T1-Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

ACS is _____ or _____ of myocardial _____

A

Confirmation or suspicion
Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Unstable angina ______ symptoms without _____

A

Presence suggesting myocardial ischemia
ECG changes or elevated bio markers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

See ACS chart on safari

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Reduce risk of MI in male patients with coronary risk factors by administering 81-325mg of aspirin starting at age 45-50.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lowering BP in patients high risk for vascular events with _______ lowers risk of events by ____

A

ACE inhibitors
20-25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Criteria for metabolic syndrome:

A

Abdominal obesity
Triglycerides 150 or over
HDL <40 (men) <50 (women)
Fasting glucose 110 or higher
Hypertension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Primary and secondary prevention of CHD (coronary heart disease)

A

Smoking cessation
Treatment of dyslipidemia
Lower BP
Daily aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Stage 1 C-K-M syndrome (cardiovascular kidney metabolic)
Excess adipose tissue, abdominal obesity and impaired glucose tolerance

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Stage 2 CKMS
Metabolic risk factors and CKD
-HTN, metabolic syndrome, hypertriglyceridemia, T2DM, moderate to high-risk CKD (no metabolic etiology)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Stage 3 sub clinical CVD in CKM syndrome
Subclinical ASCVD, subclinical HF
-VERY high risk for CKD
-High risk for CVD

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Stage 4 clinical CVD in CKM syndrome
- CHD, HF, PAD, Stroke and Afib

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Signs of MI

A

Elevated BP (hypotension in posterior vessels)
Gallop, apical systolic murmur
Contributing or accompanying disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

______ murmurs are always abnormal
_____ murmurs can be normal.

A

Diastolic.
Systolic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Stable angina is _______ and _______

A

Predictable
Reproducible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F: troponin is not helpful in determining re-infarction because elevated levels can last weeks after the event.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If hs-Tn is not an option, what other labs could you use for MI diagnositcs?

A

CK-MB, Myoglobin, LDH (lactate dehydrogenase)
Not as sensitive for cardiac muscle specifically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When can CK-MB be used in relation to MIs?

A

If another cardiac event occurs during the few weeks after the first event and the troponin is still elevated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Slide 40 - look over

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Medications used for pharmacological stress tests

A

Adenosine, dipyridamole and dobutamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What criteria does a STEMI cause on an ECG?

A

ST segment elevation of 2mm for Men and 1.5 for women in V2 and V3
1mm in lead V1, V4-6, I, II, III, aVL and aVF
0.5mm for leads V3R, V4R and V7-9 (posterior)
New or presumed new LBB w/ CP and w/ elevated troops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F: New LBB w/out symp of ischemia is NOT considered MI.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ST segment depression, Symmetric T wave inversions and Q waves are ______

A

Increased risk for MI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What abnormalities can conceal ischemia on ECG?

A

Ventricular hypertrophy, afib, pacing artifacts, BBB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Anterior wall MI has ST elevations in _____ leads and is an occlusion of the ______

A

V1,2,3 and 4
LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Inferior MI is ST elevation in leads _____ and occlusion of ________

A

II, III and aVF
Right coronary, left circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ask about ______ prior to giving nitroglycerin. If used within past ______( or ______ for tadalafil) then nitro is contraindicated.

A

Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors
12hrs
36 for tadalafil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Medication post MI

A

ASA daily (75-162mg)
Clopidogrel 75mg if ASA contraindicated
BBlocker (metoprolol)
Consider ACE or ARB if pt also has DM, HTN, rLVEF, CKD.
Statin - need LDL <70-100

28
Q

Use a _____ if BBlocker is contraindicated for symptom relief

A

Calcium channel blocer (diltiazem or verapamil)

29
Q

What is isosorbide?

A

Long acting nitrate

30
Q

If CP is unrelieved _____ after taking nitro then go to ER

A

15mins

31
Q

You can repeat nitro every ____ mins, max is ____ doses in ____ mins.

A

5
3
15

32
Q

T/F: endocarditis prophylaxis is recommended for patients with MVP

A

False. No longer recommended.

33
Q

Www.mdcalc.com/duke-criteria-infective-endocarditis

A
34
Q

Buttaro chart for s/s of CHF

A
35
Q

What is the USPSTF rec for AAA screening?

A

One time screening for those over 65yo who smoke - abdominal ultrasound

36
Q

AAA >=5cm - _______
AAA 4-4.9 _____

A

Repair
Watch annually.

37
Q

What is Homan’s sign?

A

Associated with DVT.
Discomfort in the calf on forced dorsiflexion of the foot with knee straight.

38
Q

R ventricular hypertrophy, ischemic heart disease, PE, atrial septal defect, rheumatic heart disease, myocarditis, cardiomyopathy and Brugada (long QT) are all associated with ______ bundle branch block

A

RBBB

39
Q

Ischemia, MI, aortic stenosis or regurg, dilated cardiomyopathy and Lyme disease are associated with ______ bundle branch block.

A

LBBB

40
Q

Non-pharmacological management of arrhythmias
Tachy?

A

Identify possible toxin or trigger and eliminate
Ensure adequate hydration, oxygenation and electrolyte balance
Reduce stress
Tachy: caffeine, tobacco, alcohol, stimulants,

41
Q

4 treatment components of A-fib

A
  1. Anticoagulant
  2. Rate control
  3. Rhythm control
  4. Ribs factor modification (OSA, obesity, HTN, DM, alcohol and physical inactivity)
42
Q

Afib anticoagulation pharmacological management

A

Factor Xa inhibitor - rivaroxaban, Endo a ban and Apixaban
Warfarin

43
Q

What HR is the target for “lenient” control for Afib? Strict? Which is better?

A

<110
60-75
Lenient was noninferior to strict.

44
Q

Best meds for Afib rate control?

A

Betablockers and nondihydropyridine CCBs are drug of choice for rate control alone.

45
Q

CCB should be avoided in patients with EF <______ and use _____ and ______ instead.

A

40%
BB and digoxin instead.

46
Q

1st line diagnostic tool for CS (Carotid stenosis = >60% occlusion)

A

Duplex US.

47
Q

Amaurosis Fugax (transient Ipsilateral blindness) or Hollenhorst plaques seen on retinal exam are signs of?

A

Carotid stenosis.

48
Q

Goal for general statin therapy vs aggressive statin therapy with Carotid stenosis?

A

General = LDL <100
Aggressive = LDL <70

49
Q

Goal for HTN
If renal insufficiency or HF?

A

<140/90
<130/80

50
Q

Goal for triglycerides?

A

<200

51
Q

For a patient with chest pain, ask these questions:
What brings it on? What were you doing when it happens? (Exertion, meals, cold, stress)
What does it feel like? (Pressure, squeeze, burning, stabbing
Radiates? (Jaw, arm, wrist, neck, shoulders, back)
Relief? (Nitro, rest, food?)
Severity (1-10)
Timing (activity, bedtime, meals)
Duration (how long does it last)
Associated symptoms. (SOB, SOB sleeping (how many pillows), sweating, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fatigue)

A
52
Q

Daily dose of high intensity statin therapy (eg____________) has an expected LDL-C lowering rate of ________.
Daily dose of mod-intensity statin therapy (eg _______________) has an expected LDL-c lowering rate of _____
Daily dose low-intensity statin therapy (eg __________) has expected LDL-c lowering rate of _______

A

Atorvastatin 40-80mg/rosuvastatin 20-40mg/. >50%
Atorvastatin 10-20/Rosuv 5-10/simvastatin 20-40/pravastatin 40-80/Lovastatin 40/Fluvastatin 40bid/ 30-50%
Simvastatin 10/pravastatin 10-20/lovastatin 20/. Up to 30%

53
Q

Explain the New York Heart Association Heart Failure functional classification (I-IV)

A

I = No limitations, ordinary physical activity
II = Slight limitations
III = Marked physical activity limitation (comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity leads to fatigue)
IV = inability for any activity without discomfort - symptoms present at rest

54
Q

ACC/AHA Heart Failure Stages

A

A - at risk, no structural abnormalities
B - Structural heart disease but no s/s
C - Symptomatic HF
D - advanced disease with marked HF s/s at rest WITH maximal medical therapy

55
Q

Treating a patient who is stage A (ACC/AHA) - manage HTN w/ ACE or ARB (<130mmHg), tx lipid disorders.

A
56
Q

Tx for ACC/AHA stage B HF

A

ACE (or ARB if ACE not tolerated), B blockers.

57
Q

Tx for patient stage C HF

A

Daily weights, Na restriction, diuretic, ACE, ARB or ARNI, Bblocer and aldosterone agonist.
Digoxin, hydralazine and nitrates PRN,
ICDs or pacemakers,

58
Q

These 4 groups of people should be treated with mod or high intensity statin

A

Clinical ASCVD risk
LDL-C level of 190 or higher
DM 40-75 with LDL-c 70-189
40-75yo with estimated 10-year risk of ASCVD 7.5% or higher

59
Q

We want HDL-C levels above _____

A

60

60
Q

When would you hear a “splitting of S1 or S2/

A

Usually in setting of a BBB or ASD

61
Q

Physiological S3 is normally heard in this patient population and results from:

A

Children, young adults, pregnant patients
Rapid Early Ventricular Filling.
Low pitch

62
Q

Pathological S3 or “Ventricular Gallup” is heart with decreased myocardial contractility, HF, volume overload and mitral or tricuspid regurg. Very soft and difficult to hear. Right after S2.

A
63
Q

Possible causes of S4 - due to increased resistance to filling of the ventricle.
HTN, CVD, aortic stenosis, pulmonic stenosis or pulmonary HTN. Right before S1

A
64
Q

A crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur is associated with ________

A

Pulmonic stenosis.

65
Q

Pansystolic, high-pitched, blowing murmur associated with _________

A

Mitral regurg

66
Q

Systolic murmurs associated with :

A

Aortic/pulmonic stenosis, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, mitral/tricuspid regurg and mitral valve prolapse

67
Q

Diastolic murmurs associated with :

A

Mitral/tricuspid stenosis, aortic/pulmonic insufficiency/regurg, ventricular/atrial septal defect.