T2 Ch 3 Flashcards

1
Q

A genetically related abnormal drug response is called a/an:

a. drug allergy
b. idiosyncratic reaction
c. side effect
d. toxic reaction

A

b. idiosyncratic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A drug effect that is neither predictable nor dose related is called a:

a. therapeutic effect
b. toxic reaction
c. side effect
d. drug allergy

A

d. drug allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A dose-related reaction that produces undesirable effects caused by the action on nontarget organs is called:

a. side effect
b. therapeutic effect
c. toxic reaction
d. drug allergy

A

a. side effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of these categories of drugs would be absolutely contraindicated in a pregnant woman?

a. B
b. C
c. A
d. X

A

d. X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The greatest risk to the fetus from exposure to drugs occurs:

a. Before pregnancy status is known
b. During the third trimester
c. During the second trimester
d. Just before birth

A

a. Before pregnancy status is known

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An acute, life-threatening allergic reaction characterized by hypotension, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, and cardiac arrhythmias is what type of hypersensitivity?

a. Type II
b. Type IV
c. Type III
d. Type I

A

d. Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction is termed delayed-type hypersensitivity and is mediated by sensitized T-lymphocytes and macrophages?

a. Type II
b. Type IV
c. Type I
d. Type III

A

b. Type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Type __________ hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE antibodies.

a. Type II
b. Type III
c. Type I
d. Type IV

A

c. Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A dose of a drug that kills 50% of experimental animals is termed:

a. Minimally effective dose
b. ED50
c. Therapeutic index
d. LD50

A

d. LD50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
In an assessment of drug action for a certain therapeutic agent, results indicate that the ED50 is 3 mg/kg, and the LD50 is 300 mg/kg. What is the therapeutic index for this agent?
a. 100
b. 3
c. 300
d 0.01
A

a. 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True OR False

Drug allergy and a side effect are two examples of dose-related responses.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True OR False
Tetracycline, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and the benzodiazepines are safe to administer to a pregnant patient.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True OR False

The greater the therapeutic index is, the greater the toxicity will be.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The anatomy of what system contains long preganglionic nerves and short postganglionic nerves?

a. sensory afferent
b. somatic
c. parasympathetic autonomic
d. sympathetic autonomic

A

c. parasympathetic autonomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The neurotransmitter released from a preganglionic neuron in the sympathetic division of the ANS is:

a. epinephrine
b. acetylcholine
c. dopamine
d. norepinephrine

A

b. acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following substances will block the action of acetylcholine at the postganglionic endings in the PANS?

a. atropine
b. hexamethonium
c. acetic acid
d. curare

A

a. atropine

17
Q

When the SANS is stimulated, the adrenal __________ into the systemic circulation.

a. medulla releases primarily epinephrine
b. medulla releases primarily acetylcholine
c. cortex releases primarily acetylcholine
d. cortex releases primarily epinephrine

A

a. medulla releases primarily epinephrine

18
Q

Which of the following choices is true concerning the pharmacologic effects associated with cholinergic agents?

a. miosis
b. an increase in intraocular pressure
c. tachycardia and an increase in blood pressure and cardiac output
d. stasis of intestinal motility

A

a. miosis

19
Q

The acronym SLUD denotes adverse reactions associated with administration of __________ agents.

a. adrenergic
b. anticholinergic
c. antiadrenergic
d. cholinergic

A

d. cholinergic

20
Q

The S in SLUD stands for:

a. Salivation
b. Severe
c. Sympathetic
d. Secretion

A

a. Salivation

21
Q

The dental professional should be familiar with autonomic nervous system (ANS) drugs for all of the following reasons except one. Which one is the exception?

a. Some ANS drugs produce oral adverse effects such as xerostomia.
b. Vasoconstrictors added to local anesthetic agents are ANS agents.
c. ANS drugs are used to treat oral infections.
d. Drugs used to increase salivary flow are ANS drugs.
e. Members of other drugs have similar effects to ANS drugs.

A

c. ANS drugs are used to treat oral infections.

22
Q

The primary objective of drug therapy in the treatment of glaucoma is:

a. Inhibition of cholinesterase
b. Increasing the convexity of the lens
c. Dilation of the pupil
d. Reducing intraocular pressure
e. Dilation of the vessels of the eye

A

d. Reducing intraocular pressure

23
Q

Which drug would be best to treat xerostomia?

a. Pseudoephedrine
b. Pilocarpine
c. Propranolol
d. Atropine

A

b. Pilocarpine

24
Q

Which of the following adrenergic drugs is used to treat asthma?

a. Amphetamine
b. Clonidine
c. Albuterol
d. Isoproterenol

A

c. Albuterol

25
Q

Anitcholinergics:

a. Decrease esophageal and gastric motility
b. Accelerate gastric emptying
c. Do not have an effect on heart rate
d. Cause miosis

A

a. Decrease esophageal and gastric motility

26
Q

A drug with anticholinergic side effects might exhibit all of the following except:

a. Mydriasis
b. Constipation
c. Salivation
d. Tachycardia

A

c. Salivation

27
Q

Stimulation of alpha-receptors results in:

a. Increase in heart rate and force of contraction
b. Smooth-muscle excitation or contraction
c. Smooth muscle relaxation
d. Bronchoconstriction

A

b. Smooth-muscle excitation or contraction

28
Q

Which sympathomimetic agent is commonly used in dentistry?

a. Ephedrine
b. Levonordefrin
c. Dipivefrin
d. Terbutaline

A

b. Levonordefrin

29
Q

True OR False

The fight or flight response refers to activation of the parasympathetic nervous system in response to stress.

A

False

30
Q

True OR False

Salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation refer to toxic effects seen with adrenergic agents.

A

False