Systems Flashcards
1
Q
Q1: What is the aircraft wingspan in feet with and without winglets?
A
156’ 1” without winglets = (47.57m)
166’ 11” with winglets = (50.88m)
2
Q
What height can APU electrical load be used to?
A
Up to the aircraft ceiling of 43,100ft
3
Q
What are the 3 types of messages displayed on the EICAS, and how are they coloured and formatted?
A
WARNINGS (Red) CAUTION (Amber) ADVISORY (Amber and indented)
4
Q
How are alerting messages arranged?
A
In order of occurrence, although WARNINGS will always be displayed at the top
5
Q
When are EICAS warnings inhibited?
A
At nose gear extension during rotation until the first of:
- 400ft AGL or,
- 20 seconds elapsed time
6
Q
If a fire occurs during the inhibit period, what indications will be present?
A
An EICAS warning message L/R ENGINE FIRE, the fuel control switch and engine fire switch will illuminate and the FIRE light
illuminate. The fire bell AND master WARNING lights do not activate until the end of the inhibit period
7
Q
When are EICAS Cautions inhibited?
A
The inhibit begins at 80kts and continues to the first of:
- 400ft AGL
- 20 seconds elapsed time following nose gear extension
8
Q
What is displayed on the lower EICAS when HYD QTY requires a refill?
A
RF appears in magenta
9
Q
What is the range of brake temperature units displayed on the lower EICAS?
A
0 to 9
10
Q
At what cabin altitude will the fasten seat belt signs illuminate automatically?
A
Anytime the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft
11
Q
Do the lights fitted to the nose wheel illuminate when the gear is not locked and down?
A
No, the nose gear landing lights and taxi lights do not illuminate when the gear is not down and locked
12
Q
What sides of the aircraft are the cargo doors located?
A
FWD Cargo = Right
AFT Cargo = Right
MAIN (BCF) = Left
Bulk = Left
13
Q
Is the oxygen indication on the lower EICAS display for crew oxygen or passenger oxygen?
A
Crew Oxygen. Individual chemical oxygen generators provide the passenger oxygen.
14
Q
At what cabin altitude will the oxygen masks automatically drop from their PSU’s?
A
If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000ft
15
Q
How is the ELT automatically transmitted?
A
If high deceleration sensed
16
Q
At what altitude will the IAS change to MACH (and vice versa) if the speed window is open on a climb or a descent?
A
In a climb IAS changes to MACH at approx. .80 MACH
In a descent, MACH changes to IAS at approx. 300kts
17
Q
At what height will LNAV engage if armed on take-off?
A
50ft
18
Q
Will LNAV maintain current heading or track when passing the last active waypoint / last waypoint prior to a route discontinuity?
A
Aircraft heading
19
Q
The bank limit selector works in which roll modes?
A
Heading Select only, and NOT in LNAV
20
Q
What are the 2 ways that Approach mode can be deselected after LOC capture and GS capture?
A
By selecting TOGA or by disengaging the autopilot and turning off BOTH F/D’s
21
Q
When will LAND 3 annunciate?
A
Below 1500ft radio altitude with LOC and GS captured
22
Q
In a go-around, the auto throttle will command a reference thrust to maintain a climb rate of?
A
At least 2000 fpm
23
Q
When does go-around arm, and is there any annunciation to the pilot?
A
GA arms whenever the flaps are out of up, or at glideslope capture. The only indication to the pilot is that G/A thrust will be
annunciated on the thrust setting
24
Q
When is ROLLOUT and FLARE armed?
A
Below 1500ft radio altitude
25
When does FLARE activate?
Activates at 50ft RA
26
When does ROLLOUT engage?
Below 5ft
27
When does runway alignment occur?
It is actuated at 500ft RA with LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated
28
If the APU fault light illuminates momentarily on APU start or shutdown, what does this indicate?
It indicates that the fuel valve is in transit to open or close. It is a normal indication
29
Up to what height is APU bleed air available?
Up to approx. 17,000ft
30
What fuel tank is APU fuel fed from? Is this an AC run pump or a DC run pump?
APU fuel is supplied from the left main tank. A dedicated DC pump is used if no AC power is available. When AC power is
available, the left forward AC pump is used, and the DC pump is commanded off
31
What is the starter duty cycle for the APU?
A Maximum of three consecutive starts or attempts within 60 minutes
32
If the APU is in the one-minute cooling period prior to shutdown, can you stop the shutdown?
Yes, by momentarily moving the APU selector to START will cancel the shutdown signal
33
How do you know if the APU has shut down automatically?
The EICAS advisory message APU FAULT will be displayed
34
What does the Pitch Limit Indicator indicate? When is it displayed?
It indicates the pitch limit at which stick shaker will activate for the existing flight conditions. It is displayed when the flaps are not
up, or at slow speeds with the flaps up
35
On the speed tape, what does the top of the thin amber bar indicate on the MINIMUM manoeuvring speed?
1. 3g manoeuver capability to stick shaker below 20,000ft
| 1. 3g manoeuver capability to low speed buffet above 20,000ft
36
Regarding the previous question, when will 1.3g occur?
1.3g-manoeuvre capability occurs at 40 degrees of bank in level flight
37
On the speed tape, what does the top of the amber bricks indicate?
Below 20,000ft, the airspeed where stick shaker activates
| Above 20,000ft, the speed at which initial buffet onset occurs
38
On the speed tape, what does the bottom of the thin amber bar indicate on the MAXIMUM manoeuvring speed?
The maximum manoeuvring speed. This airspeed provides 1.3g capabilities to high-speed buffet.
39
What are the 3 limited airspeeds indicated by the red bricks on the speed tape?
Vmo / Mmo
Landing gear placard speed
Flap placard speed
40
What speed does the tip of the speed trend vector predict?
The calculated speed in 10 seconds based on current acceleration or deceleration
41
How many individual white dashed position trend vectors can be displayed on the HSI? What range and time lapse do they
represent?
Each segment indicates 30 seconds, and the number of trend vectors is dependant upon HSI range selected
Range > 20nm = 3 segments = 90 second projection
Range = 20nm = 2 segments = 60 second projection
Range = 10nm = 1 segment = 30 second projection
42
How are deceleration points represented on the HSI?
Green circles, with no identifier
43
How is a TCAS RA displayed on the HSI display?
A red filled square
44
How is a TCAS TA displayed on the HSI?
An amber filled circle
45
How is a TCAS proximate traffic displayed on the HSI?
A white filled diamond
46
How is ‘other’ TCAS traffic displayed on the HSI?
A hollow white diamond
47
What does the EFI (Electronic Flight Instruments) switch on the side instrument panel do?
It selects the EFIS symbol generator, ILS receiver, and radio altimeter for the appropriate (Captain’s or F/O’s) ADI and HSI.
48
What do flashing align lights mean on the IRS?
Alignment cannot be completed due to:
- Significant difference between previous and entered positions
- An unreasonable present position entry
- No present position entered
49
If while on the ground the ground-call horn in the nose wheel sounds, what does this indicate?
It possibly indicates a battery drain condition exists. It is possible that the IRS’s are being powered by the DC backup power
system from the hot battery bus
50
How are the IRS’s powered?
The IRS’s operate on AC power from the left and right electrical systems
51
What are some parameters that the IRS’s calculate during flight?
The IRS’s calculate airplane:
- Position
- Acceleration
- Track
- Vertical speed
- True heading
- Magnetic heading
- Wind speed and direction
52
VNAV will not command an economy target descent speed greater than?
VMO / MMO minus 16kts for an ECON speed, or
| A pilot entered speed greater than VMO / MMO minus 11kts
53
What is the difference between TOTALIZER and CALCULATED fuel?
TOTALIZER = Total fuel quantity from the fuel system quantity processor
CALCULATED = Before start is the same as TOTALIZER. After engine start, fuel quantity is decreased by EICAS fuel flow
rate
54
What are the indications of a single FMC failure?
The following indications are present:
- Scratchpad message SINGLE FMC OPERATION
- EICAS advisory message L (or R) FMC FAIL
- MAP flag is displayed on the side with the failed FMC
- Centre panel light FMC illuminates
- CDU on failed side displays the menu page
- TIMEOUT – RESELECT displayed on failed CDU scratchpad
- VTK flag displayed on failed side HSI
55
What are the indications of a dual FMC failure?
The following indications are present:
- EICAS advisory message L FMC FAIL and R FMC FAIL
- LNAV and VNAV are not available
- Centre panel light FMC illuminates
- A/T disconnects
- EICAS caution message AUTOPILOT
- VTK and MAP flags shown on both HSI’s
- Both CDU’s display the menu page
56
When are the arrivals for the destination available in the DEP ARR page?
When the aircraft is more than 400nm from departure, or the aircraft is more than half way to the destination. This allows quick
access for the crew during an air turn back
57
What is the difference between OPT and RECMD altitude?
OPT –The most economical altitude based on gross weight
| RECMD – The most economical based on performance and winds
58
What happens when you enter a VOR into the VOR ONLY INHIBIT of the REF NAV DATA page?
Only the VOR portion of the navaid is inhibited. The FMC will still tune the DME for DME-DME updating
59
What rate of descent will be achieved using the DES NOW function?
The DES NOW prompt starts a 1250fpm descent schedule until intercepting the planned descent path
60
When using the TO CLEAN or TO DRAG function of the off path descent page, when is a clean or drag descent no longer
available?
The distance is negative when a clean descent or drag descent is no longer available
61
How are the 4 airports shown on the ALTN page sequenced?
The page has four airports shown in an ETA sequence when in flight
62
What are the 2 alternate navigation pages available following a dual FMC failure?
IRS LEGS and IRS PROGRESS
63
Following a dual FMC failure, which waypoints will be dumped from the legs page?
The CDU’s keep flight plan waypoints except for conditional waypoints, offsets, and holding patterns
64
How can new waypoints be entered in to IRS LEGS page following a dual FMC failure?
New waypoints can only be entered as latitude and longitude
65
During alternate navigation, do the two CDU’s communicate with each other?
The two CDU’s operate independently. A route change to one CDU does NOT change the other one.
66
What do status messages indicate?
Status messages indicate conditions requiring crew awareness for dispatch
67
If both EICAS computers, or both CRT’s fail, how can engine instruments be monitored?
If both EICAS computers fail, or if both CRT’s fail, the standby engine indicator (SEI) is automatically activated.
68
What items are monitored by the take-off configuration warning?
The following items:
- Leading edge slats (EICAS message – FLAPS)
- Trailing edge flaps (EICAS message – FLAPS)
- Slat / flap position disagree with flap handle (EICAS message FLAPS)
- Stab position outside of green band (EICAS message STABILIZER)
- Speedbrake lever not in DOWN detent (EICAS message SPOILERS)
- Parking brake valve closed (EICAS message PARKING BRAKE)
- MAIN CARGO DOOR is also monitored on 300BCF
69
What cockpit panels does the FMC crew alertness monitor?
The FMC continuously monitors the activation of:
- The MCP
- EFIS control panel
- Display select panel
- CDU’s
- Radio transmit switches
70
When will a crew alertness alert activate?
During cruise:
- EICAS Advisory after 35 minutes
- EICAS Caution 2 mins after advisory
- EICAS Warning 1 minute after caution
71
What does the EICAS advisory message ICE DET ON indicate?
An ice-detecting sensor is fitted on the nose of the aircraft. When the sensor detects ice, the EICAS advisory message ICE DET
ON is displayed
72
When are the pitot probes heated?
Operation of the probe heat system is fully automatic. Power to the electrically heated probes is applied any time that an engine is
running
73
What conditions lead to the amber DRIVE light on the electrical panel?
The generator drive oil temperature is high
| The generator oil pressure is low
74
What position must the AC bus tie switch be in to allow automatic flight instrument transfer?
The AC bus tie switch must be in the AUTO position to arm automatic flight instrument transfer bus circuits
75
What does the Standby power bus off light indicate on the electrical panel?
The standby AC or DC bus is not powered. It could be either, or both.
76
How are the 3 autopilots powered during an autoland?
During an autoland, the busses isolate to allow 3 independent sources to power the 3 autopilots as follows:
- The left main system powers the left autopilot
- The right main system powers the right autopilot
- The battery / standby system powers the centre autopilot
77
What can cause inadvertent load shedding on the ground?
On the ground, advancing the thrust levers into the take-off range with the engines shut down may cause inadvertent load
shedding of the utility busses to occur. Returning the thrust levers to idle, and then pushing the utility bus switches OFF, then ON will
reset the load shedding
78
When will the hydraulic driven generator activate?
The HDG operates automatically when both left and right main AC busses are unpowered. It is powered by the centre hydraulic
system
79
What busses does the HDG power?
The HDG powers the:
- The left AC transfer bus
- The right AC transfer bus
- The standby AC bus (through the left AC transfer bus)
- The captain’s flight instrument transfer bus
80
What are some major systems still available for use following a loss of both main AC busses?
The left / right AC transfer busses (being powered by the HDG) power the following equipment:
- Left FMC and CDU
- Left IRS
- Left ADI
- Left HSI
- Left Altimeter
- Left and centre symbol generator
- Left Airspeed indicator
- Left VSI
- Left EFIS control panel
- Left radio altimeter
- Captain’s pitot heat
81
At what value is the ‘minimum fuel on’ command bug displayed on the upper EICAS?
The bug is displayed at 15% N2, but normal start procedure is to position start lever at 20% N2. If N2 stops between 15-20%,
position lever to idle
82
What are the 4 engine vibration sources?
The four vibration sources are:
- FAN (Low pressure compressor)
- LPT (Low pressure turbine)
- N2 (High pressure compressor)
- BB (Broad band engine vibration)
83
What is meant by Broad Band engine vibration?
Broad band vibration is the average vibration detected in the engine. It is not coming from one single point in the engine
84
What are the different ranges for brake temperatures on the lower EICAS?
Values are 0 to 9 and include:
0 to 2 = Normal range
3 and 4 = Threshold range
5 to 9 = High temperature range
85
When will the amber speedbrakes light illuminate in flight?
It is illuminated when speedbrakes are extended and:
- Radio altitude is 800ft or below, or
- Flaps are in landing position
86
When do the leading edge slats move to their fully extended position?
At flaps 25 or 30, the slats move to their fully extended position
87
What are the 3 methods of stabilizer trim?
The 3 methods of trim are:
- Electric trim, via the dual trim switches on the control stand
- Alternate trim
- Automatic trim, via the autopilot which trims at half rate of electric trim
88
What are the 2 methods of alternate trim?
The two methods of alternate trim are:
- Electric trim: Provided by the alternate stabilizer trim switches on the control stand
- Manual trim: Provided by the stabilizer trim levers on the control stand. Both levers need to be pushed at the same time
89
What happens to the inboard ailerons when trailing edge flaps are extended?
The inboard ailerons droop in conjunction with trailing edge flap extension from 5 to 15
90
What are possible causes of the EICAS advisory message AILERON LOCKOUT?
The outboard ailerons are permitted full travel at low speed and locked out at high speed. The EICAS advisory message AILERON
LOCKOUT could mean:
- At high speed that one or both outboard ailerons failed to lockout
- At low speeds it may indicate that one or both ailerons failed to unlock
91
At what flap settings in flap load relief provided?
If the flap placard limit speed is exceeded with the flaps in the 25 or 30 position, the flaps automatically retract to the 20 position.
When airspeed is reduced, the flaps automatically re-extend. There is no EICAS message to support this.
92
What are the take-off and landing flap setting?
Flaps 5, 15 and 20 are take-off flap positions. Flaps 25 and 30 are landing flap positions. Flaps 20 is used for some non-normal
landing conditions
93
Does the flap position indicator display leading edge slat position at any stage?
The pointers move to 1 when all slats are in the midrange position. The position indicator provides only trailing edge flap position
indications for all flap settings greater than 1
94
What temperatures may be set in the cabin via the compartment temperature controllers in the Auto position?
You can set the desired temperature between 18 and 30 degrees
95
Are the shoulder and foot heaters available at all stages of flight?
The foot and shoulder heaters are only available inflight
96
What does the NO COOLING light on the equipment-cooling panel indicate? When is this light active and is this a considerable
problem?
The NO COOLING light is active only in the OVRD mode. It indicates that there is no reverse flow of cooling air through the E/E
avionics compartment after OVRD is selected. This is a considerable problem. The QRH states that normal operation of avionics and
electrical equipment that are NOT powered by the standby bus cannot be assured. Equipment on the standby bus operates normally
for 90 minutes. After 90 minutes, normal operation of essential avionics cannot be assured.
97
Why is it normal procedure to leave the Bulk Cargo Heat selector in the VENT position?
The VENT position requests a higher temperature control range than NORM. VENT provides a temperature of above 18c, while
the NORM position maintains compartment temperature above 7c. The VENT position also turns on ventilating for the bulk cargo
compartment. Obviously important for livestock
98
What does the cabin altitude MANUAL control do?
It is spring loaded to centre and controls cabin outflow valve position, when the cabin altitude selector is in the MANUAL mode. It
moves the outflow valve towards open or closed.
99
What rate of cabin climb and descent is programmed at the index mark of the cabin altitude AUTO RATE control?
The index mark establishes approx. 500fpm climb and 300fpm descent
100
When will the CABIN ALTITUDE light illuminate and extinguish during a non-normal event?
It will illuminate in RED when cabin altitude exceeds 10,000ft. It will extinguish when then cabin altitude descends below 8500ft
