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Maneuvers Flashcards

1
Q

What speed is RTO armed?

A

90 knots

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2
Q

What big 4 items do I abort for between 80 knots and V1?

A
  1. Engine fire
  2. Engine failure
  3. Windshear
  4. Aircraft incapable of flight
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3
Q

When does the rudder become effective on takeoff?

A

40-60 knots

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4
Q

What should I fine tune my N1 setting to on takeoff?

A

-0 to +1

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5
Q

Nose wheel steering is not recommended above?

A

30 knots

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6
Q

What are the FO callouts for a rejected takeoff?

A

“Speedbrakes up” or “no speedbrakes”

80 knots

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7
Q

Can directional control be maintained with asymmetric reverse?

A

No

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8
Q

Stabilized approach criteria at 1000’?

A
  1. Configured
  2. 1000’ per minute max
  3. Aligned with runway
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9
Q

Stabilized approach criteria at 500’?

A
  1. On speed

2. Engines stable

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10
Q

Stall recovery steps?

A

PUSH
ROLL
POWER
STABILIZE

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11
Q

Steps to take at 400’ after an engine failure on takeoff

A

RAT

Roll mode
Autothrottle off
Tower call

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12
Q

Steps to take at 1000’ after an engine failure on takeoff

A

BAT

Bug flaps 1 speed
APU start
Trim rudder

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13
Q

What speed after an ending failure on takeoff?

A

V2 to V2+20

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14
Q

What to rotate to with engine failure on takeoff?

A

12 degrees

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15
Q

Steps to take after reaching flaps 1 speed after an engine failure on takeoff

A

LCAN

Level change
Continuous thrust
After takeoff checklist
Non normal checklist

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16
Q

Terrain avoidance maneuver

A
  • Disengage autopilot and Autothrottles
  • Wings Level
  • Max Power
  • 20 degrees up
  • Speedbrakes in
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17
Q

Wind shear escape maneuver

A
  • Disconnect autopilot and autothrottles
  • Press TOGA
  • Max thrust
  • Wings level, pitch 15 degrees
  • Retract speedbrakes
18
Q

For a visual approach, what do I set in the MCP if there is no underlying approach?

A

1500’ AFE

19
Q

What are my wind additives for landing?

A

1/2 Headwind component, full gust component, up to 15 knots

20
Q

What is the minimum RNAV RNP value?

A

0.10. Or as limited on the approach plate.

21
Q

What is the rapid descent procedure?

A

SPIN
PUSH
SPIN
PULL

22
Q

What is the touchdown zone defined as?

A

First 3000’ or first third of the runway, whichever is less

23
Q

Can I continue a Cat I or II ILS if weather goes below mins?

A

Yes, if inside the FAF

24
Q

When should I turn base on a visual approach from a downwind?

A

A V/B of 6 or less is ideal

25
What parameters define wind shear?
- 500’ per minute VSI change - 5 degrees pitch change - 15 knots airspeed change - 1 dot glideslope change
26
When do I do memory items for an engine fire on takeoff?
Gear up AND 400 feet
27
What do I reference after a rejected takeoff?
Post RTO considerations in QRH section 0
28
3 ways to detect windshear?
1. Radar- predictive cautions and warnings 2. GPWS- reactive 3. Crew
29
What is the post windshear recovery?
Set 15 degrees pitch Takeoff or go around procedures
30
When to configure flaps 15 and gear?
3 Miles to FAF 2300 RA Glideslope case break
31
What are circling mins for Delta?
1000 and 3, or Cat D, whichever is higher
32
What is the circling radius for a diamond-C from 1000’-3000’?
3.7 NM
33
What two extra things do I do when setting up a circle?
Fix page - 4 mile ring (gives me a point to start descent from 1000’) V/B on descent page
34
What do I do at circling MDA?
Alt Hold | Set missed approach altitude
35
What is the big thing I lose on a hydraulic system A failure?
Normal gear extension
36
What is the big thing I lose on a hydraulic system B failure?
Normal slat/flap extension
37
What is the max speed for alt flaps?
230, because leading edge devices extend immediately to the full down position and cannot be retracted
38
What is the max flaps when using alt flaps?
15
39
Can you do an LPR for abnormals?
No
40
Where are crosswind limits?
Vol 1, supplementary procedures

Delta (8 decks)

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