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A321Neo > Systems Study Questions > Flashcards

Systems Study Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What are the dimensions of the A321?

(Length, Wingspan, Height)

Aircraft General

A
  • Length = 146’
  • Wingspan = 117’ 5”
  • Height = 38’ 7”

Aircraft General

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2
Q

What is the minimum pavement width required for 180° turn?

Aircraft General

A

93’, recommended 99’

Aircraft General

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3
Q

What are the unpressurized areas of the A321?

Aircraft General

A
  • Radome
  • Nosegear Bay
  • Air Conditioning Comp (e.g. Packs)
  • Main Gear Bay
  • Tail cone

(5)

Aircraft General

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4
Q

Where is the VHF 2 antenna located?

Rea

Aircraft General

A

Rear lower fuselage

Aircraft General

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5
Q

Where are the GPS antennas located?

Aircraft General

A

Upper forward fuselage

Aircraft General

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6
Q

Where are the HF antennas located?

Aircraft General

A

Mid vertical stabalizer

Aircraft General

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7
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight for the A321?

Aircraft General

A

206,132 lbs

Aircraft General

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8
Q

What is the maximum landing weight of the A321?

Aircraft General

A

174,606 lbs

Aircraft General

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9
Q

How many cabin exits are there on the A321?

Doors

A

8

Doors

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10
Q

How does the opening of the passenger doors differ from the cabin emergency exits during slide deployment?

Doors

A

Passenger doors drive full open and do not hesitate in opening for slide inflation. Cabin emergency exits have intermediate opening to prevent passengers exiting during slide inflation - this can be manually overridden.

Doors

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11
Q

What happes to the cockpit door if electrical power is lost?

Doors

A

The door is unlocked but remains closed.

Doors

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12
Q

What would a strike light illuminated on the upper overhead panel indicate?

Doors

A

An illuminated light indicated there is a fault with the corresponding system.

Doors

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13
Q

The cockpit window handle must have what color band showing to indicate the window is locked shut.

Doors

A

Red

Doors

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14
Q

What does a WHITE slide indication on the ECAM DOORS page indicate?

Doors

A

The slide is armed.

Doors

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15
Q

Where is the slide located for the cabin emergency exits?

Doors

A

Below the floor.

Doors

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16
Q

Where is the manual slide deployment located for the passenger doors? Cabin emergency exits?

Doors

A
  • Passenger doors = floor right side
  • Cabin emergency exits = in the door jamb upper right side

Doors

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17
Q

What is the only cockpit light that will work when batteries are supplying electrical power?

Lights

A

FP Dome Light

Lights

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18
Q

How do you tell a NAV or STROBE light is reaching the end of its service life.

Lights

A

A blue LED will blink

Lights

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19
Q

Cabin signs will automatically illuminate at what cabin altitude.

Lights

A

11,300’ ±350’

Lights

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20
Q

What is the required Emergency equipment?

Equipment

A
  • R - Ropes
  • A - Axe
  • M - Masks
  • P PBE
  • A - AVSAX
  • G - Gloves
  • E - Extinguishers
  • F - Flashlights
  • V - Vests

Equipment

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21
Q

Where is the fire extinguisher located?

Equipment

A

Behind the FO - all the fire fighting equipment is by the FO.

Equipment

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22
Q

Where are the life jackets for the 3rd and 4th occupant located?

Equipment

A

Below their associated seats.

Equipment

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23
Q

Pressing a switch in is normally associated with turning the switch ____?

Equipment

A

On

Equipment

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24
Q

What do 2 dots on a pushbutton indicate?

Equipment

A

That portion of the switch is not used.

Equipment

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25
Q

Where is Circuit Breaker Panel 49VU located?

Equipment

A

Overhead Panel

Equipment

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26
Q

What does “=” throughout the PFD indicate?

(Green “=”)

Indicating & Recording

A

“Normal Law” limit or protection available.

Indicating & Recording

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27
Q

Can the flight crew manually start the DFDR?

Indicating & Recording

A

Yes, by pressing the GND CTL switch.

Normal procedure on the ground before the Before Start Checklist to ensure the checklist is recorded.

Indicating & Recording

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28
Q

Instead of airspeed, the BUSS uses ____. For altitude information, the BUSS uses altitude from ____.

Indicating & Recording

A
  • AOA
  • GPS

Indicating & Recording

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29
Q

Which DUs will automatically switch in the event of a failure?

Indicating & Recording

A
  • PFD → ND
  • E/WD → SD

(3 total screens switch)

Indicating & Recording

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30
Q

What on screen indication would you get if DMC 1 fails?

Indicating & Recording

A

Captain-side screen would indicate “invalid data”, the ECAM would flash on then off.

Indicating & Recording

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31
Q

How do the DMCs reconfigure if DMC1 fails? Does anything happen to the screens when DMC 1 fails? What does the crew need to do?

Indicating & Recording

A
  • DMC 2 automatically takes over to display information on the ECAM.
  • CA screens will shut off and the ECAM will “blink”
  • The crew needs to select EIS DMC to CAPT 3 to allow the CA’s screens to use DMC 3.

Indicating & Recording

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32
Q

What is the difference between level 1, 2, and 3 ECAM warinings/cautions?

Indicating & Recording

A
  • 3 has CRC (Continuous Repetative Chime)
  • 2 has SC (Single Chime)
  • 1 has no chime

Indicating & Recording

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33
Q

How would you identify a Primary Failure?

Indicating & Recording

A

A box around the item

(on the ECAM)

Indicating & Recording

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34
Q

How long does the Cabin Oxygen System supply oxygen for?

Oxygen

A

15 mins

Oxygen

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35
Q

The masks for the Cabin Oxygen System will automatically drop at what cabin altitude?

Oxygen

A

14,000’ (+250’, -750’)

(13,250’-14,250’)

Oxygen

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36
Q

How long does the PBE supply oxygen for?

Oxygen

A

15 mins

Oxygen

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37
Q

When does the Quick Don Mask automatically provide overpressure oxygen supply?

Oxygen

A

30,000’

Oxygen

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38
Q

The ENG generators supply ____ kVA of ____ power.

Electrical

A
  • 90 kVA
  • AC

Electrical

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39
Q

What is the generator priority?

Electrical

A
  1. GEN 1/2 (onside, offside)
  2. External Power
  3. APU

Technically, offside genis #4 as it will only pwr off-side busses last.

Electrical

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40
Q

How is the emergency generator powered?

Electrical

A

BLUE Hydraulic System

Electrical

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41
Q

Can the entire electrical network be powered by a single ENG generator?

Electrical

A

No, the GALLEY BUS is shed.

Technically it can, but it doesn’t due to auto shed.

Electrical

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42
Q

What is the difference between the Emergency Configuration and the Smoke Configuration?

Electrical

A

The Smoke Configuration is a configuration purposefully entered by the crew to identify the source of smoke. The fuel pumps are connected upstream of the GEN 1 line connector.

Electrical

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43
Q

What is the required voltage for the batteries prior to APU start.

Electrical

A

25.5V

Electrical

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44
Q

How do you recharge the batteries?

Electrical

A
  • Batt pushbuttons on, aircraft connected to EXT PWR, 20 mins.
  • Batt Pushbuttons off to display how much charge the batteries have.

Electrical

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45
Q

What does FAULT indicate on the EMER ELEC PWR Panel?

Electrical

A

The EMER GEN is not supplying power.

Electrical

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46
Q

What fuel pumps normally deliver fuel to the APU?

APU

A
  • Left tank pumps.
  • If pressure is insufficient or during start, the APU has its own fuel pump.

APU

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47
Q

What switches do you push to start the APU?

APU

A

MASTER, START

APU

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48
Q

After using bleed air you go to shut off the APU, does the APU shut down immediately?

APU

A

No, it undergoes a cooling period for 60-120 secs and teh shutdown process can be stopped by pressing MASTER.

APU

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49
Q

What switches do you press to shutdown the APU?

APU

A

After turning off the bleed air, press MASTER.

APU

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50
Q

When securing the aircraft, what must the aircrew do before turning off the batteries?

APU

A

Wait until the APU flap is fully closed before switching off the batteries.
(about 2 mins after APU AVAIL light goes out)

(FLAP OPEN indication on ECAM APU PAGE is removed)

APU

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51
Q

What stage air is the normal source for engine bleed air?

Pneumatic

A

IP (Intermediate Stage) air

Pneumatic

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52
Q

When would the BMC switch to HP air?

Pneumatic

A

When the BMC senses IP air is unable to provide 65 ±15 psi. Generally low engine power settings.

Pneumatic

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53
Q

What would a FAULT light on the overhead AIR COND panel indicate?

Pneumatic

A
  • Overheat
  • Overpressure
  • Leak
  • Incorrect valve position

Pneumatic

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54
Q

____ bleed has priority over ____ bleed air.

Pneumatic

A

APU, Engine

Pneumatic

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55
Q

Air conditioning valves are ____ operated, ____ controlled, and fail ____.

Air Conditioning

A
  • Pneumatically
  • Electrically
  • Closed

Air Conditioning

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56
Q

When will the packs automatically deliver NORM pressure?

Air Conditioning

A

When LO is selected and the ACSC determines the system is unable to meet the cooling demands requested.

Air Conditioning

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57
Q

When will the packs automatically deliever HI pressure?

Air Conditioning

A
  • Single Pack operation
  • APU is the source of bleed air

Air Conditioning

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58
Q

When do the cabin pressure controllers switch?

Pressurization

A
  • By cycling the MODE SEL switch to manual and back to auto
  • 70 secs after landing

Pressurization

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59
Q

How many motors are on the Outflow Valve?

Pressurization

A
  • 3 motors
    • 2 automatic AC faster motors
    • 1 manual DC slower motor

Pressurization

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60
Q

Seatbelt signs will automatically come on when cabin altitude reaches what value?

Pressurization

A

11,300’ ± 350’

Pressurization

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60
Q

Cabin altitude for the following:
- Cockpit masks Overpress
- Outflow Valve Closes
- Masks drop
- Cabin signs come on
- “__CAB PR__ EXCESS CAB ALT” ECAM Warning
- ADV (boxed)
- Normal

Pressurization

A
  • Cockpit masks Overpress - 30,000’
  • Outflow Valve Closes - 15,000’
  • Masks drop - 14,000 (-750’ +250’)…(13,250’-14,250’)
  • Cabin signs come on - 11,300’ (±350’)
  • “CAB PR EXCESS CAB ALT” ECAM Warning - 9,550’
  • ADV (boxed) - 8,800’
  • Normal - ≤ 8,000’

Pressurization

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61
Q

What are the 3 systems that are ventilated?

Ventilation

A
  • Battery
  • Lavatory/Galley
  • Avionics

Ventilation

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62
Q

When is the Avionics System in the open configuration on the ground?

Ventilation

A

When the skin temperature is above the threshold.

Ventilation

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63
Q

When is the Avionics System in the intermediate configuration in the air?

Ventilation

A

When the skin temperature is above the threshold.

Ventilation

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64
Q

What portion of the wing is heated with bleed air?

Ice & Rain Protection

A

3 outboard slats

Ice & Rain Protection

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65
Q

Wing anti-ice valves fail ____?

Ice & Rain Protection

A

Closed

Ice & Rain Protection

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66
Q

Engine Anti-ice valves fail ____?

Ice & Rain Protection

A

Open

Ice & Rain Protection

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67
Q

How do you perform the APU fire test on a cold dark airplane, what indications should you see?

Fire Protection

A
  • Batt 1 & 2 pushbuttons - On
  • Press the TEST button
  • APU FIRE push button and SQUIB/DISCHARGE switch should illuminate.

Fire Protection

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68
Q

What indications would you see for a successful APU and Engine Fire test with AC power

Fire Protection

A
  • APU
    • CRC
    • 4 lights
    • ECAM
  • ENG
    • CRC
    • 6 lights
    • ECAM

Fire Protection

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69
Q

What indication would you have for smoke detected in the avionics bay?

Fire Protection

A
  • SC
  • 5 lights
  • ECAM

Smoke in Avionics Bay

Fire Protection

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70
Q

What indication does the crew have to identify when a fire has gone out?

Fire Protection

A
  • The associated FIRE pushbutton will no longer be illuminated.
  • There is no way to tell if a cargo fire has gone out (HALON will trigger smoke detectors.)

Fire Protection

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71
Q

How many extinguishing bottles per engine? APU? Cargo?

Fire Protection

A
  • 2 per engine
  • 1 for APU
  • 2 shared for both cargo compartments

Fire Protection

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72
Q

How long does AGENT 1 take to discharge

Cargo Fire Extinguisher

Fire Protection

A

60 seconds

Fire Protection

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73
Q

On the Cargo Smoke Panel, when does the DISCH AGENT 2 light illuminate?

Cargo Fire Extinguisher

Fire Protection

A

60 mins after discharging AGENT 1

Fire Protection

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74
Q

How long does AGENT 2 take to discharge?

Cargo Fire Extinguisher

Fire Protection

A

140 mins

Fire Protection

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75
Q

How much total fire protection do we have?

Cargo Fire Extinguisher

Fire Protection

A

200 mins (60 mins from AGENT 1, 140 mins from AGENT 2)

Fire Protection

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76
Q

What hydraulic system are the ____ on?
- Normal Brakes
- Alternate Brakes
- Parking Brake
- NWS
- EMER GEN
- MLG

Hydraulics

A
  • Normal Brakes - GREEN
  • Alternate Brakes - YELLOW
  • Parking Brake - YELLOW
  • NWS - YELLOW
  • EMER GEN - BLUE
  • MLG - YELLOW

Hydraulics

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77
Q

What hydraulic systems contain electric pumps.

Hydraulics

A

BLUE and YELLOW

Hydraulics

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78
Q

When does the BLUE electric pump operate? YELLOW?

Hydraulics

A
  • BLUE - After engine start
  • YELLOW - When manually selected or for cargo door operations

Hydraulics

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79
Q

Hydraulic Pumps provide ____ psi except the RAT which provides ____ psi?

Hydraulics

A
  • Hyd pumps = 3,000 psi
  • RAT = 2,500 psi

Hydraulics

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80
Q

When will the PTU operate?

Hydraulics

A

When differential pressure of at least 500 psi witht the parking brake released.

PTU Operate

Hydraulics

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81
Q

What are the only 2 mechanically controlled flight surfaces?

Flight Controls

A
  1. Rudder
  2. Pitch Trim

Flight Controls

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82
Q

How many flight control computers are there?

Flight Controls

A

7

(3 SECs, 2 ELACs, and 2 FACs)
- FAC = Flight Augmentation Computer
- ELAC = Elevator Aileron Computer
- SEC = Spoiler Elevator Computer

Also:
- 2 FCDC - Flight Control Data Concentrator (collect info from ELAC, SEC and send to CFDS and EIS).

Flight Controls

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83
Q

In the event a sidestick malfunctions, how would a pilot takeover control and deactivate the other sidestick?

Flight Controls

A

Press and hold the sidestick priority button for 40 seconds.

(Control can be regained if the opposite side stick priority pushbutton is pressed.)

Flight Controls

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84
Q

Looking at the PFD, how would you be able to identify:
- Normal Law?
- Alternate Law?
- Direct Law?
- Mechanical Law?

Flight Controls

A
  • Normal Law - Green “=”
  • Alternate Law - Amber “x”
  • Direct Law - Amber “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”
  • Mechanical Law - Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”

Flight Controls

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85
Q

What happens in Alternate Law when the gear is extended.

Flight Controls

A

It goes into Direct Law.

Flight Controls

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86
Q

At what fuel value would a LO LVL indication be displayed?

Fuel

A

1,650 lbs in the associated wing.

Fuel

87
Q

How does fuel get from an ACT to the Center Tank?

Fuel

A

When the hi level sensor in the center tank has been dry for 10 mins, the FLSCU modulates valves and the ACT transfer pump to take fuel from the ACT to the center tank.

Fuel

88
Q

How does fuel get from the center tank to the wing tanks?

Fuel

A

After 550 lbs of fuel is burned from the wing tank, the XFR valve is opened to allow the jet pumps to suck fuel from the center tank into the wings.

Fuel

89
Q

How does fuel get from the Wing Tanks into the engine?

Fuel

A

2 fuel pumps per wing.

Fuel

90
Q

What are the 3 times the FD will automatically engage?

Auto Flight

A
  • FMGC power-up
  • TCAS event
  • Go Around

Auto Flight

91
Q

What does –FD2 indicate?

Auto Flight

A

FD 1 is off.

Auto Flight

92
Q

Managed guidance is achieved by ____ knobs, selected guidance is achieved by ____ knobs.

Auto Flight

A
  • Pushing
  • Pulling

Auto Flight

93
Q

Where is AP, FD, and A/THR engagement displayed?

Auto Flight

A

5th column of the FMA.

Auto Flight

94
Q

Which RMP works in the EMER ELEC configuration?

Communications

A

RMP 1

Communications

95
Q

How can you erase the CVR?

Communications

A

When the aircraft is on the ground and the parking brake is on, press the ERASE button for 2 seconds.

Communications

96
Q

The Landing Gear panel attains information from which LGCIU?

Landing Gear

A

LGCIU 1

Landing Gear

97
Q

The brake pressure gauge on the main console shows pressure for which system?

Landing Gear

A

Alternate Braking, Yellow System

Landing Gear

98
Q

Which statement below is correct regarding antenna location?

B

A

HF1 & HF 2 antennas are on vertical stab.

B

99
Q

In pitch alternate law, the flight mode changes to direct law when ____.

B

A

The landing gear is lowered.

B

100
Q

In the hydraulic system, the priority valves ____.

B

A

Cut-off hydralic power to heavy load user systems if hydraulic pressure in a system gets low.

B

101
Q

When the PTU is operating, solid green arrows to the left indicate ____.

B

A

The YELLOW system is powering the GREEN system.

B

102
Q

For full lift augmentation, each wing has ____ leading edge slat surfaces and ____ trailing edge flap surfaces.

B

A
  • 5
  • 2

B

103
Q

Is it possible to move hydralic fluid from GREEN to YELLOW or YELLOW to GREEN system?

B

A

No

B

104
Q

There is one ____ in each hydraulic system, which assists in maintaining a constant pressure during normal operation.

B

A

Accumulator

B

105
Q

Normally, DMC 2 supplies data to ____.

B

A
  • FO PFD & ND

B

106
Q

In case of loss of electrical power supply, the engine anti-ice valves:

B

A

Open

B

107
Q

A primary failure is the failure of ____.

B

A

a system or item that causes the loss of use of other systems or items of equipment that depend on it.

B

108
Q

The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by what means?

B

A

TRIM AIR valve

B

109
Q

The PACK FLOW selector is set to NORM and yet the ECAM display shows PACK FLOW to be HI. How is this possible?

B

A
  • Single Pack Operation
  • APU supplying bleed air

B

110
Q

The air conditioned supply of air is distributed into ____ independent, automatically controlled zones.

B

A

3

B

111
Q

The air conditioning system is controlled automatically by 2 ____.

B

A

Air Conditioning System Controllers

B

112
Q

Having manually set the LDG ELEV, the cabin altitude is:

B

A

Still controlled automatically through the outflow valve.

B

113
Q

The safety valves are:

B

A

Fully automatic and cannot be controlled manually.

B

114
Q

The ____ contolled trim air valves add hot pneumatic air to the conditioned air of the mixer unit..

B

A

Electronically

B

115
Q

The MODE SEL pb-sw in MAN mode allows you to use the MAN V/S CTL in order to:

B

A

Manually adjust the outflow valve.

B

116
Q

The avionics ventilation close-circuit configuration operates on the ground when the skin temperature is below the on-ground threshold, or when the thrust levers are set to take-off power or when the aircraft is in flight with the skin temperature below the in flight threshold.

B

A

True

B

117
Q

When landing elevation is set to auto, the landing elevation is sent to the controler from the:

B

A

FMGS

B

118
Q

Which RMP operates in EMER ELEC CONFIG?

B

A

1

B

119
Q

The PARK BRK system is supplied by:

B

A

The YELLOW hydraulic system or accumulator pressure, through the Parking Brake Control Valve.

B

120
Q

When the slide arming lever is in the ARMED position, opening the door from the outside disarms the door and escape slide.

B

A

True

B

121
Q

Hydraulic pressure to the landing gear is supplied up to:

B

A

260 kts

B

122
Q

On the ECAM WHEEL page, an amber arc appears on one wheel indication meaning the brake temperature is above:

B

A

300°

B

123
Q

The red arrow near the landing gear lever illuminates when?

B

A

The landing gear is not down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration.

B

124
Q

The flight crew’s portable oxygen system (smoke hood) is serviceable as long as the yellow indicator on the case is not broken. The hood should work satisfactorily for at least:

B

A

15 minutes

B

125
Q

If the cabin altitude goes above ____, the FASTEN SEAT BELT, EXIT and NO SMOKING signs come on, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING switches.

B

A

11,300’ (±350’) ft

B

126
Q

When in normal law during the flare, pitch inputs to the stick command:

B

A

Direct stick to elevator control

B

127
Q

After 3 APU starter motor duty cycles, the crew must wait:

B

A

60 minutes before attempting 3 more cycles

B

128
Q

In flight, if the flap WTBs (wing tip brakes) are on, the pilot cannot operate the flaps or slats.

B

A

False

B

129
Q

In ____ guidance the display window assosciated with that moide displays dashes, and the white dot next to the window illuminates.

B

A

Managed

B

130
Q

The engine and APU fire protection system includes:

B

A
  • 2 extinguisher bottes for each engine
  • 1 extinguisher bottle for the APU

B

131
Q

All flight control surfaces are ____ controlled and ____ actuated.

B

A
  • Electrically controlled
  • Hydraulically actuated

B

132
Q

By moving the MAN V/S CTR to the UP position:

B

A

The cabin altitude is raised by opening the Outflow Valve.

B

133
Q

Bank angle protection ____ provided in alternate control law.

B

A

Is not

B

134
Q

In normal law during landing, the THS is frozen at:

B

A

100 ft

B

135
Q

Fuel for the APU is normally available from the:

B

A

Left side tank pumps.

B

136
Q

Why are ALT and G/S on the smae line of the FMA but in different colors (magenta/blue)?

B

A

ALT and G/S are in armed mode, but ALT has a constraint.

B

137
Q

The blue LOC is an armed mode.

B

A

True

B

138
Q

According to this display (SPD on FMC is — with white dot)

B

A

Speed is managed by the FM.

B

139
Q

ATC cleared you to FL 150. What selections should you make to ensure the aircraft complies with the contraints?

B

A

Dial in the new cleared level FL150

B

140
Q

The FMS Landing System (FLS) allows the crew to fly non-precision approaches such as VOR, LOC, or RNAV that are stored in the Flight Managment (FM) with a glideslope and localizer type aid.

B

A

True

B

141
Q

During a LOC FMS Landing System (FLS) approach the FMA veritcal and lateral indication will be:

B

A

F-G/S and LOC

B

142
Q

In case of RMP 2 failure, VHF 2 is lost.

B

A

False

B

143
Q

If the battery voltages are below the minimum, how do you charge them?

B

A

Check that the BAT pushbuttons are on and switch the External Power on.

B

144
Q

What does the blue EXT PWR ON light mean?

B

A

External Power is supplying the aircraft’s electrical system.

B

145
Q

After IDG disconnection why do you get a GALLEY SHED indication on the SD?

B

A

It is a reminder that the main galley has been shed automatically due to a single engine driven generator condition.

B

146
Q

You want to open the cabin door. While lifting the control handle the white light comes on. What does this mean.

B

A

The slide is still armed.

B

147
Q

If the oxygen masks fail to deploy automatically they:

A

can be manually deployed by pressing the MASK MAN ON pb on the overhead panel.

148
Q

While carrying out the APU FIRE test on battery power only you see the indications of half the APU FIRE pb lit up and the SQUIB and FAULT lights lit; is this successful.

B

A

Yes

B

149
Q

According to the following indications; Amber ENG 1 LOOP B:

B

A

One fire detection loop for Engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for both engines is still available.

B

150
Q

The DISCH AGENT2 amber light comes on ____ after AGENT 1 is discharged.

B

A

60 minutes

B

151
Q

The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD. What does it mean?

B

A

A hydraulic device lockes the flaps in their present position.

B

152
Q

Give the scenario displayed at right (Spoiler 3s amber with left having up arrow) what will happen next?

B

A

The left SPLR 3 will be retracted by aerodynamic force, the right SPLR 3 will be inhibited to prevent asymmetry.

B

153
Q

According to the indications (4 green “=” on PFD) which flight control law is active?

B

A

Normal

B

154
Q

According to the indications (4 amber “x” on PFD, amber USE MAN PITCH TRIM) which flight control law is active?

B

A

Direct

B

155
Q

Given indications (4 green “=” on PFD, 25° AOB), without any side stick inputs:

B

A

The aircraft’s attitude will stay constant

B

156
Q

According to the indications (3° NU, 0° AOB, Airspeed on top of red band at 120 kts), if the side stick is held full back:

B

A

The High Angle of Attack protection will override the side stick input and pitch will be reduced to maintain 120 knots.

B

157
Q

The YELLOW hydraulic system may be powered by:

B

A
  • Engine 2 Hydraulic Pump
  • YELLOW Electric Pump
  • PTU
  • Hand pump for cargo door

B

158
Q

In normal law, what indicates bank angle limit

B

A

Green “=”

B

159
Q

What does an amber line across the last two digits of the fuel mean?

B

A

The fuel quantity indication is inaccurate.

B

160
Q

When will the FLSCU open the XFR valves to transfer fuel from the center tank to a wing tank.

B

A

When the engines have burned 550 lbs of wing tank fuel.

B

161
Q

The APU fuel system:

B

A

Obtains fuel from the left wing tank via the left side fuel pumps or, if needed, the APU fuel pump.

B

162
Q

During start up, when is the BLUE hydraulic system presurized?

B

A

Automatically after the first engine start.

B

163
Q

What activates the PTU and how does it work?

B

A

The PTU enables the GREEN and YELLOW systems to pressurize each other when the differential pressure is greater than 500 psi.

B

164
Q

The Engine Anti-Ice system:

B

A

is controlled manually by the pilot

B

165
Q

What does the green arrow at the bottom of the STATUS page at right indicate?

B

A

It means that there is more STATUS information to be seen.

B

166
Q

The upper Display Unit (DU) has failed. You want to see the DOOR/OXY page on the lower DU. How would you do this?

B

A

Pres and hold the DOOR key on the ECP.

B

167
Q

Both ECAM Display Units (DU) have failed, How would you get the ECAM E/WD page to appear on the CA’s ND?

B

A

Move the ECAM/ND XFR to CAPT.

B

168
Q

How can the NAV ILS 2 FAULT be restored from being an cancelled caution:

B

A

By pressing and holding the RCL key for more than 3 seconds.

B

169
Q

At what speed can the slats be safely retracted.

B

A

“S” Speed (191 kts in picture)

B

170
Q

What is the meaning of a cyan 9000 at top of altitude scale.

B

A

FCU Selected altitude

B

171
Q

What indicated aircraft track on heading tape?

B

A

Green diamond (156° in example)

B

172
Q

What does the NW STRG DISC memo (green) mean?

B

A

The NWS has been disconnected by the ground crew.

B

173
Q

How do you interpret LDG GEAR Panel red nose gear with (WHEEL page) 5 green triangles with 1 red triangle on left nose gear?

B

A

All gear are down and locked as detected by LGCIU 2.

One green triangle is enough to confirm that the gear is down and locked

B

174
Q

You have performed the L/G GRAVITY EXTENSION procedure; LDG GEAR panel has 3 green triangles, WHEEL page has 6 green triangles and 3 amber doors.

B

A

The gear is in the down and locked position

B

175
Q

When set to TA/RA, the TCAS system provides traffic and resolution advisories on

B

A

other aircraft with an active transponder only.

B

176
Q

You are performing a NAV ACCUR check. Does ACCUR HIGH satisfy you? (RNP 2.0, ANP 0.06NM)

B

A

Yes, raw data and FMGS position are the same or the difference is within acceptable limits.

B

177
Q

There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page; what do they represent?

B

A

Each triangle represents the gear position detected by one of the two LGCIUs.

B

178
Q

You have pulled down a passenger mask. What is its standard oxygen generator effective time of use once activated?

B

A

15 minutes

B

179
Q

With the oxygen crew supply switched off, which ECAM indication would you see?

B

A

Amber CKPT OXY

B

180
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for the A321

B

A

38 kts

B

181
Q

The cockpit’s fixed oxygen system

B

A

Two sub-systems; one that supplies oxygen to the Captain and 3rd occupant, and a separate one that supplies oxygen to the FO and 4th occupant.

B

182
Q

What is the maximum altitude to use the APU for air cond/press (dual pack)?

B

A

15,000 ft

B

183
Q

According to the indications (APU Bleed Air switch on, XBleed switch in AUTO, APU Bleed valve open, XBleed open, Eng Bleed valves closed) which source is providing the bleed air.

B

A

The engines are not running, the APU is supplying the bleed air.

B

184
Q

What is the simplest way to bring the APU back online (APU AVAIL light on pb and ECAM).

B

A

Turn the MASTER SW back on.

B

185
Q

According to the indications (APU Bleed Air switch OFF, XBleed switch in AUTO, APU Bleed valve closed, XBleed closed, Eng Bleed valves open, 0 psi on both) which source is providing the bleed air.

B

A

No bleed air is being supplied.

B

186
Q

According to the ECAM APU page (AVAIL, APU Bleed Valve open, 35 psi; APU gen 0%)

B

A

The APU is running and available. It is providing bleed air only.

B

187
Q

What does the white SLIDE indication mean on the ECAM DOOR/OXY page?

B

A

The slide is armed.

B

188
Q

An amber cargo door on the ECAM DOOR/OXY page means that it is inoperative.

B

A

False

B

189
Q

You are about to takeoff. You have not inserted a FLEX temperature. Can you still takeoff?

B

A

Yes, but only using the TO/GA detent.

B

190
Q

You are performing a takeoff with the thrust levers at the FLEX position. The A/THR is now active.

B

A

False

B

191
Q

You are at the start of descent and a green N1 arc is displayed showing the new thrust demand. When does this happen?

B

A

Whenever there is a power change with auto-thrust engaged.

B

192
Q

A few seconds after selecting reverse, the amber REV indication changes to green. What does this mean?

B

A

The reversers are now fully deployed.

B

193
Q

After ____ engine start cycles a ____ minute cooling period is required.

B

A
  • 3
  • 15

B

194
Q

The FADEC controls and monitors the ignition starting system according to:

B

A
  • The position of the ENG MODE Selector
  • The position of the ENG MASTER sw
  • The aircraft status (flight or ground)
  • (All of these)

B

195
Q

What is Alpha-Floor protection?

B

A

It is a function of the flight control laws to prevent the aircraft from stalling.

B

196
Q

The A321 principle aircraft dimensions are:

Wingspan, Length, Height

B

A
  • Wingspan: 117’ 5”
  • Length: 146’
  • Height: 38’ 7”

B

197
Q

The A321 has eight cabin doors; four passenger doors and 4 emergency doors. The emergency doors are used for:

B

A

Emergency exit use only.

B

198
Q

Turn Coordination is available up to what AOB in Normal mode.

A

A

Up to 67° AOB

A

199
Q
  • AOB Limits:
    • Normal Law
      • Full sidestick
      • No sidestick
    • High Speed protection
      • Full sidestick
      • No sidestick

A

A
  • Normal Mode
    • Full sidestick - 67°
    • No sidestick - returns 33°
  • High Speed protection
    • Full sidestick - returns to 45°
    • No sidestick - returns to 0°

A

200
Q

Is there Pitch Attitude protection in Alternate Law?

A

A

No

A

201
Q

What pressure causes HYD LO PR message?

A

A

1,450 psi

(FCOM mentions 1,750 with a note about 1,450; 1,450 answers question.)

A

202
Q

Windshield wiper speed limit

A

A

230 kts

A

203
Q
  • When do the following appear?
    • Red Cabin Altitude warning
    • Cabin Alt advisory?
      • How is the advisory displayed?
    • Cabin signs
    • Masks drop

A

A
  • Red Cabin Altitude warning - 9,550’
  • Cabin Alt advisory? - 8,800’
    • How is the advisory displayed? - Flashing Green
  • Cabin signs - 11,300’ ±350’
  • Masks drop - 14,000’ (+250’, -750’)

A

204
Q

If the Outflow Valve is in MAN MODE, will the DITCHING and RAM AIR pbs move the Outflow Valve?

A

A

No, they rely on the AC motors to move it.

A

205
Q

Will the ventilation system remain in Open configuration on takeoff.

A

A

No, it closes with thrust levers forward for FOD protection.

A

206
Q
  • What do the colors on FMA mean?
    • Green
    • White in 5th column

A

A
  • Green = Active
  • White (in 5th Column) = Active

A

207
Q

Which areas have extinguishing vs just detection.

A

A

If galley and lav grouped together, the Avionics compartment is only one with detection and not extinguishing.

A

208
Q

When does the FUEL USED on the ECAM reset to zero.

A

A

At first engine start.

A

209
Q

When do LO FUEL messages come on

A

A

< 1,650 lbs

A

210
Q

If see STS on ECAM after engine shutdown, what does that mean.

A

A

STATUS messages for maintenance

A

211
Q

How do you find the EMER CANC messages from previous flight

A

A

Press RCL for 3 seconds on preflight

SD Page - Bottom Left, “Cancelled Cautions”

A

212
Q

What do amber “=” mean on the airspeed tape?

A

A

VFENext

(Once below, can take next flaps)

A

213
Q

When do Auto-Brakes activate?

A

A

When spoilers deploy.

A

214
Q

What does a white “GRD” with triangle mean on the ECAM BLEED page

A

A

Aircraft is on the ground

A/C meets parameters for GND AIR, one of those is being on the ground

A

215
Q
  • When does A/THR arm on takeoff?
  • When does it activate?
  • What range does it operate?
    • 2EO?
    • 1EO?

A

A
  • Arms when THR LVR set to FLX or TOGA
  • Activates when THR LVR pulled to CL
  • Operates in flight:
    • 2EO - IDLE-CL
    • 1EO - IDLE-MCT

A

216
Q

Is it normal for the landing gear doors to turn amber on the ECAM WHEELS page during landing gear transit?

A

A

Yes

A

A321Neo (5 decks)

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