SYSTEMS Flashcards

1
Q

ELECTRICAL

If the amber BATTERY CHG annunciator illuminates in flight, what initial action does the checklist say to do?

A

Turn the battery switch OFF

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2
Q

ELECTRICAL

If the BATTERY CHG light does not extinguish in flight when the battery control switch is placed to OFF, what action should be taken?

A

Land at nearest suitable airport

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3
Q

ELECTRICAL

Why should the BATT switch be left on during use of external power?

A

To protect against voltage spikes

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4
Q

ELECTRICAL

How is the battery cooled?

A

How is the battery cooled?

Air-cooled through a thermostatically controlled valve installed at the air inlet tube adjacent to the battery drain.

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5
Q

ELECTRICAL

Where is the battery located?

A

In the right wing center section

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6
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is the rating for the battery?

A

24-volt, 34/36 ampere-hour

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7
Q

ELECTRICAL

What are 3 functions of the GEN CONTROL UNIT?

A
  • Links isolation bus with generator busses.
  • Acts as a fuse. Once failed, must be replaced.
  • Provides isolation of the GEN in the event of a GEN bus fault.
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8
Q

ELECTRICAL

What indication is provided to alert the operator that an external power plug is connected to the airplane?

A

An EXT PWR light

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9
Q

ELECTRICAL

To protect the battery from damage, the external power voltage must not go over what value for more than two minutes?

A

30 volts

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10
Q

ELECTRICAL

How much continuous current should the external power unit be capable of supplying?

A

300 amperes

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11
Q

ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS

Where is the external power connector located?

A

Under the right wing, outboard of the engine nacelle

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12
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is the minimum required battery voltage before using an external power unit?

A

20 volts

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13
Q

ELECTRICAL

GEN CONTROL UNIT

What are the 6 functions of the GEN CONTROL UNIT?

A

What are the 6 functions of the GEN CONTROL UNIT?

  • GEN paralleling
  • Line contactor relay control
  • Over Excitation Protection
  • Overvoltage protection
  • Reverse current sensing / control
  • Voltage regulation
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14
Q

ELECTRICAL

When a generator is off line, what indication is present?

A

An amber DC GEN light is on

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15
Q

SYSTEMS ELECTRICAL

When an engine is being started, in what position should its GEN switch be?

A

OFF

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16
Q

ELECTRICAL

How is a generator turned on?

A

Hold switch to RESET for 1 sec and release to ON

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17
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is the individual generator rating?

A

28-volt, 250-ampere

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18
Q

ELECTRICAL

Where are the generator switches located?

A

Under a gang bar on the pilot’s left subpanel

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19
Q

ELECTRICAL

Which items are on the Hot Batt Bus?

A

Which items are on the Hot Batt Bus?

  1. BATT Relay
  2. Clocks
  3. Ext entry / Threshold lights
  4. EXT PWR Sensing
  5. Firewall Shutoff Valves
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20
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is the rating of each inverter?

A

115-volt and 26-volt, 400 Hz

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21
Q

ELECTRICAL

Where is the INVERTER switch located?

A

On the pilot’s left subpanel

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22
Q

ELECTRICAL

How many inverters are there?

A

2

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23
Q

ELECTRICAL

After starting the right engine and turning the right generator on, what should the load meter reading decrease to before starting the left engine?

A

50% (.50 )

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24
Q

ELECTRICAL

To protect the battery from damage, the external power voltage must not go over what value for more than two minutes?

A

30 volts

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25
Q

FIRE DETECTION

What does a “L ENG FIRE” (ILLUM) light on the Master Caution Warning Panel indicate?

A

Fire in Left Engine Compartment

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26
Q

FUEL SYSTEM

Fuel is heated prior to entering the fuel control unit by:

A

Engine oil, through an oil-to-fuel heat exchanger

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27
Q

FUEL SYSTEM

When is cross-feed use authorized?

A

For single-engine operation

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28
Q

FUEL SYSTEM

Which of the following is not affected when the cross-feed switch is moved to the right or left?

A

auxiliary fuel transfer override function

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29
Q

FUEL SYSTEM

Which of the fuel pumps is electrically powered?

A

Standby boost pump

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30
Q

FUEL SYSTEM

The fuel panel check tests electrical continuity to which items?

A
  • Standby boost pumps
  • Cross-feed valve
  • Firewall Shutoff Valves
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31
Q

FUEL SYSTEM

Operation of the engine with the FUEL PRESS light illuminated is limited to:

A

10 hours - main engine fuel pump overhaul or replacement.

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32
Q

FUEL SYSTEM

Which limitations applies to operation with aviation gas?

A
  • Max FL200 with 1 standby pump inop
  • 150 hours between overhauls
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33
Q

FUEL

Name the 4 fuel pumps

A

Name the 4 fuel pumps

  1. Engine driven pump - accessory case prior to FCU.
  2. Engine driven boost pump
  3. Electric standby boost pump
  4. Transfer jet pump.
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34
Q

FUEL

Fuel System Description

A

Fuel System Description

  • Separate fuel system each engine
  • Main and Auxiliary system
  • Each system - 4 fuel pumps
  • Main - nacelle / 5 interconnected tanks
  • Fuel supplied to engine from nacelle tank
  • AUX - 1 tank located between nacelle / fuselage
  • Transfer pump transfers fuel from the AUX tank
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35
Q

FUEL SYSTEM

Which of the following is a function of the electric standby boost pump?

A
  • Primary boost pump failure
  • Aviation gas - > FL200
  • X-feed operation
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36
Q

GENERAL

What is the width of gear?

A

17’ 2”

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37
Q

GENERAL

What is the length from nose to tail

A

43’ 10”

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38
Q

GENERAL

Total Oil capacity?

A

14.2 gal

39
Q

GENERAL

Oil operating range?

A

Full - 4.0 Qts LOW

40
Q

GENERAL

What is the hight to top of tail?

A

14’ 10”

41
Q

GENERAL

What is the outside turning radius?

A

39’ 10”

42
Q

GENERAL

What is the length from wingtip to wingtip?

A

54’ 6”

43
Q

LIGHTING

What bus powers the air stair floodlight?

A

Hot battery bus

44
Q

LIGHTING

Where is the baggage-area light switch located?

A

Just inside and aft of the air stair doorframe

45
Q

LIGHTING

Where are the majority of cockpit lighting controls?

A

Overhead panel

46
Q

LIGHTING

Where are the ice lights mounted?

A

On the outside of the engine nacelles

47
Q

LIGHTING

What is the switch labeled MASTER PANEL LIGHTS used for?

A

To control power for all cockpit panel lights

48
Q

LIGHTING

Where are the recognition lights mounted?

A

On the vertical stabilizer

49
Q

LIGHTING

How are the threshold and aisle lights turned on?

A

Automatically, when the air-stair door is opened and the threshold switch turned on

50
Q

LIGHTS

Where is the baggage-area light switch located?

A

Just inside and aft of the air stair doorframe

51
Q

LIGHTS

Where are the majority of cockpit lighting controls?

A

Overhead panel

52
Q

LIMITATIONS

What are the starter limits?

A

40 seconds ON, 60 seconds OFF

40 seconds ON, 60 seconds OFF

40 seconds ON, 30 minutes OFF

53
Q

MASTER WARNING SYSTEM

How can the annunciator lights be tested?

A

With the PRESS TO TEST switch

54
Q

MASTER WARNING SYSTEM

When will a red annunciator light extinguish?

A

When the indicated fault is cleared

55
Q

MASTER WARNING SYSTEM

To illuminate the CAUT LGND OFF light on 200 models, what action must be taken?

A

Move the CAUTION switch to OFF

56
Q

MASTER WARNING SYSTEM

To extinguish a MASTER WARNING flasher, what action must be taken?

A

Depress either MASTER WARNING flasher

57
Q

MASTER WARNING SYSTEM

How are the MASTER CAUTION flashers dimmed?

A

Automatically relative to cockpit light intensity

58
Q

PNEUMATIC

Name the items on the Vacuum / Pneumatic system:

A

Name the 8 items on the Vacuum / Pneumatic system:

  1. Deice Boots
  2. Bleed Air Warning
  3. Hobbs Meter
  4. Brake Deice
  5. LDG Gear Hyd Res
  6. Pressurization Controller
  7. Door Seal
  8. Outflow and Safety Valves
59
Q

POWERPLANT

During a ground start of the right engine, the IGNITION ON light should illuminate:

A

When the start switch is moved to the IGNITION and ENGINE START position.

60
Q

POWERPLANT

After lift-off, if an auto-feather is initiated, the immediate requirement is to:

A

Continue and allow propeller to feather and stop.

61
Q

POWERPLANT

When the AUTO-IGNITION switch is in the ARM position, ignition is:

A

Inactive but armed if torque is > 400 foot-lbs.

62
Q

POWERPLANT

If a chip detector light illuminates, you must:

A

Check engine instruments

  • Normal - no action required
  • Otherwise shut the engine down
  • Land as soon as practical.
63
Q

POWERPLANT

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of Engine Torque Readout?

A

Power delivered to the propeller

64
Q

POWERPLANT

During ground operation at LO IDLE, you note that ITT is exceeding 750°C.

What should be done to reduce ITT?

A
  • Reduce accessory load or
  • Increase N1 rpm
65
Q

POWERPLANT

When using maximum reverse power at HI IDLE and full increase RPM, you would expect a maximum propeller rpm of:

A

1,900

66
Q

POWERPLANT

The PT6A engine power section consists of:

A

A two-stage reaction turbine.

67
Q

POWERPLANT

The function of the reduction gear system is to provide gear reduction:

A

For the propeller

68
Q

When does the rubber seal around the air stair door begin to inflate?

A

When weight is off the landing gear.

69
Q

What is the purpose of an inverter?

A
  • Convert DC power to AC power.
  • # 1 Inverter receives power from Left GEN Bus
  • # 2 Inverter receives power from Right GEN BUs.
  • Produce 115 V AC and 26 V AC power.
70
Q

What happens when the BATT switch is turned on?

A

Battery relay closes connecting the battery to the main battery bus and to the starter relay.

71
Q

When will the CHARGE annunciator illuminate?

A

A charge rate of greater than 7 amps for 6 seconds.

72
Q

Line Contactor Relay Control

A
  • When gen output is acceptable for system use, GCU closes the relay allowing GEN to power the elect sys.
  • GCU also monitors operation of the GEN and opens the line contactor relay if a fault should occur requiring isolation of the GEN from the ELEC SYS.
73
Q

VOLTAGE REGULATION

A
  • GCU monitors GEN output voltage and controls shunt field excitation in the GEN to maintain constant voltage.
  • Maintains GEN output at 28.25 +/- .25v.
74
Q

GENERATOR PARALLELING

A
  • GCU has built in circuitry to maintain the GEN elec loads to within 10% of each other.
75
Q

OVER EXCITATION PROTECTION

A
  • If starter-GEn fault is such that voltage increases without control but does not go in to overvoltage, over excitation protection is activated.
  • If a failure creates excessive field excitation, the affected or faulty GEN will attempt to carry aircraft’s entire elec load. The affected GEN is isolated from the sys.
76
Q

What is the purpose of the Current Limiters?

A
  • Link isolation bus with the GEN busses.
77
Q

What is located on the RH GEN Bus

A
  • Landing gear motor
  • Copilot’s Windshield Heat
  • Aft Blower
  • AFT Elec Heat
  • Air Conditioner Clutch
  • Vent Blower
  • Toilet
  • Inverter (Cabin Outlets)
  • Avionics Bus #2
  • Inverter Control #2
  • Inverter #2
  • DC Test Jack
78
Q

What is located on the LH GEN Bus

A
  • Pilot’s Windshield Heat
  • Condensor Blower
  • FWD Elec Heat
  • Avionics Bus #1
  • Avionics Bus #3
  • Inverter #1
79
Q

How is the nacelle tank fed?

A
  • Gravity feed from the interconnected tanks in the wing.
  • Jet transfer pump from the AUX tank.
80
Q

How are the fuel tanks vented?

A

Through a recessed ram vent that is coupled to a protruding heated ram vent on the underside of the wing.

81
Q

What is the function of the engine driven pump?

A
  • Increases the fuel pressure producing an adequate spray pattern from the fuel nozzles into the combustion chamber.
  • Must be operative for the engine to operate.
82
Q

What is the function of the engine driven boost pump?

A
  • Delivers low pressure (25-30 psi) fuel to the engine fuel pump to prevent cavitation.
  • Operates when the gas generator (N1) is turning and provides sufficient fuel for start, takeoff, all flight conditions (except Avgas
83
Q

What is the function of the Elec Driven STBY boost pump?

A
  • Backup in the event an engine driven boost pump failure.
  • Located in bottom of each nacelle tank
  • Used for all X-feed operations.
  • Used for Avgas
    *
84
Q

What is the function of the Jet Transfer pump?

A
  • Transfers fuel from the AUX tank to the nacelle tank.
  • Operates by venturi principle from motive flow.
  • Actuated by switch on the fuel control panel.
  • Switch placed in AUTO or manual AUX XFR OVERRIDE position.
85
Q

How many fuel drains are located in each wing?

A

6

86
Q

What items are on the accessory section?

A
  • Oil Scavenge pumps
  • Engine driven fuel pump
  • Engine driven boost pump
  • Starter generator
  • Air conditioner compressor
87
Q

What is the purpose of the Torque Limiter?

A
  • Limits torque.
  • Monitors torque of the reduction gear box
  • Bleeds off P air which changes pneumatic servo pressure in FCU to reduce metered fuel flow.
  • As metered fuel flow is reduced, the gas GEN speed reduces and thus reduces torque to preset limit of torque limiter.
  • Protects the nose gear box and reduction gears from excess torque.
    *
88
Q

Explain the primary governor

A
  • Control linkages operate the speeder spring to reposition the pilot vale to change prop RPM.
  • Normal governing range is 1600-2000 RPM.
  • Moving the prop lever into FEATHER will lift the pilot valve up.
  • Oil is drained from the prop hub allowing the prop feathering spring and counter weights to feather the prop.
89
Q

CONDITION LEVERS

A
  • 3 Positions
  • FUEL CUTOFF - fuel supply is stopped at FCU
  • LOW IDLE - N1 56%
  • HIGH IDLE - N1 70%. Provides more airflow through engine for better cooling, and more power for higher gen loads.
90
Q

TORQUE METERS

A

Indicate how many foot-pounds of torque are being applied tot he prop shaft.

Generated from a torquemeter oil pressure converted to an electrical signal by the torque transmitter.

91
Q

PROPELLER

A
  • Blade pitch angle - changed by allowing engine oil to press against a piston moving the blades from a high angle (feathered) to a low angle (flat.)
  • Primary governor controls the prop speed by using engine oil pressure to vary pitch of the prop blades.
  • Overspeed governor and fuel-topping governors back up the primary gov.
  • Fuel-topping governor - limits speed in reverse to a level preventing primary governor from becoming operational.
92
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is the primary load of the main BATT BUS?

A
  • Provides power to L/R GENS during start
  • Powers the ISOLATION BUS
93
Q

ELECTRICAL

What is the purpose of the isolation bus?

A
  • Serves as a connection between the L & R GEN BUSSES