: en-route config achieved 
Slats/flap config: clean
Engine rating: MCT
Speed reference: green dot 
LDG gear: retracted 
Weight reference: weight at end of acceleration
Ground effect: Nil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is minimum acceleration height and it’s requirements

A
  • no less than V2 speed until 400ft above runway
  • above 400ft, a climb gradient no less than:
    • 1.2% 2 engine
    • 1.7% 4 engine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is the minimum height to start a turn determined

A

half the wingspan above the runway TORA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the maximum bank angles in the takeoff

A

less than 200ft: 15 degrees (standard and specific approval)

200-400ft: 15 degrees standard and 20 degrees specific approval

above 400ft: 25 degrees standard and 30 degrees specific approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the gross flight path

A

the takeoff flight path actually flown by the aircraft “aka the mean flight path”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the net flight path

A

the gross takeoff flightpath minus a reduction:

  • 0.8% for 2 engine
  • 1.0% for 4 engine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the obstacle clearance condition for the net flight path

A

it must be not be below 35ft above any obstacles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the minimum climb gradient on the takeoff flightpath

A

2.4% or 35ft over obstacle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what obstacle clearance is required if the aircraft is turning above and below 15 degrees AoB

A

if more than 15 degrees AoB on takeoff flightpath:
- 50ft clearance

if less than 15 degrees AoB on takeoff flightpath:
- 35ft clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

with respect to TOD’s, climb gradients and MTOW, what happens when pressure altitude increases?

A
  • TOD’s increase
  • Climb gradients decrease
  • MTOW decreases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

with respect to TOD’s, climb gradients and MTOW, what happens when OAT increases?

A
  • TOD’s increase
  • Climb gradients decrease
  • MTOW decreases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how does an upward slope affect TOD’s and ASD

A
  • TOD’s increase

- ASD decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how does a downward slope affect TOD’s and ASD

A
  • TOD’s decrease

- ASD increases

17
Q

what defines a wet runway

A
  • water or equivalent up to 3mm deep on runway surface
18
Q

what defines a contaminated runway

A

more than 25% of the runway surface area having 3mm of:

  • standing water
  • slush
  • wet/dry snow
  • compacted snow
  • Ice
19
Q

what effects do hard and fluid contaminants have on performance?

A

they reduce friction forces, but fluid contaminants can cause precipitation drag and aquaplaning

20
Q

what is aquaplaning?

A
  • when a layer of water separates the tire from the runway
21
Q

What is a flexible takeoff, how does it work

A
  • a takeoff at reduced thrust
  • deliberately inputting a higher temp into FMS so less thrust is produced for the flexible takeoff
  • the temp that’s put into the FMS is “Tflex” and must be at least 75% of max t/o thrust for the ambient conditions.
22
Q

are flexible takeoffs allowed on all runways?

A
  • they’re allowed on wet runways but NOT contaminated ones
23
Q

What is a derated takeoff, how does it work

A
  • a takeoff thrust less than max takeoff thrust for a set of separate and independant takeoff limitations and performance data
24
Q

are derated takeoffs allowed on all runways?

A

yes