Take Home Test 3 Flashcards
What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct
patient care?
A) Emergency Ambulance Driver
B) Emergency Medical Responder
C) Emergency Medical Technician
D) Advanced EMT
C) Emergency Medical Technician
Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to
which of the following?
A) Emergency preparedness plan
B) Resource management
C) Trauma system
D) Central deployment
B) Resource management
Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process?
A) Assuring personal safety
B) Taking responsibility for the actions of one’s partner
C) Writing complete patient care reports
D) Critiquing performance of one’s partner
C) Writing complete patient care reports
You and your EMT partner are assigned to spend a day at the senior center where you are to inspect the rooms and common areas for fall hazards. Your partner is upset that he is not in the ambulance where the “action is.” He complains that “looking for loose rugs” is a waste of his time. What would be the best response to his complaints?
A) Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS.
B) It is good practice for the next emergency call.
C) It minimizes the number of 911 calls late at night
D) It makes the taxpayers happy
A) Injury prevention in the community is an important component of EMS.
Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the
effectiveness of an EMS system?
A) Total quality system
B) Quality improvement
C) System effectiveness management
D) Process Improvement Plan (PIP)
B) Quality improvement
You are on the scene of an “unknown medical” call. The patient is a 26-year-old, 250-pound male patient who suddenly becomes violently angry. Everything you say to the patient only makes him
angrier. Offended by your questions, he screams that he is going to “cut your tongue out” and hurries into the kitchen. What should you do?
A) Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance.
B) Tackle the patient before he can get a kitchen knife to stab you. C) Radio for police and relay to dispatch important scene information until they arrive.
D) Radio for police and then calmly walk out of the house, being sure to take all of your medical equipment.
A) Leave immediately to a safe area and then call for police assistance.
The term burnout is also known as a(n) ________ stress reaction.
A) cumulative B) acute C) delayed D) post-traumatic
A) cumulative
What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on
the job?
A) EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991
B) Ryan White CARE Act
C) Communicable Disease Notification Act
D) Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act
B) Ryan White CARE Act
Which of the following behaviors would demonstrate that an EMT understands reactions to death and dying?
A) Providing spiritual guidance to patients who express anger at God
B) Being firm with grieving family members and telling them they need to accept what has happened
C) Giving a dying patient hope that a cure can be found before the patient dies
D) Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members
D) Being tolerant of angry reactions by patients and family members
What is a positive, healthy way to help deal with stress?
A) Adding workload to a busy regular schedule
B) Caffeine to “get up and go”
C) Drinking alcohol to “unwind”
D) Regular physical exercise
D) Regular physical exercise
What is the likely impact of power stretchers on EMS?
A) There is no likely impact of power stretchers on EMS.
B) There will be an increase in the number of home health transfers.
C) Insurance reimbursement will increase for ambulance services.
D) There will be a decrease in the number of injuries among EMTs.
D) There will be a decrease in the number of injuries among EMTs.
Which of the following is part of the minimum data set developed by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) for purposes of data collection in conducting research?
A) Amount charged for ambulance services
B) Time of arrival at the patient’s location
C) Patient’s name
D) Patient’s insurance coverage
B) Time of arrival at the patient’s location
The transition from childhood to adulthood is known as which of the following?
A) Transitional B) Adolescence C) Young adult D) Early adulthood
B) Adolescence
The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift?
A) The object, your limitations, and communication
B) The object, patient injury, and communication
C) Environment, physical limitations, and communication
D) Equipment, patient injury, and communication
A) The object, your limitations, and communication
At the scene of a vehicle collision in which there are no apparent hazards, which of the following guidelines should be followed for establishing a danger zone?
A) The danger zone should be 150 feet in all directions.
B) The danger zone should be 15 feet in all directions.
C) The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions.
D) There is no need to establish a danger zone when there are no apparent hazards.
C) The danger zone should be 50 feet in all directions.
Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient?
A) You should not increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing.
B) You should increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device.
C) You should increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute.
D) Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to breathe, you should encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag.
B) You should increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device.
Normal maternal blood loss during delivery of an infant usually does not exceed how much?
A) 500 cc
B) 250 cc
C) 1,000 cc
D) 100 cc
A) 500 cc
Heat cramps occur due to loss of which of the following substances?
A) Magnesium B) Water and potassium C) Water D) Salt
D) Salt
Which of the following occurs when gases leave a damaged lung in a diving accident and enter the bloodstream?
A) Arterial blood gases
B) Arterial thrombosis
C) Arterial gas embolism
D) Hyperbaric arterial injury
C) Arterial gas embolism
Heat stroke is caused by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Failure of temperature regulation mechanisms
B) Heat-induced swelling of brain tissue
C) Extreme dilation of all the blood vessels
D) Blockage of blood flow to the brain
A) Failure of temperature regulation mechanisms
You have responded to a local pool for a drowning patient. Lifeguards have pulled the patient out of the pool prior to your arrival. You find a 22-year-old male patient unresponsive with agonal respirations and a weak carotid pulse. Bystanders state the patient was not using the diving board and was found in the shallow end. Why are cervical spine precautions necessary?
A) The patient may have hit his head on the side wall while swimming laps.
B) The patient may have suffered a cervical spine injury when pulled out of the water.
C) The patient may have been using the diving board after all and injured his cervical spine
D) The patient may have suffered a spinal injury by jumping in shallow water.
D) The patient may have suffered a spinal injury by jumping in shallow water.
Localized cold injury occurs due to vasoconstriction and:
A) loss of calcium.
B) ice crystal formation in the tissues.
C) blood clots.
D) chemical imbalance in the tissues.
B) ice crystal formation in the tissues.
Your patient is a 24-year-old man who smoked a cigarette dipped in formaldehyde and then went outside with no shoes on and walked in the snow for about an hour. He has deep local cold injuries to both feet. Which of the following should be included in your management of this patient?
A) Break blisters before wrapping both feet in sterile dressings.
B) Gradually rewarm both feet.
C) Keep the patient cool to avoid rewarming the feet too quickly. D) Massage the feet briskly.
B) Gradually rewarm both feet.
Which of the following best describes a localized cold injury with a clear line of demarcation of its limits?
A) Early frostnip
B) Deep frostnip
C) Late frostbite
D) Hypothermia
A) Early frostnip
For which of the following reasons are newborns, infants, and the elderly more readily affected by the heat than other age groups?
A) Inadequate salt intake
B) Faster metabolism
C) Increased body mass
D) Poor ability to regulate body temperature
D) Poor ability to regulate body temperature
A patient who is lying on cold ground is losing the most amount of heat by what mechanism?
A) Radiation B) Shivering C) Convection D) Conduction
D) Conduction
You respond to the scene of a local campground. Your patient is a 15-year-old female patient who was stung in the arm by a bee. The patient is anxious and hyperventilating at 28 times a minute.
The patient is alert and oriented to time, place, person, and event. Lung sounds are clear bilaterally. The left arm is swollen and the stinger is not present. Blood pressure is 118/72 and pulse is 110. The patient’s mother states the patient is allergic to bee stings and has an epinephrine auto-injector. She called 911 because she was afraid the patient would stop breathing. Which of the following is the best treatment plan?
A) Treat the patient for shock and transport.
B) Assist the patient in administering her epinephrine auto-injector.
C) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position.
D) Place a constricting band around the arm to minimize the spread of the venom
A) Treat the patient for shock and transport.
Reducing the pain of a marine animal sting can be accomplished by rinsing the affected area with which of the following?
A) Gasoline or kerosene
B) Sterile saline solution
C) Cold water
D) Vinegar
D) Vinegar
When the body is in water, how many times faster does it lose heat than when it is in still air?
A) 100 B) 25 C) 2 D) 10
B) 25
In a hypothermic patient the coldest blood is found in what part of the patient’s body?
A) Extremities B) Heart and lungs C) Head D) Intestines
A) Extremities
Applying an external source of heat to the patient’s body to rewarm him is called ________ rewarming.
A) peripheral B) active C) passive D) central
B) active
You arrive on the scene to find a scuba diver on board a boat slumped over in the captain’s chair with frothy blood in his mouth. The captain states that the diver was down no more than 15 feet
when he ascended rapidly and called for help. Which of the following is most likely?
A) Decompression sickness
B) Air embolism
C) The bends
D) Pneumothorax
B) Air embolism
You are on a stand-by at a local high school football game. One of the football players comes over to the ambulance and complains that his face feels numb and he has a burning sensation in his
fingers. You notice that the patient’s cheeks and fingers are bright red. How should you treat the patient?
A) Warm the affected areas with gentle rubbing.
B) Place the patient inside the ambulance and begin active rewarming measures.
C) Tell the patient that his condition is superficial and allow him to return to the game.
D) Allow the patient to warm up inside the ambulance by passive rewarming measures.
D) Allow the patient to warm up inside the ambulance by passive rewarming measures.
Rough handling of a patient with severe hypothermia may result in which of the following?
A) Rewarming shock
B) Seizures
C) Ventricular fibrillation
D) Heart attack
C) Ventricular fibrillation
Regarding drowning in adults, which of the following statements is true?
A) Colder water improves survival chances in saltwater drowning but not in freshwater drowning.
B) The colder the water, the better the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning.
C) Water temperature makes no difference in the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning.
D) The warmer the water, the better the chances of survival in saltwater drowning
B) The colder the water, the better the chances of survival in either saltwater or freshwater drowning.
Which of the following is caused by trapped nitrogen gas in the tissues due to a rapid ascent from a scuba dive?
A) Myocardial infarction
B) Arterial gas embolism
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Decompression sickness
D) Decompression sickness
Allowing a patient’s body temperature to increase by preventing further heat loss is referred to as which of the following?
A) Core rewarming
B) Active rewarming
C) Passive rewarming
D) Natural rewarming
C) Passive rewarming
Which of the following is often associated with water-related emergencies?
A) Cardiac arrest
B) Hypothermia
C) Alcohol use
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Which of the following increases a scuba diver’s risk of decompression sickness?
A) Flying within several hours after a dive
B) Diving on a full stomach
C) Taking cold or sinus medications before a dive
D) Breathing 100% oxygen before a dive
A) Flying within several hours after a dive
You respond to the scene of a 14-year-old patient found outside in a cold environment. He is unresponsive and hypothermic. Emergency Medical Responders have moved the patient inside
and secured the airway prior to your arrival. What is your next action?
A) Assess for signs of frostbite and treat immediately.
B) Passively rewarm the patient.
C) Vigorously rub the patient to increase the body temperature.
D) Actively rewarm the patient.
B) Passively rewarm the patient.
In a patient with extreme hypothermia who appears to be in cardiac arrest, you should assess the
pulse for how long?
A) 15 to 20 seconds
B) at least 10 seconds
C) 20 to 30 seconds
D) at least 60 seconds
D) at least 60 seconds
Which of the following describes the condition of having an abnormally high body temperature?
A) Perspiration
B) Hyperthermia
C) Heat exhaustion
D) Heat shock
B) Hyperthermia
In which of the following situations would a person lose heat by conduction?
A) Going outside without a coat during a cold but calm day
B) Breathing
C) Wearing wet clothing in windy weather
D) Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game
D) Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game
Which of the following types of snake is not a pit viper?
A) Coral snake
B) Copperhead
C) Rattlesnake
D) Water moccasin
A) Coral snake
Which of the following signs would you least expect to see in a patient suffering from severe
hypothermia?
A) Drowsiness
B) Numbness
C) Heavy shivering
D) Skin cool to the touch
C) Heavy shivering
Which of the following is not a classification of localized cold injury?
A) Frostbite
B) Frostnip
C) Hypothermia
D) All of the above
C) Hypothermia
Why is it important to keep patients at rest when they are hypothermic?
A) Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature.
B) Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and drop the blood pressure.
C) Because the blood is warmest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the warm blood and raise the core body temperature.
D) None of the above.
A) Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature.
During which stage of labor is the baby born?
A) Primary B) First C) Second D) Third
C) Second
You have delivered a newborn and wrapped the baby in a dry blanket. During your reassessment of the mother, you note continued moderate vaginal bleeding. Care for this bleeding may involve all of the following except:
A) elevating the mother’s feet.
B) having the mother squeeze her legs together to provide direct pressure.
C) applying firm pressure with a sanitary napkin over the vaginal opening.
D) massaging the uterus to control bleeding.
B) having the mother squeeze her legs together to provide direct pressure.
Which of the following is true concerning trauma in the pregnant woman?
A) The mother’s body will preferentially protect the life of the fetus over that of the mother.
B) She may lose up to 15 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
C) She may lose up to 35 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
D) The increase in blood volume during pregnancy makes shock an unlikely cause of death.
C) She may lose up to 35 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
Which of the following is the correct way to time the frequency of contractions in the pregnant
woman?
A) After counting the number of contractions in a 15-minute period, multiply by 4
B) From the beginning of a contraction to the end of the same contraction
C) From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next
D) From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next
D) From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next
The muscular organ in which a baby develops during pregnancy is called the:
A) fetal membrane. B) placenta. C) amniotic sac. D) uterus.
D) uterus.
Which of the following is an appropriate question to ask while evaluating a woman in labor?
A) Is this your first pregnancy?
B) When was the last time you were sexually active?
C) Do you know who the father is and his medical history?
D) None of the above
A) Is this your first pregnancy?
When clamping the umbilical cord, the clamp closest to the baby should be approximately
________ inch(es) from the infant’s body.
A) 12 B) 7 C) 3 D) 1
B) 7
Which of the following is true regarding a pregnant woman?
A) Her respirations usually remain the same during pregnancy.
B) Her blood pressure is usually higher during pregnancy.
C) Her pulse rate should be lower than normal.
D) Diabetes may be made worse during pregnancy.
D) Diabetes may be made worse during pregnancy.
If the baby’s umbilical cord is noted to be wrapped around his neck after the head is delivered, which of the following should be done?
A) Clamp the cord in two places, but do not cut it until the baby is delivered.
B) Transport emergently without further intervention.
C) Immediately cut the cord before delivering the baby.
D) Try to slip the cord over the baby’s head and shoulder
D) Try to slip the cord over the baby’s head and shoulder
What term is used to describe delivery of the fetus and placenta before the 20th week of pregnancy?
A) Eclampsia
B) Spontaneous abortion
C) Induced abortion
D) Stillbirth
B) Spontaneous abortion
You are assessing a 27-year-old female who is 9 months pregnant with her first child. She has been having contractions for the past 6 hours. As you are about to assist her to your cot, she asks you to
wait because she feels the need to use the bathroom. Which of the following is the best course of action?
A) Tell the patient she needs to be transported immediately and using the bathroom will have to wait until she arrives at the hospital.
B) Allow the patient to use the bathroom because it will make transport and delivery more comfortable.
C) Advise the patient that this could be a sign of a serious complication, have her lie on her left side, apply high-concentration oxygen, and transport immediately.
D) Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby’s head is visible
D) Advise the patient that this could be an indication that the baby is ready to be born and you need to check to see if the baby’s head is visible
Which of the following best describes the events that occur during the first stage of labor?
A) Rupture of the amniotic sac
B) Thinning and dilation of the cervix
C) Expulsion of the placenta
D) Expulsion of the fetus through the birth canal
B) Thinning and dilation of the cervix
You have been called for a 32-year-old female who is in active labor. During your assessment and interview, you note that she is 37 weeks along, this is her first child, and her contractions are 5
minutes apart. She also tells you that her pregnancy is considered “high risk.” Your first concern should be:
A) calling for a back-up unit.
B) preparing for the delivery.
C) getting to the hospital.
D) assembling your delivery kit
C) getting to the hospital.
If the baby’s head is delivered with the amniotic sac still intact, which of the following should be done first?
A) Leave the sac intact until the entire body is delivered.
B) Call medical control before taking action.
C) Use the scissors in the obstetrics kit to cut the sac away from the baby’s head.
D) Use your fingers to tear the sac away from the baby’s face.
D) Use your fingers to tear the sac away from the baby’s face.
Which of the following is not advisable following complete birth of the infant?
A) Keep the infant at the level of the mother’s vagina until the cord is clamped and cut.
B) Hold the infant by the ankles to allow the airway to drain.
C) Place the infant on his side with his head slightly lower than his body.
D) Dry the infant and wrap him in a blanket.
B) Hold the infant by the ankles to allow the airway to drain
What is the temporary organ of pregnancy, which functions to supply the developing fetus with oxygen and nutrients?
A) Uterus B) Cervix C) Amnion D) Placenta
D) Placenta
You are assessing a newborn patient 1 minute after delivery. You notice the patient has blue extremities with a pink trunk, a pulse of 120, and strong crying with good movement of all extremities. What is the newborn’s APGAR score?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
C) 9
You are assessing a pregnant woman whose chief complaint is vaginal bleeding. She is 8 months pregnant and has moderate, bright red bleeding with no abdominal pain. She says that her doctor was concerned about the location of the placenta. This condition is known as:
A) unstable placenta.
B) abruptio placentae.
C) placenta previa.
D) placenta disruption.
C) placenta previa.
Which of the following is true regarding ectopic pregnancies?
A) It usually occurs during the second trimester.
B) It may cause painless bright red bleeding.
C) The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.
D) The fertilized egg usually implants in the wall of the uterus
C) The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.
Seizures due to complications of pregnancy generally occur during which of the following time
periods?
A) In the first trimester
B) Before the mother even knows she is pregnant
C) In the second trimester
D) Late in pregnancy
D) Late in pregnancy
By which of the following means does the fetal blood pick up nourishment from the mother?
A) Diffusion
B) Direct circulation
C) Osmosis
D) Indirect circulation
A) Diffusion
Which of the following is of greatest concern for the EMT in the prehospital care of a woman with vaginal bleeding?
A) Finding out if the patient is currently sexually active
B) Preventing infection
C) Monitoring for hypovolemic shock
D) Obtaining a thorough gynecological history
C) Monitoring for hypovolemic shock
You are called for a woman who is about to deliver. During the labor process, your patient’s water breaks. She experiences a rush of amniotic fluid and an increase in uterine contractions. The
purpose of this amniotic fluid is to:
A) allow the fetus to float during development.
B) provide lubrication during the delivery of the baby.
C) help maintain a constant fetal body temperature.
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Which of the following is the highest priority for the EMT when delivering an infant with meconium-stained amniotic fluid?
A) Vigorously rubbing the infant’s back immediately upon delivery to stimulate breathing
B) Checking for fever
C) Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath
D) None of the above
C) Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath
Which of the following is not part of a basic obstetrics kit?
A) Umbilical cord clamps or hemostats
B) Packet of suture material
C) Surgical scissors
D) Baby blanket
B) Packet of suture material
Which of the following is indicated in the prehospital management of a prolapsed umbilical cord?
A) Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her hips.
B) Use your gloved hand to push the umbilical cord back up through the cervix.
C) Immediately clamp the cord in two places and cut it between the clamps.
D) Encourage the mother to push forcefully in order to speed delivery
A) Place the mother in a head-down position with pillows under her hips.
Which of the following is true of premature infants?
A) They are at risk for respiratory difficulty.
B) They can easily develop hypothermia.
C) They are more susceptible to infection.
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Which of the following should be done when the infant’s head has been delivered?
A) Suction the nose.
B) Check to see if the umbilical cord is around the neck.
C) Suction the mouth.
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Which of the following is true concerning prehospital delivery of twins?
A) The infants will probably be smaller than a single infant and special attention should be paid to keeping them warm.
B) This is a true emergency and cannot be managed outside the hospital setting without additional help.
C) There are always two placentas.
D) The umbilical cord of the first infant must not be cut until the second infant is born.
A) The infants will probably be smaller than a single infant and special attention should be paid to keeping them warm.
Before applying a nonrebreather mask, the EMT should take what action?
A) Connect the mask to a humidified oxygen source and wait for the patient’s heart rate to slow.
B) Make sure the oxygen supply has greater than 2,000 psi in the tank.
C) Inflate the reservoir bag and make sure the bag does not deflate during inspiration.
D) Insert a properly sized oropharyngeal airway
C) Inflate the reservoir bag and make sure the bag does not deflate during inspiration.
Venturi masks are designed to mix oxygen with:
A) inhaled air.
B) humidified air.
C) carbon monoxide.
D) nitrogen.
A) inhaled air.
Your patient is a 65-year-old male with a history of COPD. He is sitting up and complaining of a severe shortness of breath. You should:
A) insert a nasal airway and ventilate.
B) administer 4 lpm of oxygen via nasal cannula.
C) apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 lpm of oxygen.
D) suction the airway with a rigid suction catheter
C) apply a nonrebreather mask giving 15 lpm of oxygen.
Which of the following is acceptable for maintaining a seal between an oxygen cylinder and
regulator?
A) Pop-off valve
B) Grease plug
C) Medical grade adhesive tape
D) Gasket
D) Gasket
At which of the following points should you begin your scene size-up?
A) After exiting the ambulance, but before making patient contact
B) When you arrive on the scene, but before exiting the ambulance
C) When the patient or family member opens the door to the residence
D) As you approach the scene in the ambulance
D) As you approach the scene in the ambulance
Which of the following situations requires additional action by the EMT during scene size-up?
A) A bystander who is smoking a cigarette at the scene of an assault at a local park.
B) A news media helicopter hovering overhead at the scene of a vehicle collision.
C) The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence.
D) A vehicle collision involving a tractor-trailer that appears to be empty
C) The sound of a barking and growling dog upon approaching the door to a residence.
As you are assessing a 32-year-old asthmatic woman who has called EMS due to difficulty breathing, her husband enters the home through a back door and shouts, “Get your hands off her;
she doesn’t need your help. She needs to be taught a lesson about her smart mouth.” Which of the following is the best course of action?
A) Leave the scene and the patient, and then notify police.
B) Let the husband know that his behavior is inappropriate, and if it continues you will call for the police.
C) Attempt to remove the patient from the home and continue treatment en route to the hospital.
D) Continue assessment and respond that the patient is sick and needs medical attention.
A) Leave the scene and the patient, and then notify police.
Your patient, a 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger’s side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely
to have occurred?
A) The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.
B) The patient’s body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.
C) The patient took the up-and-over pathway, striking her head on the windshield.
D) The patient took the down-and-under pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities.
B) The patient’s body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.
Which of the following patients should not be transported in a stair chair?
A) Patient found lying in bed
B) Patient with difficulty breathing
C) Patient who is nauseated
D) Patient with a suspected spinal injury
D) Patient with a suspected spinal injury
Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true?
A) Position your feet close together.
B) Use your legs to lift.
C) Use your back to lift.
D) Twist your torso while lifting.
B) Use your legs to lift
Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers kneel, curl the patient to their chests, stand, and then
reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher?
A) Draw-sheet method
B) Power lift
C) Direct carry
D) Direct ground lift
D) Direct ground lift
Which of the following factors least needs to be considered before lifting any patient?
A) Communications
B) The weight of the patient
C) The distance to cover
D) Your physical limitations
C) The distance to cover
You are assessing a 12-year-old male patient who has been involved in a bicycle accident. This patient would be classified as being in which stage of life?
A) Junior school age
B) Middle school age
C) School age
D) Adolescence
C) School age
A 26-month-old toddler is reported to have fallen and lacerated his chin. His mother did not witness the fall. As you proceed through your assessment, your partner reports that she’s
concerned about his heart rate, which she measures as 64. She’s checked it twice. Your knowledge of normal vital signs for a patient this age suggests that his heart rate is:
A) too slow.
B) within normal range.
C) not reliable.
D) too fast
A) too slow.
At which of the following stages is toilet-training most likely to begin?
A) Infant B) Toddler C) Preschool age D) School age
B) Toddler
Which of the following is the term used to describe an infant’s reaction to his environment?
A) Temperament B) Attitude C) Bonding D) Personality
A) Temperament
Which of the following is not part of a medical radio report?
A) Estimated time of arrival
B) Address at which the patient was located
C) Patient’s response to medical care provided
D) Unit identification
B) Address at which the patient was located
Your elderly male patient tells you his name is Joe Smith. Which of the following is the best way to
address him?
A) Smitty B) Joe C) Sir D) Mr. Smith
D) Mr. Smith
You are en route to the hospital with a 22-year-old male patient who has suffered a very embarrassing injury to his genitalia. Which method of contacting the receiving facility will afford
the patient the most privacy?
A) Using the handheld radio
B) Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone
C) Using the ambulance radio but not using the patient’s name
D) Using the ambulance radio but not providing details of the injury
B) Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone
Which of the following is not an objective element of documented patient information?
A) Patient’s blood pressure
B) Patient’s complaint of nausea
C) Position in which the patient was found
D) Patient’s age
B) Patient’s complaint of nausea
Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever possible?
A) Wheeled ambulance stretcher
B) Basket stretcher
C) Scoop stretcher
D) Stair chair
D) Stair chair
The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift?
A) The object, patient injury, and communication
B) Environment, physical limitations, and communication
C) Equipment, patient injury, and communication
D) The object, your limitations, and communication
D) The object, your limitations, and communication
Which of the following best describes an urgent move?
A) Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot
B) Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt
C) Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board
D) Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher
C) Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board
You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the best position for transporting the patient?
A) Semi-Fowler position
B) Recovery position
C) Fowler position
D) Supine
B) Recovery position
