T-6 By the Numbers (2) Flashcards

1
Q

Max ITT for start

A

1000* C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Time for ITT to start rising after fuel flow indication during start

A

10 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Altitude/Airspeed parameters for ejection seat

A

0/0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Minimum speed to maintain while maneuvering to intercept ELP

A

120 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

N1 with engine flameout (speeds below 8% not included)

A

0% within 5 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Engine out glide speed

A

125 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Duration of Emergency O2

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Consider rapid descent above this altitude if using emergency O2 to prevent depletion

A

20,000 MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Glide rotates N1 below 8% (indicate 0%) if engine flamed out (oil px = 0 psi)

A

125 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Airstart not recommended below

A

2,000’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Airstarts are demonstrated below

A

20,000’ MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Altitude lost during airstart procedure (at 125 KIAS glide)

A

1,200’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Time to complete airstart sequence

A

40 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Airstart envelope (at or below 15,000’ MSL)

A

125-200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Airstart envelope (above 15,000’ MSL)

A

135-200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Time for prop to unfeather after N1 reaches ~45%

A

15-20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PCL to IDLE for PMU off airstart (look for ITT rise w/in 10 seconds or abort)

A

13% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Initial fuel flow during airstart

A

75-80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Amp reading after airstart

A

> 30 amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Time for starter to drain battery if generator is not reset

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Time for prop to come out of feather after PROP SYS CB is pulled

A

15-20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Minimum altitude uncontrolled ejection

A

6000 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Indications of a steady state spin

A

120-135 KIAS and AOA 18+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Time standby attitude indicator will provide accurate info after loss of power

A

9 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Time AUX battery provides STBY instruments/lighting, FIRE 1 and standby UHF

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Torque max with CHIP or OIL PX lights illuminated

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Normal sustained oil pressure limits

A

90-120 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Time battery will last with but tie open

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Generator is considered inoperative

A

25 volts and ammeter discharging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Reading if battery bus fails

A

0 volts and 0 amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Engine fuel pressure below causes boost pump to automatically engage

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Max engine time with high pressure fuel pump suction feeding

A

10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Auto fuel balancing keeps fuel balance within

A

20 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Fuel imbalance for two minutes triggers FUEL BAL light (fault in auto system)

A

30 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Level of fuel that triggers L OR R FUEL LO anucnicator

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

EHYD PX LO light illuminates below

A

2400+/-150 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

HYDR FL LO light illuminates below

A

1 qt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pressure hydraulic system functions at a reduced capacity and speed

A

1800 - 2880 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Hydraulic pressure within green arc

A

2880-3120 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Minimum altitude for controllability check

A

6,000’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Minimum speed during controllability check (or stick shaker or max deflection)

A

90 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Add to minimum controllable speed on final with structural change

A

20 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Maximum allowable airspeed

A

316 KIAS/0.67 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Maximum torque for T/O

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Maximum torque transient for 20 seconds

A

131%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Maximum ITT for T/O

A

820* C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Maximum ITT idle

A

750* C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Max ITT for start (5 seconds)

A

1000* C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Max transient ITT (20 seconds)

A

870* C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Max N1

A

104%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Max Np, PMU off

A

100+/-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Emergency Max Np

A

110%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Normal Oil pressure range

A

90-120 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Max oil pressure during start

A

200 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Transient oil pressure range, aerobatics and spins only

A

40-130 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Minimum oil pressure at idle, aerobatics and spins only (5 seconds max)

A

15 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Normal oil temperature range

A

10* - 1-5*C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Min oil temperature for start

A

-40* C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Acceptable oil temperature, transient power, 10 minutes max

A

106-110* C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Normal hydraulic pressure

A

1800-3000 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Starter duty cycle

A

20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cooling period before second start attempt

A

30 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Cooling period before third start attempt

A

2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cooling period before fourth start attempt

A

5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cooling period before fifth start attempt

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Gear/flap extension limit

A

150 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Max turbulence penetration airspeed

A

195 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Symmetric Vo

A

227 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Asymmetric Vo 5 seconds (Intentional zero g limit)

A

177 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Symmetric, clean

A

+7.0 to -3.5 Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Symmetric, gear/flaps extended

A

+2.5 to 0 Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Asymmetric, clean

A

+4.9 to -1.0 Gs

73
Q

Asymmetric, gear/flaps extended

A

+2.0 to 0 Gs

74
Q

Spins prohibited

A

below 10,000’ MSL

75
Q

Spins prohibited

A

above 22,000’ MSL

76
Q

When do you check CG

A
  1. Rear pilot exceeds 260 lbs 2. Combined crew weight exceeds 500 lbs 3. Fuel exceeds 1100 lbs 4. Baggage compartment is used
77
Q

Max ramp weight

A

6550 lbs

78
Q

Max takeoff/landing weight

A

6500 lbs

79
Q

Max zero fuel weight

A

5500 lbs

80
Q

Max descent rate at touchdown

A

780 fpm

81
Q

Max crosswinds

A

25 knots

82
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff

A

10 knots

83
Q

Aerobatics prohibited

A
84
Q

Max fuel imbalance

A

50 lbs

85
Q

High pressure fuel pump only limit

A

10 hrs

86
Q

Ground ops temperature limits

A

-24C (-9.4F) to +43C(109.4F)

87
Q

Apply equipment cooling chart

A

35C (95F)

88
Q

Pressurization safety valve opens

A

4.0 +/- 0.1 psi

89
Q

Canopy wind limits

A

40 knots

90
Q

Min/Max Pilot weight (Nude) for ejection seat

A

103-245 lbs

91
Q

Min/Max Pilot weight (with equipment) for ejection seat

A

121 - 271 lbs

92
Q

Touchdowns in landing configuration have been accomplished up to this

A

110 KIAS

93
Q

Touchdowns above this airspeed cause increased directional sensitivity and longer landing

A

100 KIAS

94
Q

In environmental systems or defog duct triggers the DUCT TEMP light

A

300* F

95
Q

Descend below with environmental system/pressurization failure

A

25,000 ft MSL

96
Q

Speed to attain with runaway trim

A

110-150 KIAS

97
Q

Stick pressure at approach speed with elevator trim failure at high speed cruise

A

10 lbs

98
Q

Stick pressure at approach speed with aileron trim failure at high speed cruise

A

5 lbs

99
Q

Stick pressure at approach speed with rudder trim failure at high speed cruise

A

20 lbs

100
Q

Max speed with canopy shattered/damaged/gone or CANOPY light on

A

150 KIAS

101
Q

CKPT PX light illuminates with this pressure differential

A

3.9+/- 0.1 psi

102
Q

Cabin alt triggers CKPT ALT annunciator

A

19,000 MSL

103
Q

Decompression above may trigger OBOGS light due to mode compensation

A

20,000’ MSL

104
Q

Recommended minimum ejection altitude (controlled)

A

2,000’ AGL

105
Q

Recommended minimum ejection altitude (uncontrolled)

A

6,000’ AGL

106
Q

Use MOR handle to deploy parachute & separate from seat in mountains

A

> 8,000’ AGL

107
Q

Speed range for controlled ejection

A

125-180 KIAS

108
Q

Ejection seat time to full chute (based on ISS BOTH, 271 lb pilot, 250 KIAS)

A

4.37 sec (Front)/4.00 sec (REAR)

109
Q

Min altitude/airspeed for successful ejection with up to a 10,000 fpm sink rate

A

0/0

110
Q

Min ejection altitude with 90 degree dive and 250 KIAS

A

850’ AGL

111
Q

Min ejection altitude inverted (level flight) with 250 KIAS

A

180’ AGL

112
Q

Additional terrain clearance to above numbers for each 1,000’ MSL of altitude

A

Add 1%

113
Q

Ejection seat chart not accurate above

A

8,000’ MSL

114
Q

Glide airspeed to high key

A

125 KIAS

115
Q

Min speed until intercepting final on ELP

A

120 KIAS

116
Q

Min speed on final during ELP

A

110 KIAS

117
Q

Ditch into the wind instead of parallel the swells

A

Above 25 knots

118
Q

Add this altitude to high, low, and base key with engine in idle due to no feathering

A

500 ft

119
Q

Max descent rate for 125 KIAS glide, 4-6% torque, clean

A

1350 fpm

120
Q

High key altitude

A

3,000’ AGL

121
Q

Low key altitude

A

1,500’ AGL

122
Q

Base key altitude

A

600-800’ AGL

123
Q

Torque to set for ELP, PEL, or to simulate zero thrust

A

4-6%

124
Q

Minimum fuel to burn down to for landing with gear malfunction

A

100 lbs

125
Q

Set PCL to fuel flow indication (expect 70-80 pph) for PMU off ground start

A

13% N1 minimum

126
Q

If no rise in ITT, place PCL off and abort start

A

10 seconds after fuel flow indications

127
Q

Approximate idle for PMU off ground start

A

67% N1

128
Q

Placing PCL in idle before _____ during manual start may cause engine damage/overtemp

A

60% N1

129
Q

FUEL PX light illuminates when _____

A
130
Q

OIL PX light illuminates when ______

A
131
Q

OBOGS TEMP light illuminates when _____

A

> 200* F

132
Q

At what fuel level triggers L/R FUEL LO indicator

A

110 lbs or 16 gallons (respective tank)

133
Q

MAINT FDR light illuminates when

A

Memory is 80% full

134
Q

At what do you utilize half lateral stick inputs or less performing sustained elevated G rolls

A

> 180 KIAS

135
Q

Best glide, clean airspeed

A

125 KIAS

136
Q

Sink rate at best glide, clean airspeed

A

1100-1300 fpm

137
Q

Best glide, gear down, flaps/speed brake up airspeed

A

105 KIAS

138
Q

Sink rate at best glide w/gear down airspeed

A

1500 fpm

139
Q

Zero thrust power setting

A

4-6% Torque

140
Q

Full right rudder and full right aileron may not prevent a left roll off at stall

A

> 60% Torque

141
Q

Altitude loss during six turn, steady-state spin

A

4,500 ft

142
Q

Nose high pitch attitude for best spin entry

A

15-20*

143
Q

Parameters per turn, a stabilized spin

A

2-3 seconds, 400’-500’, 120 KIAS, 18 AOA

144
Q

Aggravated spin parameters

A

70* nose down, 280*/second turn

145
Q

Altitude loss for spins

A

500’/turn, 1500’ to 200’ dive recovery

146
Q

Recommended turbulence/t-storm penetration airspeed

A

180 KIAS

147
Q

Windshear T/O

A

Vrot + (up to) 10

148
Q

Wind shear approach

A

Vapp + (up to) 10

149
Q

Approach/landing speed with ice accumulation on aircraft

A

Vapp + 10 (min)

150
Q

Windshear recovery

A

15* pitch/110 KIAS min/10.5 AOA max/PCL MAX

151
Q

Operations in visible moisture should be avoided

A

5* C/41* F (or below)

152
Q

Hydroplaning can occur

A
153
Q

MPH/1.15 =

A

KNOTS aka KIAS

154
Q

Nose tire hydroplane

A

> 85 knots

155
Q

Main tire hydroplane

A

> 115 knots

156
Q

Power-up of the digital instruments may shorten instrument service life

A
157
Q

Remove battery when temperature is below

A

-29* C (-20* F)

158
Q

(*C x 1.8) + 32 =

A

*F

159
Q

Standard day, sea level temperature

A

15* C (59* F)

160
Q

Standard day, sea level pressure

A

29.921

161
Q

Dry

A

23 RCR

162
Q

Wet

A

12 RCR

163
Q

Ice/Standing Water

A

5 RCR

164
Q

Maximum brake energy absorption capability

A

3.96 million ft-lbs

165
Q

Max abort speed reaction time

A

6 seconds (3 sec decision/3 sec application)

166
Q

Airspeed increase during 6 second reaction at max abort speed

A

20 knots

167
Q

Max crosswind

A

25 knots

168
Q

Max crosswind, wet

A

10 knots

169
Q

Max crosswind, ice

A

5 knots

170
Q

Takeoff speed in gusty wind

A

T/O speed + 50% of gust speed (max of 10)

171
Q

Charted performance climb speed

A

140 KIAS

172
Q

Climb above this altitude may not be possible except clean configurations, 250 KIAS

A

15,000’ MSL

173
Q

Penetration descent, idle power, clean

A

316 KIAS/0.67 Mach

174
Q

Rapid descent, idle power, speed brake extended

A

316 KIAS/0.67 Mach

175
Q

Enroute descent, power as required, clean

A

220 KIAS/4000 fpm

176
Q

Max range descent, power as required, clean

A

180 KIAS/1500 fpm descent

177
Q

Decreased range for each 10 knots of headwind, clean

A

5%

178
Q

Gusty wind landing

A

Vapp/LND + 50% of gust (max of 10)

179
Q

Charted landing distance glidepath

A

3*