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Delta > Systems > Flashcards

Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Min crew?

A

2 Pilot

4 FA

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2
Q

Length?

Wingspan?

A

129’6”

117’5”

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3
Q

How much space for 180 degree turn?

A

79’

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4
Q

When do fwd/aft overwing doors become unlocked?

A

On the ground OR DC power removed

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5
Q

How many exits?

A

10

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6
Q

What emergency equipment is on the flight deck?

A

3-3-CHEEP

3 life vests
3 oxygen masks
Halon fire extinguisher 
Crash axe
PBE
ELT
Escape ropes
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7
Q

When does the oxygen mike become active?

A

When the right stowage box door is opened

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8
Q

When is passenger oxygen activated?

A

Cabin altitude above 14000’

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9
Q

Can I have fixed landing lights and turnoff lights on at the same time while stopped?

A

No, too much heat

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10
Q

What are three ways emergency exit lights come on?

A

Turned on on the overhead panel
Turned on at the aft attendant panel
Loss of electrics or AC power off

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11
Q

Which light switches are on the Captain side of the overhead panel

A

Landing, turnoff, taxi

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12
Q

Where is the dome white switch

A

Aft overhead panel

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13
Q

Does the FA emergency light switch override the flight deck?

A

Yes

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14
Q

Can the Captain’s flight deck window be opened from the outside? Can the FOs?

A

No

Yes

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15
Q

How long does passenger oxygen last?

A

12 Minutes

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16
Q

What does the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light mean?

A

GPU is connected and meets power quality standards.

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17
Q

What does the APU GEN OFF BUS light mean?

A

APU is running but its generator is not powering a bus.

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18
Q

When does IDG disconnect switch work?

A

Electric power available and engine start lever is in IDLE.

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19
Q

Can I reconnect an IDG in flight?

A

No

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20
Q

What does the DRIVE light mean?

A

IDG low oil pressure or under frequency condition.

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21
Q

What does the GEN OFF BUS light mean?

A

The IDG is not powering the related transfer bus.

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22
Q

What three busses does each Transfer Bus power?

A

Main bus, Galley bus, Ground Service bus. Transfer Bus 1 (left side) also powers the AC Standby Bus.

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23
Q

What does the TRANSFER BUS OFF light mean?

A

The related transfer bus is not powered.

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24
Q

What happens when the BUS TRANS switch is off?

A

AC transfer bus 1 is isolated from bus 2. In Auto, the bus ties would close.

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25
Q

What does the SOURCE OFF light mean?

A

No power source has been manually selected OR the manually selected source has been disconnected

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26
Q

What do Transformer Rectifiers do?

A

Convert AC power from the Generators or External Power to DC

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27
Q

What does the TR UNIT light mean?

A

TR1 failed, or TR2 and TR3 failed. On the ground, any TR failure will illuminate the light.

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28
Q

What does the main battery do? What does the auxiliary battery do?

A

Power for APU or engine start. The Aux battery operates in parallel with the main only when using standby power.

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29
Q

What is the battery voltage range?

A

22-30 volts.

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30
Q

What does the BAT DISCHARGE light mean?

A

Excessive battery discharge detected.

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31
Q

What are the three battery busses?

A

Hot Battery
Switched Hot Battery
Battery

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32
Q

How long can standby power function on batteries?

A

60 min

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33
Q

What busses are on the standby power system?

A 
Switched hot battery bus
Hot battery bus
Battery bus
DC standby bus
AC standby bus
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34
Q

What does the ELEC light mean?

A

Only illuminates on the ground, and indicates a fault in the DC power system or standby system

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35
Q

What does STANDBY PWR OFF light mean?

A

Power removed from the AC standby bus, DC standby bus, or Battery bus

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36
Q

What happens when the STANDBY POWER switch is in the BAT position?

A

It forces the batteries to power AC standby bus, DC standby bus, and battery bus.

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37
Q

What does the GROUND SERVICE switch do?

A

Enables aircraft servicing with external power without energizing the AC transfer busses

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38
Q

Where is the GROUND SERVICE switch located?

A

Forward FA panel

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39
Q

Can sources of AC power be paralleled?

A

No

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40
Q

What happens when I connect a new source of power to an AC bus?

A

The old source is disconnected.

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41
Q

What three components are powered by the ground service bus?

A

Utility outlets
Cabin lighting
Battery chargers

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42
Q

What is the function of the GEN switch?

A

Disconnects or connects the IDG

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43
Q

What do Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRS) provide?

A

Position
Speed
Attitude
Altitude

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44
Q

How many Display Electronic Units (DEU) are there?

A
  1. They power all six display units
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45
Q

When do CDS fault messages appear?

A

On the ground prior to the second engine start

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46
Q

What is the difference between CDS FAULT and CDS MAINT

A

CDS FAULT is NOT dispatch-able

CDS MAINT is dispatch-able

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47
Q

The FMA’s are in what order?

A

Autotrottle
Roll
Pitch

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48
Q

What does the Pitch Limit Indicator do?

A

Indicates max pitch limit for current phase of flight. Above Pitch Limit Indicator, you’ll get stick shaker.

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49
Q

What is the max gear extended speed

A

320 kts

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50
Q

What is the bank angle limit below V2+15?

A

15 degrees

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51
Q

What does the ALT DISAGREE alert mean?

A

Capt and FO altimeters disagree by more than 200’ for more than 5 sec

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52
Q

When does the flight recorder begin to operate?

A

Either engine starts

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53
Q

Which Radio Tuning Panel does ACARS use?

A

RTP 3

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54
Q

What bus powers each radio?

A

VHF1- DC Standby

VHF2 and 3- DC 2 Bus

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55
Q

How many HF radios? How many HF antennas?

A

2 radios, 1 antenna

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56
Q

When operating radios in the degraded mode, which radio does each crewmember use?

A

CA- VHF1
FO- VHF2
OBS- VHF1
Hand mike will be inop

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57
Q

What are the PA priorities

A

Flight deck announcements
FA announcements
Pre-recorded announcements

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58
Q

What does the FAULT light on the fire detection panel mean?

A

Both fire loops in an engine have failed

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59
Q

What does the APU DET INOP light mean?

A

The APU fire loop has failed

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60
Q

What does the DETECTOR FAULT mean on the Cargo Fire panel?

A

Both loops have failed in one or both cargo compartments

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61
Q

How many fire bottles are there for engine/APU/cargo?

A

Engine- 2 bottles
APU- 1
Cargo- 1

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62
Q

What systems have fire detection?

A 
Engines
APU
Cargo
Lavatories
Wheel well (no extinguishing system)
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63
Q

What bus powers fire detection systems? What bus powers fire extinguishing systems?

A

Detection- battery bus.

Extinguishing- hot battery. I can always fight a fire!

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64
Q

Where is the APU ground control panel?

A

Right wheel well

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65
Q

What is the ENGINE FAIL alert?

A

It is displayed on the EGT indicator

It is displayed when engine is less than 50% N2 AND the Engine Start Lever is in the IDLE position

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66
Q

When should start lever be placed to idle during a normal engine start?

A

When N2 is at max motoring (less than 1% rise in 5 seconds) AND there is N1 rotation. N2 minimum is 25%.

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67
Q

When should engine start switch move to OFF during a normal engine start?

A

56% N2

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68
Q

When will the Electronic Control Unit (ECU) cause the APU to automatically shut down?

A

APU fire
APU overspeed
APU low oil pressure or high temperature
APU fault

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69
Q

When is the APU ready to run bleed air and electrics?

A

When the APU GEN BUS OFF light illuminates.

Two minutes.

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70
Q

What type of engine?

A

CFM56-7

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71
Q

What does the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) do?

A

Uses N1 to set thrust in either normal or alternate modes

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72
Q

What does the EEC ALTN light mean?

A

The EEC is in alternate (soft) mode. The EEC uses the last valid flight conditions to define engine parameters.

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73
Q

How do I put the EEC in alternate hard mode?

A

Retard the thrust lever to Idle OR turn the EEC switch off

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74
Q

What are the primary engine indications on the upper Display Unit (DU)?

A

N1
EGT
Fuel Flow

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75
Q

What does a red box in the N1 display after shutdown indicate?

A

An exceedance during the flight.

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76
Q

What malfunctions should cause an aborted engine start?

A

N1 or N2 does not increase after EGT

No oil pressure by the time the engine is at idle

EGT does not increase by 10 seconds after the engine start lever is moved to idle

EGT quickly nears the start limit

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77
Q

What does the EEC monitor during engine start (ground only)?

A

Hot Starts
EGT exceedance
Wet Start

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78
Q

What does the REVERSER light mean?

A

Thrust reverser commanded to stow. Goes out after 10 seconds when the isolation valve closes. After 12 seconds, a master caution occurs if the reverser has not stowed.

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79
Q

What does the OVERSPEED light on the APU panel mean?

A

RPM limit exceeded OR

Self Test failed (during shutdown)

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80
Q

What does the FAULT light on the APU panel mean?

A

A malfunction has caused the APU to shutdown

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81
Q

What does the LOW OIL PRESSURE light on the APU panel mean?

A

Oil pressure low caused an automatic shutdown. This is normal to see during APU start

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82
Q

Can I operate the APU with the blue MAINT light?

A

Yes, but tell maintenance of the problem ASAP

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83
Q

What altitude can the APU generator be used up to?

A

41,000’

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84
Q

What power source is needed to start the APU?

A

External power
Engine driven generator
Main battery

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85
Q

How long does the APU run to cool during shutdown?

A

60 seconds

86
Q

Where does fuel for the APU come from

A

Left side fuel manifold, OR

Suction fed from main tank #1 if AC fuel pumps are not operating

87
Q

What is the max altitude for APU bleed air?

A

17,000’

If using APU generator, 10,000’

88
Q

Will the APU shutdown automatically if its fire loop senses a fire? Will it automatically discharge its fire bottle?

A

Yes

No

89
Q

When in AUTO, when will the isolation valve close?

A

If any pack or bleed air switch is turned OFF

90
Q

How many packs can the APU operate on the ground? In flight?

A

2 on the ground, 1 in flight

91
Q

Which bleed air manifold does the APU connect to?

A

Left

92
Q

What does the DUAL BLEED light mean?

A

Both the APU and engine bleed air switches are on at the same time. Engines do not have to be running.

93
Q

What does the WING BODY OVERHEAT light mean?

A

Bleed air duct leak

94
Q

How many temperature zones are there?

A

3

95
Q

When can I not operate the pack switches in the high position?

A

Takeoff, approach, and landing

96
Q

What does the PACK light mean?

A

Pack trip off or failure of both primary and standby pack controls

In master caution recall, it means failure of either primary or standby pack control.

97
Q

What does the ZONE TEMP light mean?

A

CONT CAB indicates a duct temperature overheat or failure of the flight deck primary and standby temperature control.
FWD CAB or AFT CAB indicates duct temperature overheat.

-During Master Caution light recall:
- CONT CAB indicates failure of the flight deck primary or
standby temperature control.
- Either FWD CAB or AFT CAB indicates failure of the associated zone temperature control.

98
Q

What does the CONT CAB ZONE TEMP light mean?

A

Duct temperature overheat or failure of the flight deck primary and standby temperature control

99
Q

What does the OFF light on the Equipment cooling panel mean?

A

Insufficient cooling airflow (either the supply or exhaust fan is inop). Selecting the alternate fan should restore airflow and extinguish the OFF light within 5 seconds.

100
Q

What does the OFF SCHED DESCENT light mean?

A

The airplane descended before reaching the planed cruise altitude

If a flight is aborted in climb and returns to the takeoff airport, the controller programs the cabin to land at the takeoff field elevation without further pilot inputs. If the FLT ALT indicator is changed, the automatic abort capability to the original takeoff field elevation is lost.

101
Q

What does the AUTO FAIL light on the pressurization panel mean?

A

The auto controller failed. The system automatically switches to the alternate controller, and you’ll get a green ALTN light

102
Q

What happened if the AUTO FAIL light is on without the ALTN light?

A

Both automatic controllers have failed, and manual mode must be selected.

103
Q

What altitude does the cabin altitude warning horn sound?

A

10,000’

104
Q

What does the BLEED TRIP OFF light mean?

A

Excessive engine bleed air temperature or pressure. The valve automatically closes, and can be reset

105
Q

What happens when there is an E/E bay overtemp on the ground?

A

The crew call horn sounds in the nose wheel well

106
Q

What is electrically heated with the PROBE HEAT switches on?

A
  • Pitot probes
  • Total Air Temperature probe. (not heated on the ground unless TAT Test switch is pushed, may be tested on the ground with the probe heat switch off)
  • Alpha vanes.
107
Q

If PROBE HEAT has an AUTO switch, when does heat come on?

A

In AUTO, probe heat is powered automatically when either engine is started.

108
Q

What is the logic of the blue anti ice lights on the overhead panel?

A

-Bright – Related anti-ice
valve is in transit, or anti-ice valve position disagrees with related ANTI-ICE switch position.
-Dim – Related anti-ice valve is open. (switch ON)
-Extinguished – Related anti-ice valve is closed. (switch OFF)

109
Q

When does the Window Heat OVERHEAT light come on?

A

An overheat condition is detected.

Electrical power to window(s) is interrupted.

110
Q

What does the PROBE HEAT light mean?

A

The related probe is not heated.

Note: If operating on standby power, probe heat lights do not indicate system status.

111
Q

What does the COWL ANTI ICE light mean?

A

Overpressure condition in duct downstream of engine cowl anti-ice valve. (Not temp related)

112
Q

What area of the engine is heated with anti ice?

A

Engine cowl lip

113
Q

What is the indication when engine anti ice is in use?

A

TAI is displayed above N1 digital display.
(Green)– cowl anti-ice valve is open.
(Amber)– cowl anti-ice valve is not in position indicated by related engine anti–ice switch.

114
Q

Which systems are heated by bleed air

A

Engine cowl lip

Leading edge slats

115
Q

Which systems are heated by electric heat?

A 
Pitot probes
Alpha vanes
TAT probe
Elevator pitot probes
Flight deck windows
116
Q

Which slats are heated by wing anti ice?

A

The three inboard leading edge slats

117
Q

What does the Main Tank Fuel Pump LOW PRESSURE light mean?

A

Pump pressure low or switch off.

Note: Two LOW PRESSURE lights illuminated in the same tank illuminate MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights. One LOW PRESSURE light causes MASTER CAUTION and FUEL system annunciator lights to illuminate on MASTER CAUTION light recall.

118
Q

Describe the logic of the blue crossfeed VALVE OPEN light.

A 
Bright:
- Valve in transit, or
- Valve position and CROSSFEED Selector disagree.
Dim:
-Valve is open.
Extinguished:
- Valve is closed.
119
Q

What does the fuel FILTER BYPASS light mean?

A

Impending fuel filter bypass due to a contaminated filter.

120
Q

What does a fuel quantity LOW alert mean?

A

-fuel quantity less than 2000 lbs. in related main tank.

121
Q

What does a fuel CONFIG alert mean?

A

Displayed (amber) –
- either engine running
- center fuel tank quantity greater than 1600 lbs.; and both center
fuel tank pumps producing low or no Pressure.

122
Q

What does a fuel IMBAL alert mean?

A

Displayed (amber) –

  • main tanks differ by more than 1000 lbs.
  • displayed below main tank with lower fuel quantity.
  • inhibited when airplane is on ground.
  • inhibited by fuel LOW indication when both indications exist.
  • displayed until imbalance is reduced to 200 lbs.
123
Q

What are two ways to close the engine and spar valves?

A
  • Place the engine start lever to CUTOFF.

- Pull the engine fire warning switch.

124
Q

Can I suction feed fuel from the main tanks?

A

Yes

125
Q

What is the capacity of the main (wing) fuel tank?

A

8,360 lbs

126
Q

What is the capacity of the center fuel tank?

A

28,803 lbs

127
Q

Where is fuel temperature measured?

A

Tank 1 (left).

128
Q

What is the max fuel temp?

A

49 C

129
Q

What is the min fuel temp?

A

3 degrees above the fuel freeze or -43C, whichever is higher

130
Q

What are the three hydraulic systems?

A

A system
B system
Standby system

131
Q

How can I manually turn on the Standby Hydraulic pump?

A
  • Turn the FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD

- Selecting ALTERNATE FLAPS to ARM

132
Q

What does the Hydraulic Standby Pump power?

A

Rudder
Standby yaw damper
Either thrust reverser
Leading edge flaps and slats

133
Q

What is the indicator of low hydraulic fluid quantity

A
  • A white RF beside the hydraulic quantity indication (on the ground only)
  • Standby Hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light (always armed) on the Forward Overhead panel.
134
Q

What is the normal hydraulic pressure?

A

3000 PSI

135
Q

What happens when you select an ENGINE HYDRAULIC PUMP off?

A

It energizes blocking valve to block pump output.

Note: Normally should remain ON at shutdown to prolong solenoid life.

136
Q

What is the min and max hydraulic pressure?

A

2800 PSI

3500 PSI

137
Q

What does the Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light indicate?

A

Low system A or B pressure to the ailerons, elevator, and rudder

138
Q

What does the AUTO BRAKES DISARM light mean?

A
  • the autobrakes are disarmed.

- the turn-on self test is not successful.

139
Q

What does the ANTI SKID INOP light mean?

A

A system fault is detected by the antiskid monitoring system.

140
Q

Is anti skid available in both normal and alternate brake systems?

A

Yes

141
Q

How can I disarm Autobrakes?

A
  • Manual brakes
  • Advance power (except in the first 3 sec after touchdown)
  • Speed brake down
  • Selector switch
142
Q

What are the max speeds for the landing gear?

A

Extend- 270
Retract- 235
Extended- 320

143
Q

Max speed for flaps 1,2, or 5?

A

250

144
Q

Max speed for flaps 10?

A

210

145
Q

Max speed for flaps 15?

A

200

146
Q

Max speed for flaps 25?

A

190

147
Q

Max speed for flaps 30?

A

175

148
Q

Max speed for flaps 40?

A

162

149
Q

When do the red gear lights illuminate?

A

When the gear position disagrees with the handle

When below 800’ with either thrust lever in idle and gear not down

150
Q

When can the gear warning horn not be silenced?

A

Flaps greater than 10
OR
Less than 200’ radio altitude

151
Q

How do I manually extend the gear if there is a hydraulic failure?

A

There are three manual extension handles. Pull each one out 24 inches to release the gear unlocks. The gear free fall into position.

152
Q

What hydraulic system powers nose wheel steering?

A

A with switch in NORM, B with switch in ALT

153
Q

How much steering do I get with the tiller? With the rudder pedals?

A

78 degrees with tiller, 7 degrees with pedals.

154
Q

What hydraulic systems power the brakes?

A
  • Normal- B (anti skid, autobrakes)
  • Alternate- A (anti skid, no autobrakes)
  • Accumulator- pressurized by B (anti skid, no autobrakes) (several brake applications or one park brake)
155
Q

Do autobrakes work with anti skid inoperative?

A

No

156
Q

What speed is RTO armed?

A

90 knots

157
Q

When do autobrakes begin application after landing?

A

Both thrust levers at idle

Main wheels spin up

158
Q

When does the Speed Trim System operate most frequently?

A

Takeoff, climb, and go around

159
Q

What does the SPEED BRAKES EXTENDED light mean?

A

In flight –
-SPEED BRAKE lever is beyond the ARMED position, and
-TE flaps extended more than flaps 10, or
-Radio altitude less than 800 feet.
On the ground –
- SPEED BRAKE lever is in the DOWN detent
- Ground spoilers are not stowed.

160
Q

What does the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light mean?

A
  • any LE device in transit.
  • any LE device not in programmed position with respect to TE flaps.
  • a LE slat skew condition exists.
  • illuminated during alternate flap extension until LE devices are fully extended and TE flaps reach flaps 10.
    Note: Light is inhibited during autoslat operation in flight.
161
Q

What does the Flight Control LOW PRESSURE light mean?

A

low hydraulic system (A or B) pressure to ailerons, elevator and rudder.

162
Q

What does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light mean?

A

excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer.

163
Q

What does the SPEED TRIM FAIL light mean?

A
  • Indicates failure of the speed trim system.
  • Indicates failure of a single FCC channel when
    MASTER CAUTION recall is activated.
164
Q

What does the MACH TRIM FAIL light mean?

A
  • Indicates failure of the mach trim system.
  • Indicates failure of a single FCC channel when
    MASTER CAUTION light recall is activated.
165
Q

What does the AUTO SLAT FAIL light mean?

A
  • Indicates failure of the auto slat system.
  • Indicates failure of the auto slat function in one of the SMYD
    computers when MASTER CAUTION light recall is activated.
166
Q

What does the YAW DAMPER light mean?

A

Yaw damper is not engaged.

167
Q

What does the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light mean?

A

When armed, Indicates abnormal condition or test inputs to the automatic speed brake system. Light deactivated when SPEED BRAKE lever is in the DOWN position.

168
Q

How does the flap load relief system operate?

A
  • retract to 30 if airspeed for flaps 40 is exceeded. -re-extend when airspeed is reduced below flaps 40 speed.
  • retract to 25 if the airspeed for flaps 30 is exceeded. -re-extend when airspeed is reduced below flaps 30 speed.
169
Q

When will spoilers assist the ailerons?

A

When control wheel is displaced more than approximately 10 degrees, spoiler deflection is initiated.

170
Q

When does the auto speed brake system operate during landing?

A
  • SPEED BRAKE lever is in the ARMED position.
  • SPEED BRAKE ARMED light is illuminated.
  • landing gear strut compresses on touchdown.
  • both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.
  • main landing gear wheels spin up.
171
Q

What are three ways to move the stabilizer?

A

Trim switches on the control wheel
Autopilot trim
Manually positioning the stabilizer trim wheels

172
Q

When does the Mach Trim system begin to operate?

A

Mach 0.615

173
Q

When does stabilizer trim go into high speed mode?

A

Flaps extended

174
Q

What do the stabilizer trim cutout switches do?

A

Stop electric and autopilot trim if control column movement opposes trim direction

175
Q

Do not use the speedbrake below

A

1000’

176
Q

What hydraulic system powers the flaps

A

B

177
Q

Which flap positions are used for landing

A

15, 30, 40

178
Q

Can I hold in icing with flaps out?

A

No

179
Q

What is the max altitude for flap extension?

A

20,000’

180
Q

How many Leading Edge flaps and slats are there?

A

Two flaps inboard and four slats outboard of each engine

181
Q

Above what trailing edge flap position do slats move from the EXTEND position to the FULL EXTEND position?

A

Flaps 5

182
Q

At what flap positions do autoslats move to the full full extend position if the airplane approaches a stall?

A

1,2, and 5

183
Q

What causes the takeoff configuration warning?

A
  • Flaps/slats not set
  • Parking brake is set
  • SPEED BRAKE lever is not DOWN
  • Stabilizer trim not set in the takeoff range.
184
Q

What is the symbology for TA and RA

A

TA- An amber circle.

RA- A red square.

185
Q

What are the types of GPWS alerts?

A
  • excessive descent rate.
  • excessive terrain closure rate.
  • altitude loss after takeoff or go-around.
  • unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration.
  • excessive deviation below an ILS glide slope.
  • excessive deviation below glidepath.
186
Q

When are predictive wind shear alerts automatically available?

A
  • Thrust levers set for takeoff

- In flight below 1,200 feet RA

187
Q

What are the different terrain alerting colors?

A
  • Dotted green: terrain is below the airplane’s current altitude.
  • Dotted red or amber: represents terrain conflict.
  • Dotted magenta: no terrain data available.
  • Solid amber: look-ahead terrain caution active.
  • Solid red: look-ahead terrain warning active.
188
Q

What are the indications of a wind shear warning?

A
  • Two-tone siren.
  • Aural “WINDSHEAR”.
  • Red WINDSHEAR on both attitude indicators.
189
Q

Explain the meaning of the PSEU light. (Proximity Switch Electronic Unit)

A
  • a fault is detected in the PSEU, or

- an overwing exit flight lock fails to disengage when commanded.

190
Q

Which roll modes are affected by the bank angle selector

A

HDG select

VOR

191
Q

How can a second autopilot be engaged?

A
  • Both VHF NAV receivers tuned to the ILS frequency.
  • Approach Mode (APP) selected.
  • Second A/P engaged in CMD prior to 800 feet RA.
192
Q

What will happen when TO/GA is selected below 2000 feet RA with autopilots engaged versus autopilots not engaged.

A
  • No A/P or single A/P engaged: Disconnects autopilot and requires manual F/D go around.
  • Both A/Ps engaged: A/P go-around mode is activated. A/Ps remain engaged.
193
Q

What happens when TO/GA is pushed once versus twice?

A
  • First push: A/T provides reduced go-around N1 to produce 1000 to 2000 fpm rate of climb.
  • Second push: A/T advances to the full go around N1 limit.
194
Q

What does the GPS light on the IRS mode select panel mean?

A
  • Indicates failure of both GPS units.
  • Indicates failure of a single GPS unit
    when Master Caution recall is initiated.
195
Q

What does a flashing ALIGN light mean?

A
  • No present position entry.

- Unreasonable present position.

196
Q

Within how many miles will LNAV automatically capture course

A

3

197
Q

When does LNAV engage on takeoff?

A

50’

198
Q

When does LNAV engage on a Go Around?

A

50’

With FLARE armed or captured, 400’

199
Q

When do autopilot and Autothrottle disengage on an automatic landing?

A

Autopilot- manually disengage at touchdown

Autothrottle- disengages 2 seconds after touchdown

200
Q

Can I autoland single engine?

A

No, 2 engine flaps 30 or 40 only.

201
Q

What powers the two IRUs?

A
  • 115 volt AC (L: AC stby bus and R: AC tansfer bus 2)

- 28 volt DC power as a backup (switched hot battery bus)

202
Q

What does the ON DC light mean?

A

IRU is on DC power. Also sounds ground crew call horn.

203
Q

What does the DC FAIL light mean?

A

IRU DC backup power is not normal

204
Q

How long does IRU alignment take?

A

5-17 minutes

205
Q

What speed will VNAV maintain for an engine failure on takeoff?

A

Between V2 and V2+20

206
Q

When does the CDU “Drag Required” display?

A

Airspeed 10 knots or more above target speed

207
Q

When can I not use IAN approach mode?

A

Circling
RNAV RNP
Approaches not in the FMS
Approaches requiring cold temp altitude corrections

208
Q

Max N1 reduction for takeoff?

A

25%

209
Q

What is the min oxygen pressure?

A

1000 PSI

210
Q

What is the min oil quantity?

A

12 quarts

Delta (8 decks)

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