T-6 By the Numbers (1) Flashcards

1
Q

Empty Weight

A

4900 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Max Takeoff Weight

A

6500 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Max Shaft Horsepower

A

1100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Oil Capacity

A

18.5 quarts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

OIL PX annunciator with PCL above idle

A

40 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

OIL PX annunciator with PCL at idle

A

15 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Turbine output shaft speed

A

30,000 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Prop operating speed

A

2,000 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ground mode at idle

A

60% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Flight mode at idle

A

67% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PMU managed minimum above 10K

A

80% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ignition and boost pump deactivated during auto start

A

50% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fuel pressure switch limit, turns on BP

A

10 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Manual Motor after aborted start/inverted flight limit

A

20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Normal Wing Tank capacity

A

530 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Collector tank capacity

A

40 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

SPR refueled full fuel load

A

1100 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Over Wing refueled full fuel load

A

1200 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(for 2 minutes) Imbalance where FUEL BAL annunciator illuminated

A

30 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Auto Fuel Balance

A

20 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Middle Fuel probe

A

445 (+/- 50) lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Inner Fuel probe

A

308 (+/- 50) lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Collector tank pressurized by transfer jet pumps

A

1 to 1.5 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

L or R FUEL LO annunciator illuminated

A

110 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Starter/Generator output

A

28 VDC (300 amp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Main battery output

A

24 VDC (40A HR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Aux Battery output

A

24 VDC (5A HR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Hydraulic Pressure

A

3,000 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hydraulic system total capacity

A

1.25 gal = 5 quarts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Hydraulic reservoir capacity

A

0.6 gal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Min Hydraulic pressure to operate NW steering, gear, flaps, speed brake

A

1800 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Fuel pressure supplied by engine driven low pressure fuel pump

A

40 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Fuel pressure supplied by engine driven high pressure fuel pump

A

400/700 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Max Hydraulic volume allowed past the hydraulic fuse

A

45 cubic inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hydraulic pressure relief valve opens

A

3250 to 3500 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

EHYD PX LO annunciator illuminates

A

2400 (+/- 150) psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

HYDR FL LO annunciator illuminates

A

1 qt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Normal Gear extension/retraction time

A

6 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Gear warning horn sounds if airspeed is below 120

A

87% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

NWS range

A

24*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Flap deflection in TO

A

23*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Flap deflection in LDG

A

50*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Speed brake deflection when deployed

A

70*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

TAD active with no weight on wheels

A

80 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Below this Mach is blanked on airspeed indicator

A

0.40 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Stall

A

18 AOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

On speed

A

10 to 11 AOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

On speed AOA

A

1.3 VSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Max Endurance

A

8.8 AOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Max Range

A

4.9 AOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Optimum approach speed decrease rate

A

1 knot/100 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Optimum max range AOA altitude

A

25,000’ MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pre-stall stick shaker

A

5-10 kts (15.5 units)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Ejection seat limits

A

0’/0 KIAS to 35,000’/370 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Automatic seat man separation

A

10,000’ to 18,000’ MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

ISS BOTH rear seat ejection delay

A

0.37 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Bleed air inflow prevented with A/C clutch engaged

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Automatically maintained until 18,000’ MSL (3.6+/- 0.1 paid)

A

8,000’ cockpit P/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

CKPT ALT annunciator illuminated

A

19,000’ cockpit P/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

CKPT PX annunciator illuminated

A

3.9+/-0.1 psid

61
Q

DUCT TEMP annunciator illuminated

A

300* F

62
Q

RMU cursor automatically reverts to UHF field

A

20 seconds

63
Q

UHF/VHF memory

A

20 frequencies

64
Q

NAV memory

A

10 frequencies

65
Q

ELT transmission limit (battery limited)

A

50 hours

66
Q

EADI declutters

A

> +30/-20 pitch or 65* roll

67
Q

Full EADI presentation reappears after unusual attitude

A
68
Q

NACWS display time limit after trigger is released

A

7 seconds

69
Q

NACWS landing mode

A

1.5 NM range

70
Q

NACWS vertical separation alert (enroute mode)

A

+/- 2700’

71
Q

NACWS vertical separation alert (landing mode)

A

+/- 500’

72
Q

NACWS rectangle with digits

A

less than or equal to +/- 300’

73
Q

NACWS upward/downward pointing triangle with digits

A

greater than +/- 400’ to 900’

74
Q

NACWS upward/downward pointing triangle with no digits

A

greater than +/- 1000’ to 2700’

75
Q

GPS self test indications

A

34.5 NM, 315 DTK, 130* bearing

76
Q

GPS user defined waypoints

A

250

77
Q

GPS stored flightplans

A

25

78
Q

Max waypoints per flight plan

A

30

79
Q

Flash prior to turn to next waypoint

A

20 seconds

80
Q

CDI full scale deflection, enroute mode

A

+/- 5 NM

81
Q

CDI full scale deflection, approach arm

A

+/- 1 NM

82
Q

CDI full scale deflection, approach active

A

+/- 0.3 NM

83
Q

Enroute to Approach arm

A

30 NM

84
Q

Approach to Active arm

A

2 NM

85
Q

FDR annunciator illuminates

A

80% full

86
Q

AUX BAT powers what?

A

Standby Instruments, Standby UHF, Standby Lighting, FIRE 1

87
Q

OBOGS TEMP annunciator illuminates

A

200* F

88
Q

NORMAL O2 concentration, sea level to 15,000’ MSL

A

25% - 75%

89
Q

NORMAL O2 concentration, 15,000’ to 31,000’ MSL

A

45% - 95%

90
Q

O2 concentration, MAX selected

A

95%

91
Q

OBOGS warm-up time (after engine start). BIT Length?

A

3 minutes

92
Q

OBOGS FAIL annunciator extinguishes during BIT test

A

less than or equal to 2 minutes

93
Q

Baggage compartment weight limit

A

80 lbs

94
Q

Icing inhibitor mix

A

0.5 pint to 50 gal fuel

95
Q

External Power Requirements

A

28 - 28.5 VDC/1000 - 1500 Amps

96
Q

Main gear tire pressure

A

185 +/- 5 psi

97
Q

Nose wheel tire pressure

A

120 +/- 5 psi

98
Q

4 on each wing, 9 on elevator

A

17 static wicks

99
Q

Sufficient battery voltage for start

A

23.5 VDC

100
Q

Minimum main gear strut extension

A

2.0 inches

101
Q

Minimum nose gear strut extension

A

2.5 inches

102
Q

Delay between ejections w/ISS in both

A

0.37 seconds

103
Q

LOW AOA (amber donut)

A

10.5 units

104
Q

HIGH AOA (green chevron)

A

18 units

105
Q

PMU FAIL/temperature limit for start

A

121 degrees C

106
Q

use HIGH IOAT START procedure

A

80 degrees C

107
Q

max ITT for auto start

A

130 degrees C

108
Q

Time for STARTER SWITCH MANUAL to cool IOAT or clear residual fuel

A

20 seconds

109
Q

Stay clear area from aircraft with engine running

A

3 feet

110
Q

Minimum IDLE on ground

A

60% N1

111
Q

Prohibited range of stabilized prop speed on the ground

A

62 - 80% Np

112
Q

Idle with PMU off during overspeed gov check

A

67% N1

113
Q

Np at approximately 30% torque during overspeed gov check

A

100%

114
Q

Np limit with PMU off during overspeed gov check

A

100+/-2%

115
Q

Max amps limit for T/O

A

+50 amps

116
Q

Setting to check engine instruments for T/O check

A

25-30% torque

117
Q

Degrees nose up for rotation

A

7-10

118
Q

Gusty wind T/O

A

1/2 gust factor (up to 10 knots)

119
Q

Pitch and speed for obstacle clearance climb

A

15 degrees NH and 140 KIAS

120
Q

Check OBOGS and defog

A

10,000 ft

121
Q

Increase in ITT w/defog on at any PCL setting

A

40* C

122
Q

ITT limit as controlled by PMU

A

820* C

123
Q

Required pressure differential above 18,000 ft MSL

A

3.6+/-0.1 psi

124
Q

Max fuel imbalance for pre-stall, spinning and aerobatic checks

A

50 lbs

125
Q

Power and descent rate desired for enroute descent

A

200-250 KIAS and 4,000 fpm (8,000-11,000 fpm acceptable with idle/speed brake)

126
Q

Holding speed

A

150 KIAS

127
Q

Penetration descent parameters

A

2000-4000 fpm and 200-250 KIAS

128
Q

Speed on instrument approach before configuring and during missed approach

A

150 KIAS

129
Q

Speed on instrument final w/gear and flaps T/O

A

110 KIAS

130
Q

Speed on outside downwind (clean)

A

200 KIAS

131
Q

Speed on initial (USAF/USN)

A

200 KIAS

132
Q

Min speed on downwind (USAF)

A

120 KIAS

133
Q

Min speed on final turn (USAF/USN)

A

110 KIAS

134
Q

Speed on final with flaps LDG (USAF/USN)

A

100 KIAS

135
Q

Speed on final with flaps T/O (USAF/USN)

A

105 KIAS

136
Q

Speed on final with no flaps (USAF/USN)

A

110 KIAS

137
Q

Gusty wind threshold and touchdown speeds

A

1/2 gust factor (up to 10 KIAS)

138
Q

Normal touchdown speed (depending on flap setting)

A

80-95 KIAS

139
Q

Braking above this airspeed, is to be done with great caution

A

80 KIAS

140
Q

Check oil WITHIN (min) after landing to be max hot

A

30 minutes

141
Q

Max time to apply power to pitot/AOA heating elements on ground

A

10 seconds

142
Q

Min volume of MIL 85470 ice inhibitor to be added to fuel (1/2 pint/50 gal)

A

0.1-0.15%

143
Q

Max slope approved for fueling

A

3 degrees

144
Q

Time limit for LH and RH single point refueling recheck valves to shut

A

10 seconds

145
Q

Ground power specifications required

A

28-28.5 VDC/1000 amps for 5 sec/500 amps for 2 min/300 amps continuous

146
Q

Main gear tire pressure

A

225+/-5 psi

147
Q

Nose gear pressure

A

120+/-5 psi

148
Q

Wind speed to consider hangaring aircraft

A

80 knots

149
Q

Max nose wheel deflection while towing

A

80 degrees