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Delta > Maneuvers > Flashcards

Maneuvers Flashcards

1
Q

What speed is RTO armed?

A

90 knots

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2
Q

What big 4 items do I abort for between 80 knots and V1?

A
  1. Engine fire
  2. Engine failure
  3. Windshear
  4. Aircraft incapable of flight
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3
Q

When does the rudder become effective on takeoff?

A

40-60 knots

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4
Q

What should I fine tune my N1 setting to on takeoff?

A

-0 to +1

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5
Q

Nose wheel steering is not recommended above?

A

30 knots

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6
Q

What are the FO callouts for a rejected takeoff?

A

“Speedbrakes up” or “no speedbrakes”

80 knots

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7
Q

Can directional control be maintained with asymmetric reverse?

A

No

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8
Q

Stabilized approach criteria at 1000’?

A
  1. Configured
  2. 1000’ per minute max
  3. Aligned with runway
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9
Q

Stabilized approach criteria at 500’?

A
  1. On speed

2. Engines stable

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10
Q

Stall recovery steps?

A

PUSH
ROLL
POWER
STABILIZE

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11
Q

Steps to take at 400’ after an engine failure on takeoff

A

RAT

Roll mode
Autothrottle off
Tower call

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12
Q

Steps to take at 1000’ after an engine failure on takeoff

A

BAT

Bug flaps 1 speed
APU start
Trim rudder

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13
Q

What speed after an ending failure on takeoff?

A

V2 to V2+20

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14
Q

What to rotate to with engine failure on takeoff?

A

12 degrees

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15
Q

Steps to take after reaching flaps 1 speed after an engine failure on takeoff

A

LCAN

Level change
Continuous thrust
After takeoff checklist
Non normal checklist

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16
Q

Terrain avoidance maneuver

A
  • Disengage autopilot and Autothrottles
  • Wings Level
  • Max Power
  • 20 degrees up
  • Speedbrakes in
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17
Q

Wind shear escape maneuver

A
  • Disconnect autopilot and autothrottles
  • Press TOGA
  • Max thrust
  • Wings level, pitch 15 degrees
  • Retract speedbrakes
18
Q

For a visual approach, what do I set in the MCP if there is no underlying approach?

A

1500’ AFE

19
Q

What are my wind additives for landing?

A

1/2 Headwind component, full gust component, up to 15 knots

20
Q

What is the minimum RNAV RNP value?

A

0.10. Or as limited on the approach plate.

21
Q

What is the rapid descent procedure?

A

SPIN
PUSH
SPIN
PULL

22
Q

What is the touchdown zone defined as?

A

First 3000’ or first third of the runway, whichever is less

23
Q

Can I continue a Cat I or II ILS if weather goes below mins?

A

Yes, if inside the FAF

24
Q

When should I turn base on a visual approach from a downwind?

A

A V/B of 6 or less is ideal

25
Q

What parameters define wind shear?

A
  • 500’ per minute VSI change
  • 5 degrees pitch change
  • 15 knots airspeed change
  • 1 dot glideslope change
26
Q

When do I do memory items for an engine fire on takeoff?

A

Gear up AND 400 feet

27
Q

What do I reference after a rejected takeoff?

A

Post RTO considerations in QRH section 0

28
Q

3 ways to detect windshear?

A
  1. Radar- predictive cautions and warnings
  2. GPWS- reactive
  3. Crew
29
Q

What is the post windshear recovery?

A

Set 15 degrees pitch

Takeoff or go around procedures

30
Q

When to configure flaps 15 and gear?

A

3 Miles to FAF
2300 RA
Glideslope case break

31
Q

What are circling mins for Delta?

A

1000 and 3, or Cat D, whichever is higher

32
Q

What is the circling radius for a diamond-C from 1000’-3000’?

A

3.7 NM

33
Q

What two extra things do I do when setting up a circle?

A

Fix page - 4 mile ring (gives me a point to start descent from 1000’)

V/B on descent page

34
Q

What do I do at circling MDA?

A

Alt Hold

Set missed approach altitude

35
Q

What is the big thing I lose on a hydraulic system A failure?

A

Normal gear extension

36
Q

What is the big thing I lose on a hydraulic system B failure?

A

Normal slat/flap extension

37
Q

What is the max speed for alt flaps?

A

230, because leading edge devices extend immediately to the full down position and cannot be retracted

38
Q

What is the max flaps when using alt flaps?

A

15

39
Q

Can you do an LPR for abnormals?

A

No

40
Q

Where are crosswind limits?

A

Vol 1, supplementary procedures

Delta (8 decks)

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