Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

b767 technical > Systems 3 > Flashcards

Systems 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Following an engine bleed overheat, will the engine bleed valve need to be closed manually or will this be an automatic
protection?

A

The engine bleed valve will automatically close

6-2-10 (20)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many temperature zones on the passenger and freighter types are there?

A 
PAX = 4 zones. Flight deck plus 3 cabin zones
F = 3 zones. Flight deck plus 2 cabin zones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Will there be an increase or decrease in fuel flow when the recirculation fans are operative?

A

The recirculation fans circulate discharged air back into the mix manifold. This allows a reduction in cabin air ventilation, permitting
the packs to operate at a reduced flow. This will result in a decrease in fuel flow
6-2-20 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do the pack controllers control temperature?

A

They regulate the pack output air temperature to satisfy the temperature requirement of the compartment requiring the coolest air.
Hot trim air is then added through the trim air valves to control temperature in each of the other compartments
6-2-20 (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What temperature will the packs attempt to achieve with the trim air system off?

A

The packs attempt to maintain all compartments at an average temperature of 24c
6-2-20 (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 7 items requiring the use of bleed air?

A 
Air conditioning
- Pressurization
- Engine start
- Wing and engine anti-ice
- Center hydraulic system ADP
- Hydraulic reservoir pressurization
- Thrust reverser actuation
6-2-40 (1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Can wing anti-ice be operated on the ground?

A

Wing anti-ice is inhibited on the ground by the air / ground logic system. If a landing is made with the switch ON, the wing anti-ice
valves automatically close at touchdown
6-3-20 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which flight deck windows have anti-icing and anti-fogging protection?

A

The forward windows have anti-icing protection and anti-fogging. The side windows have anti-fogging protection only
6-3-20 (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which leading edge slats are provided with bleed air for anti-icing?

A

The 3 outboard leading edge slats on each wing

6-3-20 (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is ignition provided when engine anti-ice is used?

A 
Selected igniter(s) operate continuously when engine anti-ice is on
6-7-10 (21)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where is fuel temperature measured?

A

In the left main tank

6-12-10 (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When will the EICAS LOW FUEL caution activate?

A

When fuel quantity is below 2200lbs in either left or right main tank
6-12-30 (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many fuel pumps are fitted per tank, and what is their power source?

A

Each fuel tank contains 2 AC driven fuel pumps. The left main tank also contains a DC driven fuel pump for APU feed
6-12-20 (2) 6-12-20 (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two types of fuel scavenge systems?

A

Older aircraft vs. newer aircraft modifications
1) A scavenge system will operate automatically to transfer any unused centre fuel into the main tanks. This begins when the
main tanks are approx. half empty
2) Centre fuel pump power is automatically removed several seconds after CTR FUEL PUMP messages are displayed. It is
installed to ensure continued centre fuel pump operation is terminated
6-12-20 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is engine operation still possible without the fuel pumps turned on?

A

Yes. When main tank fuel pressure is low, each engine can draw fuel from it’s corresponding tank through a suction feed line that
bypasses the pumps. However, at high altitude thrust deterioration or engine flameout may occur as a result of the fuel flow reduction
6-12-20 (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When will the FUEL CONFIG light illuminate?

A

When the fuel quantity in left and right main tanks differs by 2000lbs (plus or minus 500lbs) or, when centre fuel pump switched
are off with more than 1200lbs in the centre tank. The FUEL CONFIG light also illuminates when the LOW FUEL caution message
appears because either main tank quantity is below 2200lbs
6-12-20 (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the purpose of the Nitrogen Generation System (NGS)?

A

The NGS converts bleed air to nitrogen-enriched air during all phases of flight. The nitrogen-enriched air is delivered to the centre
fuel tank to reduce flammability in the tank

6-12-20 (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When installed, at what part of the aircraft is fuel jettisoned from?

A

Via discharge nozzles inboard of each outboard aileron

6-12-20 (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the average jettison rate?

A

Approx. 2600 pounds per minute

6-12-20(7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Is oil quantity displayed in litres or quarts?

A

Quarts

6-7-10 (14)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When should the engine start selector release from GND to AUTO during an engine start?

A

50% N2

6-7-10 (21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

With the engine start selectors in the AUTO mode, when will the selected ignitor(s) continuously operate?

A

The selected igniter(s) operate continuously with slats extended or engine anti-ice on

6-7-10 (21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Is there a time limit to continuous ignition or flight ignition?

A

No, there is no time limit

6-7-10 (21)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the purpose of selecting FLT on the engine start selectors following a loss of dual engine failure?

A

FADEC equipped aircraft have auto-relight which will operate BOTH ignitors when N2 drops below idle speed. Non-FADEC
equipped aircraft do not have this feature, so the engine start selectors must be switched to FLT to ensure BOTH ignitors are active.

6-7-10 (21) 6-7-20 (10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the rated thrust of the engine?

A

The engines are rated at 60,200 pounds of take-off thrust

6-7-20 (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When is the red EGT start limit line of 750c displayed when on the ground?

A

When the fuel control switch is in the cut-off position. It remains displayed when the fuel control switch is moved to run until the
engine is stabilized at idle. (Non – FADEC = 5 seconds after N2 reaches 60%, FADEC = 10 seconds after N2 reaches 60%

6-7-10 (5) 6-7-20 (9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The in-flight start envelope displays what altitudes?

A

It displays the closest starting flight level, and two descending flight levels at 2000ft intervals

6-7-10 (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where is the X-BLD indication displayed? What does it mean when it is displayed?

A

It is indicated above the N2 value. It is displayed when airspeed is lower than that for a windmill start

6-7-10 (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In AUTO, when will the standby engine indicator display?

A

It will display when:

  • AC power is lost
  • EICAS failed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What 2 commands will positioning the fuel control switch to run during a normal engine start achieve?

A

1) Opens the engine and spar fuel valves

2) Activates the selected igniters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Approx. what percentage of full rated thrust is achieved by using take-off 1 or take-off 2 thrust?

A

Each take-off 1 is approx. 90% of maximum rated take-off thrust and each take-off 2 is approx. 80% of maximum rated take-off
thrust

6-7-20 (5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If take-off 1 thrust is selected for take-off, what climb thrust will be automatically selected?

A

Climb 1 thrust will automatically be selected. Climb 2 thrust will be automatically selected for a take-off 2 thrust

6-7-20 (6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Above 10,000ft, de-rated climb thrust will gradually change to reach full climb thrust by what altitude?

A

300: 12,000ft
300ER / F: 30,000ft

6-7-20 (6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Can the EEC enter hard mode automatically?

A

No, ALTN needs to be manually selected on the EEC switch to enter hard mode

6-7-20 (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Can the auto-throttle still remain engaged in the EEC hard or soft alternate mode?

A

Yes, auto-throttle will remain engaged

6-7-20 (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Is thrust protection provided during EEC alternate mode?

A

No, thrust protection is not provided in the alternate mode. Maximum thrust is reached at a thrust lever position of less than full
forward. Thrust overboost can occur at full thrust lever position

6-7-20 (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What thrust protections are still available in the EEC alternate mode?

A

N1 and N2 red line protection is still available in the alternate control mode

6-7-20 (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What does the EICAS caution message ENG LIM PROT indicate?

A

The message ENG LIM PROT is displayed if the thrust lever position is commanding an N1 greater than the maximum rated thrust
N1

6-7-20 (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

On engine start, what is the meaning of the EICAS message ENG STARTER?

A

The start valve has failed to open, meaning there will be no bleed air source to the N2 rotor

6-7-20 (9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

On engine start, what is the meaning of the EICAS message STARTER CUTOUT?

A

The start valve has failed to close automatically at 50% N2 and it will need to be selected manually by placing the engine start
selector to auto

6-7-20 (10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the normal starter duty cycle?

A

5 minutes on, followed by one half minute off per minute on

6-7-20 (10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How many attempted APU starts may be made?

A

The starter duty cycle is a maximum of three consecutive starts or attempts within a 60-minute period

6-7-30 (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The bus tie breaker keeps the main AC busses powered at all times by which priority order?

A

The order of:

  • Respective IDG
  • APU generator
  • Opposite IDG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When is the ground handling bus powered?

A

It can be powered on the ground only. It is powered automatically whenever APU or external power is provided. External power
has priority over the APU generator. There are no switches for the ground handling bus anywhere on the aircraft.

6-6-20 (5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does the ground handling bus power?

A

It is provided for loads such as cargo handling, maintenance lights, fuelling systems and other equipment that requires power only
during ground operations. Hence, it is not powered in flight.

6-6-20 (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When can a tripped circuit breaker be reset?

A

In flight, it is not recommended to reset tripped circuit breakers unless it is judged to be necessary for flight.

QRH 2-1 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How many attempts may be made at resetting a tripped circuit breaker?

A

Only one reset may be attempted

QRH 2-1 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What cooling period is required before attempting to reset a tripped circuit breaker?

A

After a cooling period of approximately 2 minutes

QRH 2-1 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What will happen to the APU if the battery switch is placed to off?

A

If the battery switch is placed to off, the APU will shutdown. This occurs only on the ground however, and not in flight.

6-7-30 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Is an autoland still available if a generator is lost at below 200ft?

A

Yes. Below 200ft, a loss of a generator will result in:

  • Both bus tie breakers remaining open
  • The autopilot with the failed generator is unpowered
  • The flight instruments remain powered through the flight instrument transfer busses
  • The autoland continues using the 2 remaining autopilots
  • There will be no indication appear on the autoland status annunciator

6-6-20 (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Is an autoland still available if a generator is lost above 200ft?

A

Yes. Above 200ft, a loss of a generator will result in:

  • Both bus tie breakers closing and the one remaining generator powers both the left and right AC busses
  • The left main system powers the centre autopilot
  • NO LAND 3 appears on the autoland status annunciator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Can the autoland status annunciation change below 200ft?

A

Below 200ft, the altitude status annunciation cannot change except to indicate a NO AUTOLND condition. Faults not requiring
crew action or awareness are annunciated after touchdown

6-4-20 (5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Where does landing altitude barometric pressure correction come from for the pressurization system to work out it’s descent to
touchdown?

A

Landing altitude barometric pressure correction comes from the captain’s altimeter

6-2-30 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When are EICAS advisories inhibited?

A

The inhibit period begins from the time either engine is advanced to take-off thrust until the first off:

  • 400ft AGL, or
  • 20 seconds elapsed time following nose gear extension

6-15-20 (10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If any illuminated bottle DISCH light is indicated on the fire protection panels, what does this indicate?

A

It means either the bottle has either discharged, OR has low pressure

6-8-10 (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Pulling an engine fire switch achieves 5 things. What are they?

A
  • Closes the engine AND spar fuel valves
  • Closes the bleed air valve
  • Trips the generator off
  • Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the engine driven pump
  • Arms both extinguisher bottles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What happens to the recirculation fans when either FWD or AFT cargo fire switch is armed?

A

Both recirculation fans are turned off. EICAS advisory messages > L / R RECIR FANS will be displayed

6-8-10 (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the only difference that occurs when arming either of the FWD or AFT cargo fire arm switches?

A

When arming the AFT cargo firm arm switches, this inhibits high flow operation from the packs. This does not occur when arming the FWD cargo fire arm switch

6-8-10 (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What happens when the APU fire switch is pulled?

A

The following will occur:

  • Closes the APU fuel valve
  • Closes the APU bleed valve
  • Closes the APU inlet door
  • Shuts down the APU
  • Arms the fire extinguisher bottle

6-8-10 (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Does the APU continue to run when an APU fire warning is present?

A

No, the APU automatically shuts down for a detected fire

6-8-10 (10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does the amber FAIL P-RESET light on the fire/overheat test panel indicate?

A

It indicates a failure of the detectors in one of the following systems:

  • Engine fire detection
  • Engine overheat detection
  • APU fire detection
  • Cargo fire detection

6-8-10 (12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does pushing the SYS FAIL switch on the fire/overheat test panel achieve?

A

It extinguishes the FAIL P-RESET light and resets the monitor for other systems

6-8-10 (12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Can the wheel well fire detection system detect hot brakes?

A

No, the system will not detect hot brakes without an associated fire

6-8-20 (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Is the engine overheat detection system limited to just the engine?

A

No. Overheat detection is provided in the struts, pneumatic ducts and in the wing and body areas also

6-8-20 (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How many engine fire extinguishes are fitted?

A

There are 2 engine fire extinguisher bottles. Either or both bottles can be discharged into either engine

6-8-20 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are fitted?

A

There is one APU fire extinguisher bottle. The APU fire switch can be rotated either way to discharge the one bottle

6-8-20 (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Is main gear fire detection provided by a single or dual loop?

A

Single loop only

6-8-20 (4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What cockpit indications are provided to the flight deck for smoke detected in a lavatory?

A

No indication is provided to the flight deck

6-8-20 (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the maximum operating speed for the extension and extended operation of the landing gear?

A

270kts / 0.82M

6-14-10 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What hydraulic system powers the landing gear extension and retraction?

A

The centre hydraulic system powers the main and nose gear extension and retraction

6-14-20 (1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How are the nose gear and main gear held in the up and locked position?

A

nose gear is held up by uplocks. The main gear is held up by the door structure

6-14-20 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How far can the nose wheel be turned by the tiller and the rudder pedals?

A

The nose wheel can be turned 7 degrees either side using the rudder pedals. Using the tiller will turn the nose wheel 65 degrees.
When both are used at the same time, the tiller overrides the rudder pedal commands

6-14-20 (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What does the amber BRAKE SOURCE light indicate?

A

The amber BRAKE SOURCE light indicates that both normal and alternate brake system pressures are low

6-14-10 (6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What does the EICAS caution message GEAR DISAGREE indicate?

A

GEAR DISAGREE displays if any gear is not in the commanded position of the landing gear lever, after the normal transit time

6-14-20 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How is the alternate gear extension provided?

A

The alternate gear extension system uses a dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump to extend the landing gear. Selecting
DN on the alternate gear extend switch releases all door and gear uplocks. The landing gear then free falls to the down and locked
position

6-14-20 (2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Do the gear doors close after alternate gear extension?

A

The doors remain open, and the EICAS advisory message GEAR DOORS displays

6-14-20 (3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where is the high temperature being measured from when a OVHT light illuminates on the hydraulic system panel?

A

Any OVHT light indicates temperature is high in the associated hydraulic pump

6-13-30 (1)

78
Q

When will the RF prompt appear on the status page?

A

When hydraulic oil quantity drops below 0.75

CBT

79
Q

Below what quantity will the hydraulic light QTY be displayed?

A

Quantity below 0.48 will illuminate the QTY light and EICAS message HYD QTY

CBT

80
Q

In the AUTO position, when will the center hydraulic air demand pump operate?

A

The pump will operate under 2 conditions:

  • When the system pressure is low
  • When heavy load items are selected, such as landing gear, flaps, slats, spoilers

6-13-10 (2)

81
Q

What does the green PRESS light on the ram air turbine indicate?

A

It indicates 2 things:

  • The RAT is deployed, and
  • The RAT is producing hydraulic pressure

6-13-10 (3)

82
Q

How many hydraulic systems are required to provide adequate airplane controllability?

A

One system can provide adequate airplane controllability

6-13-20 (1)

83
Q

Which hydraulic pumps are automatically load shed? When are they shed?

A

During the following:
- The number 2 centre hydraulic pump is load shed automatically to reduce electrical loads. On the ground when you
have only a single power source (either APU or external power or engine generator), both centre system electric pumps
cannot operate at the same time.

  • To reduce electrical load, the left electric demand pump is inhibited on the ground during engine start of either engine,
    when only one electrical generator is operating

6-13-20 (4) 6-13-20 (6)

84
Q

Above what speed will the RAT provide adequate hydraulic power?

A

Above 130kts

6-13-20 (7)

85
Q

What systems does the left hydraulic system power?

A

The left system powers:

  • Elevators
  • Rudder
  • Left inboard aileron (with right)
  • Outboard ailerons (with right)
  • Stabiliser trim (with centre)
  • Elevator feel (with centre)
  • Left autopilot servo
  • Spoilers 1 / 6 / 12
  • Yaw dampers (with centre)
  • Rudder ratio
  • It also provides trapped fluid to the right system to operate the PES

CBT / 6-9-20 (4) / 6-13-20 (4)

86
Q

What systems does the right hydraulic system power?

A

The right system powers:

  • Elevators
  • Rudder
  • Right inboard aileron (with left)
  • Outboard ailerons (with left)
  • Spoilers 2 / 7 / 11
  • Right autopilot servo
  • Pitch enhancement system

CBT / 6-9-20 (4) / 6-13-20 (6)

87
Q

What systems does the centre hydraulic system power?

A

The center system powers:

  • Elevators
  • Rudder
  • Inboard ailerons only (with left and right)
  • Stabiliser trim (with left)
  • Elevator feel (with left)
  • Centre autopilot servo
  • Spoilers 3 / 4 / 5 / 8 / 9 / 10
  • Flaps and slats
  • Yaw dampers (with left)
  • Hydraulic driven generator
  • Tailskid

CBT / 6-9-20 (4) / 6-13-20 (6)

88
Q

What occurs when a low center hydraulic system quantity is sensed?

A

The number one hydraulic pump on the centre hydraulic system is automatically isolated to provide hydraulic pressure to the
reserve brakes and steering system

6-13-20 (7)

89
Q

When will the RAT automatically deploy?

A

In flight, the RAT will automatically deploy when both engines fail

6-13-20 (7)

90
Q

What is maximum motoring defined as?

A

Maximum motoring speed is reached when acceleration is less than approx. 1% in 5 seconds

6-7-20 (9)

91
Q

What does selecting the engine start selector to GND achieve?

A

It does 4 things:

  • Opens the start valve
  • Engages the air driven starter to the N2 rotor
  • Closes the engine bleed valve if it is open
  • Arms the selected ignitors

6-7-10 (21) / 6-7-20 (9)

92
Q

Which hydraulic system provides normal braking?

A

The normal braking system is provided by the right hydraulic system

6-14-20 (4)

93
Q

How is the alternate braking system powered if the normal braking system pressure is low?

A

Alternate brake hydraulic pressure selection is automatic. The centre hydraulic system supplies pressure to the alternate brake
system if right hydraulic system pressure is low

6-14-20 (4)

94
Q

Can braking still be performed with a loss of the normal and alternate braking systems?

A

Yes, the brake accumulator can provide several braking applications or parking brake applications

6-14-20 (4)

95
Q

When will the BRAKE TEMP light illuminate on the landing gear panel?

A

When a wheel brake temperature is 5 or greater on the status page

6-14-10 (1)

96
Q

Is antiskid protection provided in the alternate brake system?

A

Yes, however the alternate brake system provides antiskid protection to laterally paired wheels

6-14-20 (5)

97
Q

Above what speed will automatic maximum wheel brakes be provided during an RTO?

A

Ground speed must be above 85kts

6-14-20 (5)

98
Q

Are displayed brake temperatures instantaneous?

A

No, temperature values are not instantaneous and tend to build for 10 to 15 minutes after the brakes are applied

6-14-20 (7)

99
Q

When does auto-braking application commence on touchdown?

A

Following:

  • Both thrust levers retarded to idle
  • Wheels have spun up
  • Nose attitude is less than 1 degree
100
Q

What happens to applied autobrake pressure after touchdown?

A

Autobrake pressure is reduced to maintain the deceleration rate after thrust reversers and spoilers contribute to total deceleration

6-14-20 (6)

101
Q

What does touchdown protection provide?

A

Touchdown protection ensures that rear wheel brakes do not have hydraulic pressure applied at touchdown

CBT

102
Q

How does the braking system provide hydroplaning protection?

A

The hydroplaning protection system compares IRS groundspeed to wheel speed and decreases aft wheel brake pressure when
groundspeed is greater than wheel speed

CBT

103
Q

How does the braking system provide locked wheel protection?

A

Locked wheel protection compares the speed of each fore and aft wheel pair, and releases hydraulic pressure from the slower
wheel when the speed difference is greater than 25kts

CBT

104
Q

How are the flaps and slats operated in the alternate mode?

A

The alternate mode allows direct manual operation of either flaps and / or slats through electric motors.

6-9-20 (12)

105
Q

When alternate flaps are required, what is the maximum flap setting?

A

Alternate mode flap and slat extension is limited to flaps 20

6-9-20 (12)

106
Q

What happens to the rudder if the EICAS advisory message RUDDER RATIO is displayed?

A

The left hydraulic system (which provides the rudder ratio) rudder actuator will depressurize which limits rudder displacement at
high airspeeds

6-9-20 (8)

107
Q

Can the electric trim switches disengage the autopilot at all stages of flight?

A

If a single autopilot is engaged, electric trimming causes the autopilot to disengage. If multiple autopilots are engaged, the electric
trim switches are inhibited. Alternate trimming does not cause autopilot disengagement

6-9-20 (5)

108
Q

How does the Pitch Enhancement System work?

A

The PES consists of a hydraulic motor in the right hydraulic system driving a pump, which uses trapped left trim system fluid to
operate the stabiliser. It will automatically activate if both the left and centre hydraulic systems are lost in flight. Only electric trim is
available at approximately ¼ the normal rate

6-9-20 (6)

109
Q

What are the operational considerations if the EICAS advisory message RUDDER RATIO is displayed?

A

The rudder ratio system has failed. Despite the left system hydraulic rudder actuator being depressurised, abrupt pedal movement
should be avoided at high airspeeds. The crosswind limit for landing becomes 15kts, and no autoland is permitted
6-9-20 (8) QRH 2-2-9 (9)

110
Q

When will the EICAS caution message > SPEEDBRAKES EXT be displayed?

A

When the speedbrake lever is on the up side of the armed position and either of the following conditions exists:

  • Radio altitude is below 800ft or,
  • If the flaps are in landing position (25 or 30)

QRH 2-2-9 (9)

111
Q

At cruise speeds, how many roll spoilers are locked out to prevent over-controlling?

A

2 spoilers on each wing are inhibited to prevent over-controlling. They are spoilers 4 / 5 / 8 / 9
CBT

112
Q

When the speedbrake lever is up in flight, which spoilers extend?

A

All spoilers, except for 4 and 9

CBT

113
Q

How many leading edge slats are fitted to the aircraft?

A

There are 12 leading edge slats in total. The are 5 outboard slats per wing, and one inboard slat per wing

CBT

114
Q

In the alternate flap mode, approximately how long does it take to run the flaps from UP to 20?

A

Approximately 3 minutes by electric motors driving the power drive units

CBT

115
Q

When using the communications handset, when does the push to talk switch need to be held down?

A

Only when making a PA using the handset. It does not need to be held down when using the handset for interphone communications

6-5-10 (21)

116
Q

When using a communications handset that is equipped with numerical keys, how do you dial the different handsets in the
passenger cabin?

A
  • Door L1 = 11
  • Door L2 = 12
  • Door L3 = 13
  • Door R1 = 21
  • Door R2 = 22
  • Door R3 = 23
  • Pilot = 31

6-5-10 (23)

117
Q

Why is a consequence of having the HF sensitivity decreased too much?

A

Decreasing sensitivity too far prevents reception, including SELCAL monitoring of the HF radio

6-5-20 (3)

118
Q

What is indicated by the EICAS advisory message RADIO TRANSMIT?

A

A VHF or HF radio is being keyed for 30 seconds or more

6-5-50 (1)

119
Q

Can both HF radios be used for transmission at the same time?

A

No, both HF radios use a common antenna. When either HF is transmitting, the antenna is disconnected from the other HF radio

6-5-20 (3)

120
Q

When does the voice recorder system begin to record?

A

Anytime AC power is applied to the airplane

6-5-20 (6)

121
Q

How are communication messages presented on the EICAS?

A

They are preceded by a white bullet, and the aural alert is a single chime

6-5-20 (7)

122
Q

Is there a pre-recorded message following a decompression?

A

Yes, when the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000ft a PA announcement is automatically made when the oxygen masks drop

6-5-30 (6)

123
Q

Can the escape slides be disarmed from outside the aircraft?

A

Yes, the first step in opening a door from the outside is to press the disarming lever, which unlocks the exterior door handle, and disarms the escape slides

6-1-30 (24)

124
Q

Following the correct access code being entered into the flight deck emergency access panel, the flight crew select DENY.
When will the keypad allow another entry of the correct access code?

A

After 30 minutes

6-1-30 (32)

125
Q

With the oxygen mask regulator in the ‘N’ position, what oxygen is supplied?

A

‘N’ will supply an air / oxygen mixture on demand. The ratio of this mix will depend on cabin altitude

6-1-30 (37)

126
Q

With the oxygen mash regulator in the 100% position, what oxygen is supplied?

A

100% will supply 100% oxygen on demand

6-1-30 (37

127
Q

What does rotating the emergency / test selector on the oxygen mask regulator achieve?

A

It supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes. It protects best against smoke and harmful vapours

6-1-30 (37)

128
Q

How is the emergency lighting system powered?

A

By remote batteries that are charged by the airplane electrical system

6-1-40 (6)

129
Q

How long will the emergency lights remains activated if selected on?

A

At least 15 minutes of operation

6-1-40 (6)

130
Q

When will oxygen flow to a mask in a PSU?

A

When any mask in that particular PSU is pulled down on

6-1-40 (9)

131
Q

When will the cockpit door automatically unlock when the correct emergency access code is entered?

A

If the pilot takes no action, the door unlocks for 5 seconds after a 45 second delay

6-1-40 (19)

132
Q

Can the slide ever deploy after the door is opened from the outside?

A

No

6-1-40 (23)

133
Q

What automatically occurs when an overwing emergency exit door is opened?

A
  • The ramp and slide inflate automatically
  • The inboard spoiler is retracted
  • The exterior emergency lights on that side illuminate

6-1-40 (25)

134
Q

Can the overwing emergency exits be opened from the outside?

A

Yes, and the emergency exit ramp and slide are automatically disarmed

6-1-40 (25)

135
Q

When should the cargo doors not be operated?

A

Do not operate the cargo doors with winds at the door of more than 40kts. Do not keep the door open when wind gusts are more
than 65kts

6-1-40 (30)

136
Q

When will oxygen begin to flow to the flight crew oxygen mask?

A

When the left oxygen panel door is open

CBT / 6-1-30 (35)

137
Q

When will the EICAS caution message IAS DISAGREE display?

A

When the captain’s and F/O’s airspeed indications disagree by more than 5kts

6-10-50 (1)

138
Q

When will the EICAS caution message ALT DISAGREE display?

A

When the captain’s and F/O’s altitude indications disagree by more than 200ft

6-10-50 (1)

139
Q

When shutting down an engine inflight, which EICAS alerts are inhibited?

A

When an engine is shutdown by selecting the fuel control switch to cut off, or by pulling the engine fire switch, the EICAS alert message L/R ENG SHUTDOWN is displayed and the following alerts are inhibited:

  • ENG ANTI-ICE
  • ENG BLEED OFF
  • GEN DRIVE
  • GEN OFF
  • ENG OIL PRESS
  • HYD PRIM PUMP
  • ENG CONTROL

6-15-20 (12)

140
Q

an the take-off configuration warning siren be cancelled?

A

No, retarding both thrust levers can only silence the siren

6-15-20 (16)

141
Q

When will the control column nudger operate?

A

If the flaps are retracted and the angle of attack continues to increase, a control column nudger moves the control column forward

6-15-20 (18)

142
Q

Can the overspeed aural warning siren be cancelled during an overspeed?

A

Yes, by pushing either master warning / caution reset switch

6-15-20 (18)

143
Q

What is the difference between GPWS and EGPWS?

A

EGPWS provides look-ahead terrain awareness

6-15-20 (22)

144
Q

When will the GPWS callout “BANK ANGLE BANK ANGLE”?

A

Above 150ft RA the callout occurs at 40 degrees

6-15-20 (41)

145
Q

How does the GPWS Mode 7 system detect windshear?

A

GPWS provides an immediate windshear alert when an excessive downdraft or tailwind is occurring.
The GPWS takes additional data from the stall warning computer and determines if decreasing performance windshear conditions are occurring in the immediate vicinity of the airplane

6-15-20 (42)

146
Q

When is the GPWS mode 7 windshear warning system active?

A

On departure, GPWS windshear detection begins at rotation to 1500ft RA.
On approach and landing, it is enabled from 1500ft RA

6-15-20 (42)

147
Q

How does the predictive windshear system detect windshear ahead?

A

The PWS detects disturbed air ahead of the aircraft which contains moisture or particulate matter and which fits a known pattern of
windshear activity

6-15-20 (43)

148
Q

How far ahead of the aircraft does the PWS examine?

A

On the ground and in flight, the PWS looks ahead from 0.5nm to 3nm, with a splay of 25 degrees either side of the aircraft

6-15-20 (43)

149
Q

How far ahead of the aircraft does the PWS examine for warnings?

A

Inflight = 1.5nm
On the ground = 3.0nm

6-15-20 (43)

150
Q

When does the PWS start scanning automatically?

A 
Departure = When thrust levers are set for take-off
Approach = When the aircraft is below 2300ft AGL

6-15-20 (44)

151
Q

When are PWS alerts inhibited?

A

During take-off and landing as follows:

  • Warnings = Between 100kts and 50ft AGL
  • Cautions = Between 80kts and 400ft AGL

6-15-20 (44)

152
Q

If the PWS detects windshear ahead on the ground, what aural alert is given?

A

“WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”

6-15-20 (45)

153
Q

the PWS detects windshear ahead on approach below 1200ft, what aural alert is given?

A

“GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”

6-15-20 (45)

154
Q

If both pilots have terrain displayed on the HSI’s, and predictive windshear is sensed by the PWS, what will be displayed on the HSI’s?

A

If a PWS alert occurs (below 1200ft) when TERR is selected on both pilots HSI’s, provided that there is not an active terrain alert occurring, the weather radar display including PWS symbology replaces the terrain display

6-15-10 (25)

155
Q

What are the engine starter cycle limitations?

A

5 minutes on, followed by 30 seconds off per minute on
Two consecutive 5 minute cycles require a 10 minute cooling period

6-7-20 (10)

156
Q

How do you manually enter incremental latitude or longitude waypoints into the FMC?

A

Enter the full latitude or longitude followed by a dash (not a slash), then the increment chosen for the multiple waypoints. For
example, W060-10 adds waypoints starting at W060 in ten-degree increments. Usually, this entry is made on top of the active
waypoint on the CDU to allow the FMC to calculate a proper sequence

6-11-31 (16)

157
Q

How do you enter a course from present position to be flown in LNAV?

A

Enter P/PXXX, where XXX is the course. Example P/P150. This course of 150 can then be flown in LNAV

CBT

158
Q

When is the EGT indication inhibited from changing to amber?

A

The EGT has a maximum continuous limit at 925c. If the EGT reaches the maximum continuous limit, the digital indication, box, pointer and dial all change colour to amber.
However, the EGT indication is inhibited from changing colour to amber during take-off or go-around for 5 minutes.
In effect, the temperature inhibit range would be from 925c to 959c. The red line limit of 960c is never inhibited

6-7-20 (2)

159
Q

Following an autoland, when will the autothrottle disengage?

A

When the reverse thrust levers are pulled aft to the interlock position

6-7-20 (19)

160
Q

What protections are built into the thrust reverser system to prevent inadvertent thrust reverser operation?

A

Each thrust reverser is automatically protected against unintentional reverse thrust: Pneumatically and electromechanically.

  • If an uncommanded thrust reverser movement is sensed, an autostow feature automatically applies pneumatic pressure to stow the reverser
  • An electromechanical lock prevents uncommanded reverser deployment in the event of additional system failures

6-7-20 (19)

161
Q

When fuel is being supplied to the APU in flight, can the left FWD pump be turned off?

A

Yes, in flight the left FWD pump can be turned off with the pump switch

6-12-20 (7)

162
Q

In general, how can airframe vibrations be reduced?

A

Descending and reducing airspeed can reduce Airframe vibrations

6-7-20 (22)

163
Q

How is fire detection provided for in the cargo compartments?

A

The forward and aft cargo compartments each have smoke detectors installed, not fire loops

6-8-20 (5)

164
Q

How many symbol generators are fitted?

A

3 symbol generators generate visual displays for the ADI and HSI.
The left symbol generator normally provides the Captain’s displays, and the right symbol generator normally provides the First Officer’s displays.
The center symbol generator is available as an alternate source for either or both pilots

6-10-20 (1

165
Q

Are the vertical speed indicators operative prior to the IRS’s being aligned?

A

The VSI is inoperative until the associated IRS has completed alignment and entered the navigation mode. So during the pre-flight
instrument check, the VSI may be flagged until IRS alignment

6-10-40 (1)

166
Q

Are the RDMI’s operative prior to the IRS’s being aligned?

A

The RDMI is inoperative until the associated IRS has completed alignment and entered the navigation mode.
So during the preflight instrument check, the RDMI may be flagged until IRS alignment

6-10-40 (1)

167
Q

How many Air Data Computers are fitted?

A

Two ADC’s are fitted. The left instruments use the left ADC and the right instruments use the right ADC

6-10-40 (5)

168
Q

What caution should be used when selecting alternate source of static pressure?

A

Switching in flight may cause the following undesirable effects:

  • Abrupt autopilot altitude changes
  • Transponder altitude reporting errors
  • Enabling the descent schedule of the cabin pressure controller

6-10-40 (5)

169
Q

Can the right fuel tank fuel pumps supply fuel to the APU in flight?

A

Yes, by opening of the crossfeed valve

6-12-20 (6)

170
Q

How many spoiler panels do not operate as the inflight speedbrakes?

A
  1. Spoiler panels 4 and 9 do not operate as inflight speedbrakes

CBT

171
Q

What hydraulic system failure will cause the autobrakes to become inoperative?

A

A failure of the normal braking system (i.e. the right hydraulic system) will cause autobrakes to become inoperative

6-14-20 (5)

172
Q

Where will the Vmo pointer and the airspeed pointer position themselves following an associated ADC failure?

A

The Vmo pointer will position to 260kts when data from the ADC is unreliable. The airspeed pointer indicates zero if the associated ADC has failed

6-10-30 (1)

173
Q

What non-normal configuration will require the longest runway for landing and why?

A

All AC buses off Flap 30 landing. This is because auto speedbrake is not available, anti-skid for outboard wheels in inoperative,
and if the hydraulic driven generator equipped, thrust reversers are inoperative

QRH 2-2-6 (2)

174
Q

What are the possible indications of an ADC failure?

A

The following may be present:

  • Airspeed indicator MACH flag, AS flag, Vmo pointer at 260kts
  • Altimeter OFF flag
  • Vertical speed indicator OFF flag
  • Possible EICAS message ENG EEC MODE

6-10-30 (1) (3) (7) 6-7-40 (2)

175
Q

When will the Mode 5 below glideslope deviation be activated during EGPWS?

A

When the descent is more than 1.3 dots below an ILS glideslope, the radio altitude is 1000ft or less

6-15-20 (39)

176
Q

What are the 7 modes of the EGPWS?

A

1) Excessive descent rate
2) Excessive terrain closure rate
3) Altitude loss after take-off
4) Unsafe terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration
5) Below glideslope deviation
6) Altitude callouts and bank angle callouts
7) Windshear

6-15-20 (41)

177
Q

How far from projected impact is an aircraft when “TERRAIN TERRAIN, PULL UP” or “OBSTACLE OBSTACLE, PULL UP” is heard and annunciated?

A

20 – 30 seconds from impact

6-15-20 (30)

178
Q

How far from projected impact is an aircraft when “CAUTION TERRAIN” or “CAUTION OBSTACLE” is heard and annunciated?

A

40 – 60 seconds from impact

6-15-20 (32)

179
Q

Below what altitude will the Mode 7 Windshear system of the EGPWS be activated?

A

When radio altitude is 1500ft or below

6-15-20 (41)

180
Q

When is the PWS enabled during approach and landing?

A

It is enabled during take-off and approach below 1200ft

6-15-20 (45)

181
Q

When are PWS warnings inhibited during take-off?

A

PWS warnings are inhibited from 100kts

6-15-20 (44)

182
Q

What equipment does the ASA monitor?

A

The ASA will monitor:

  • Flight control computer
  • ILS receiver
  • IRS
  • Radio altimeters
  • A/P servos
  • Stabilizer position sensors
  • Flap position sensors
  • G/A logic system

6-4-20 (5)

183
Q

Can NO AUTOLND or NO LAND 3 be blanked using the push/reset switch of the ASA?

A

It will depend on whether APP has been pushed as follows:
- Before APP selected: If the condition that caused the fault is still present when the switch is released, the annunciation
will return to NO AUTOLND or NO LAND 3
- After APP is selected: If NO LAND 3 was displayed, the annunciation will blank, and remain blank until after landing. If
NO AUTOLND was displayed, this will remain displayed. You cannot blank NO AUTOLND

6-4-10 (17)

184
Q

Will automatic rudder input be provided following an engine failure on a multiple autopilot ILS approach?

A

AFDS controls rudder during multiple autopilot ILS approaches to compensate for engine out asymmetric conditions during an ILS
approach. With LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated, autopilot control of the rudder is active

6-4-20 (15)

185
Q

What slip angle will be induced during runway align mode?

A

The autopilot will initiate a slip with a maximum bank angle of 2 degrees when the crab angle exceeds 5 degrees

6-4-20 (15)

186
Q

After pushing the autopilot APP switch, when will the 2 remaining autopilots engage?

A

The autopilots will ARM after pushing the APP switch, however the autopilots will not engage until LOC and G/S are captured, and the RA is below 1500ft

6-4-10 (15)

187
Q

When is the airport and runway displayed on the HSI?

A

It is displayed in white when selected as the origin or destination, and the selected range is 40nm or less. The dashed runway centreline extends to 14.2nm

6-10-10 (31)

188
Q

How many FCC’s are required to engage an autopilot?

A

Autopilot engagement requires at least 2 FCC’s

6-4-20 (2)

189
Q

What do the different colours of terrain displayed on the HSI indicate?

A

Dotted green = Terrain from 2000ft below to 500ft below (250ft with gear down) the aircraft’s current altitude
Dotted amber = Terrain from 500ft below (250ft with gear down) to 2000ft above the current aircraft altitude
Dotted red = Terrain more than 2000ft above airplane’s current altitude

6-15-10 (17)

190
Q

When can the GLIDESLOPE caution be cancelled?

A

By pushing the ground proximity glide slope inhibit switch, the GLIDESLOPE caution will be cancelled below 1000ft RA

6-15-10 (12)

191
Q

What happens if a look-ahead terrain alert occurs without terrain being displayed?

A

Pop-up look ahead terrain will be displayed regardless of terrain switch, provided the HSI map is in the VOR, APP, MAP and CTR MAP positions

6-15-20 (30)

192
Q

What is first priority for GPWS alerts?

A

A windshear alert inhibits all other GPWS and windshear alerts

6-15-20 (23)

b767 technical (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions