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Delta > Procedures > Flashcards

Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What is the min RVR for takeoff for an FO?

A

1600

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2
Q

What is the min RVR for takeoff for a Captain?

A

500 - no HUD and 2 RVR

300 - HUD and 3 RVR

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3
Q

Where are crosswind limits?

A

Vol 1 Supplementary procedures

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4
Q

When do I need new paperwork if under or over fueled?

A

Under by 800 lbs or over by 1000 lbs.

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5
Q

Trim setting in the FMS is good if within?

A

0.75 units

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6
Q

What is the PF takeoff brief approaching the runway?

A

RDFHAA

Runway, Departure, First fix, Heading, Altitude, Airspeed

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7
Q

What are the engine indications after a good start?

A

2-4-6-6

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8
Q

How do I set up an approach?

A

2-2-2 plus 2

2 radios
2 courses
2 mins
Flaps and brakes

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9
Q

What are the lights supposed to look like during an overheat test?

A

3 over 2

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10
Q

What are the lights supposed to look like during a fire test?

A

5 over 6

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11
Q

What are the lights supposed to look like during a cargo fire test?

A

2 over 5

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12
Q

How long do I push the #2 stall warning test?

A

5 sec

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13
Q

How long do I push the GPWS test?

A

Less than 2 sec

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14
Q

Which position does the ignition go for the first flight of the day?

A

Right. After that, it rotates with the pilot flying

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15
Q

When do I need a departure alternate?

A

When below landing mins (at least 1800 RVR).

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16
Q

How long do I need to warm up the engines on taxi out?

A

2 min

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17
Q

How long do I need to cool the engines on taxi in?

A

3 min

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18
Q

When do I abort an engine start?

A
  1. Fuel spar valve light don’t extinguish.
  2. No EGT 10 sec after idle detent
  3. EGT rapidly rises (gets ahead of N2).
  4. N1 or N2 don’t rise with EGT.
  5. No oil pressure after engine is stabilized at idle.
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19
Q

What approach category?

A

800/900 - D

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20
Q

What is the min runway width?

A

148’ (or 100’ with stipulations)

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21
Q

What is the min runway length?

A

700- 7000’

800/900- 8000’

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22
Q

If weather is below 4000’ and 3/4, what is required?

A

Autopilot/FD or HUD until visual

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23
Q

What is the flap extension sequence?

A

1-5-15-25-30/40

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24
Q

When do I come out of reverse on landing roll?

A

Start reducing at 80 it’s, idle by taxi speed, stow after engines are at idle.

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25
Q

What are my callouts on landing?

A

Speedbrakes up

80 knots

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26
Q

What are my callouts as the PF on a go around?

A

Go around, power, pitch
Flaps 15
Gear up
At 1000, flaps 5, remain in TOGA

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27
Q

What are my callouts as the PM on a go around?

A

TOGA verified
Positive rate
LNAV is active

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28
Q

What are my callouts on takeoff?

A 
80 knots, throttle hold, thrust normal
V1 (automated)
Rotate
Positive rate
LNAV active
VNAV speed
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29
Q

When do I pull the red circuit breakers

A

Ground time will exceed 2 hours

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30
Q

What are the min RVR requirements for landing?

A

My mins - 1600

Captain mins- 1400 for ILS SA, 1000 for CAT II

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31
Q

What do I reference if I have inoperative equipment?

A

QRH green tab - Approach Requirements

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32
Q

If flying something other than an ILS CAT I, what should I reference?

A

Approach Guide in the VOL 1

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33
Q

What do I need to display for all approaches?

A

VSD

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34
Q

When do I run the descent checklist?

A

18000’

35
Q

When do I run the approach checklist?

A

10,000’

36
Q

If temperature is below -35 C, idle engines for?

A

2 min

37
Q

What do I have to do if below 3C and engine anti ice is required?

A

Runup - 70% N1 for 30 sec every 30 min. If freezing rain, drizzle, snow, runup 70% N1 for 1 sec every 10 min

38
Q

When is a standing takeoff required?

A

Less than 3C (SAT) and engine anti ice is required

39
Q

Under what runway condition can I NOT takeoff?

A

Braking action NIL
>0.5” standing water
>4” dry snow

40
Q

When does engine anti ice need to be on?

A

When below 10 degrees TAT (OAT on the ground) and in visible moisture. Does NOT need to be on in Climb/Cruise if below -40 SAT.

41
Q

What do I need to do if in moderate or greater icing?

A

Runups 80% N1 for 1 second

42
Q

Don’t use wing anti ice above?

A

350

43
Q

When do I need a destination alternate (with the exemption)?

A

Domestic- 2000’ and 3
If ILS CAT I- 1000’ and 3
If ILS CAT II/III- 1000’ and 2

44
Q

When do I start a descent?

A

10-15 NM prior to the top of descent

45
Q

What is the engine shutdown big 4 tasks?

A

Swap em
Chop em
Let em up
Let em in

46
Q

What are the min oil quantities?

A

12 quarts for dispatch
13 quarts to shutdown at a non-mx base
16 quarts to shutdown at a mx base

47
Q

What is the min hydraulic quantity at shutdown?

A

No RF indication

48
Q

What is the min oxygen pressure?

A

1000 PSI

49
Q

What are 4 big gotchas just prior to the FAF?

A

Approach mode
Second autopilot
Heading to top
Set missed approach altitude

50
Q

When do I have to notify dispatch?

A
  • Lateral deviations > 100 NM
  • Altitude deviations > 4000’ for more than 30 minutes
  • ETA change more than 15 minutes
  • Any change that will cause fuel to go below FAR fuel reserves
  • Greater than planned fuel consumption
51
Q

Where are takeoff and landing visibility requirements located?

A

Ops Specs section of Airway Manual

52
Q

What are the WDR contaminant codes?

A 
D - Dry
W - Wet
I - Icy 
Q - Quarter clutter (1/4 inch)
H - Half clutter (1/2 inch)
53
Q

Can I get dry credit on a wet grooved runway?

A

No

54
Q

What does TAXI FUEL BURN mean on the WDR?

A

Must burn min taxi fuel prior to takeoff to use those numbers

55
Q

Which MEL items should appear on the WDR?

A

Ones that state “dispatch approval required”

56
Q

When is a new WDR required?

A

Change of 1000 lbs

Change of 0.5% MAC

57
Q

Where do I find abnormal takeoff and landing distances?

A

ODM abnormals section

58
Q

What assumptions are used in the landing distances in the ODM?

A
  • Max manual braking
  • 1500’ air distance
  • Demonstrated landing performance
  • Operating engines at max reverse, except hydraulic failures
  • Standard day
59
Q

When is a full IRU alignment required?

A

Cat II navigation

First flight of day

60
Q

When will LNAV become active if armed on the ground?

A

50’, if active leg is within 3 NM and 5 degrees of runway heading

61
Q

What CDU page does each pilot display for takeoff?

A

PM - Legs

PF - Takeoff Ref

62
Q

How much of a derate does Climb 1 and Climb 2 give you?

A

10% and 20%

63
Q

What is the thrust mode for a V/S climb?

A

MCP Speed

64
Q

What is the thrust mode for a LVL CHG climb?

A

N1

65
Q

What is the thrust mode for a VNAV Speed climb?

A

N1

66
Q

What happens if excessive V/S is selected in a climb?

A

Reverts to LVL CHG

67
Q

What is the recommended method to descend when > 50 NM from top of descent?

A

Altitude intervention and then re-enter new cruise altitude in the box

68
Q

How much altitude do I lose in an idle descent?

A

1000’ every 3 miles

69
Q

When does Mach change to IAS?

A

300 knots

70
Q

Can I manually enter a block altitude?

A

No

71
Q

How are TOD and TOC points shown on the ND?

A

Green circles

72
Q

What is the scratchpad message within 5 NM of TOD if a lower altitude has not been selected?

A

Reset MCP altitude

73
Q

What happens if you don’t descend at the TOD?

A

VNAV PATH changes to ALT HOLD

74
Q

When does the PM have to verify FLARE Armed on a dual autopilot approach?

A

500’

75
Q

When does the second autopilot have to be engaged on a dual autopilot approach?

A

800’

76
Q

When does nose up trim occur on a dual autopilot approach?

A

400’

77
Q

When is GA armed?

A

Below 2000’

Flaps not up

Glideslope captured

78
Q

When is an autopilot go around available?

A

Dual autopilot approach, when flare is armed

79
Q

What are the FMA modes on a go around?

A

Autothrottle G/A.

Roll- LNAV (400’ if Flare armed, 50’ if not)

Pitch- TO/GA.

80
Q

What is the commanded airspeed on a go around?

A

Airspeed for existing flap based on max takeoff weights.

81
Q

What is the Autothrottle mode with two pushes on the TOGA switch?

A

N1

82
Q

What is min fuel

A

700/800 - 3600 lbs

900 - 4000 lbs

(Fuel for holding at 1500’ for 30 min and one approach).

83
Q

What is emergency fuel

A

3000 lbs

(Fuel for one 1500’ downwind pattern).

Delta (8 decks)

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