Systems 3 Flashcards
Where is the environmental control panel located?
A. Upper pilot’s instrument panel
B. Lower copilot’s instrument panel
C. Pilot’s side panel
D. Overhead panel
B
What system uses an electric motor to drive its compressor unit and draws a lot of power?
A. Vapor Cycle Cooling Subsystem (VCCS)
B. Air Conditioning Unit (ACU)
C. Forward Compressor Conditioning Unit (FCCU)
D. None of the above
A
What equipment provides ventilation and cooling air for the flight deck?
A. Flight Deck compressor fan
B. Cabin cooling fan
C. Avionics blower
D. Forward and aft evaporator blowers
D
Where is the compressor in the VCCS located?
A. Aft compartment
B. Left engine accessory gearbox
C. Avionics rack
D. Nose
D
T/F: The electric heat subsystem (EHS) can provide heating while airborne.
False
What is the primary means of cabin pressurization and temperature control in flight?
A. Air Cycle Unit (ACU)
B. Vapor Cycle Cooling Subsystem (VCCS)
C. Avionics Blowers
D. Electric Heat Subsystem
A
The ACU uses engine bleed air to provide:
A. Anti-ice to the horizontal stabilizer
B. Pressurization to the aft compartment
C. Heating, cooling and pressurization
D. Hot air to the coffee maker
C
With the BLEED AIR switch in NORM,
A. The temperature will be constant
B. Both engine bleed air valves are open
C. The ACU is not used
D. The right engine bleed air valve is closed
B
T/F: The ACU can operate completely on the air output from one engine.
True
With the MODE switch in AUTO FLDK, cooling will be controlled ________
A. By the crew using the TEMP switch to manually open/close the cabin temp valve
B. By sensors in both the cabin and the ducts
C. on the flight deck only, not in the cabin
D. By temperature sensors in the ducts only
B
The cabin pressurization controls are located ______
A. On the pilot’s instrument panel
B. On the copilot’s instrument panel
C. On the center console
D. On the overhead panel
B
T/F: The CABIN CLIMB gauge shows how rapidly cabin altitude is changing.
True
Wing leading edges are heated by _______
A. Engine bleed air
B. Electrical heaters inside the wings
C. The avionics blowers
D. Wing heating blankets
A
The ICING light will illuminate when _________
A. The ultrasonic prob detects 0.02 inches of ice
B. The AOA vane detects ice in it
C. The pitot heat system is turned off
D. The wing duct temperature falls below 140ºF
A
The WG ICE TEMP LO annunciator illuminates when the wing duct temperature falls below ________
A. 100ºF
B. 140ºF
C. 160ºF
D. 200ºF
B
The engine cowls are heated _________
A. By bleed air
B. By electrical heaters
C. By friction
D. By the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice
A
If the main avionics rack blower fails, flow pressure sensors cause the ______ annunciator to illuminate.
A. ICING
B. AV BLO FAIL
C. AV STBY BLO
D. STBY BLO FAIL
B
The electric heat subsystem (EHS) consists of how many heaters?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
C
The ACU (Air Cycle Unit) distributes _____ and ____ air.
A. Warm; moist
B. Cool; conditioned
C. Hot; cold
D. Dry; hot
B
The VCCS and ACU are controlled by the crew using the ______
A. Heater select switches on the pilot’s instrument panel
B. Overhead panel
C. Environmental Control Panel
D. Air Conditioning Master Switch
C
The _____ provides preflight, inflight, and post flight air conditioning for the flight deck and avionics rack.
A. EHS
B. Pilot’s electric fan
C. VCCS
D. Swamp cooler
C
The electric heat subsystem needs external power to operate.
A. True
B. False
A
The ACU (Air Cycle Unit) uses _____ to provide heating, cooling and pressurization.
A. The VCCS
B. An electric powered compressor
C. A propane compressor
D. Engine bleed air
D
With the BLEED AIR switch in L ENG, the left valve is _____ and right valve is ______.
A. Closed; closed
B. Open; open
C. Open; closed
D. Closed; open
C
When the MODE switch on the Environmental Control Panel is in the AUTO DUCT position, the cabin air temperature valve is positioned based on temperature sensed in the _______.
A. Wing Piccolo Tube
B. Ram air intake
C. Duct system
D. Avionics rack compartment
C
T/F: The windshield has no ice or rain protection.
False
When the MODE switch on the Environmental Control Panel is in ______, the crew uses the TEMP switch to manually open/close the cabin temperature control valve.
A. ON
B. AUTO FLDK
C. MAN DUCT
D. AUTO DUCT
C
The _____ switch opens a valve to allow cool air to flow to the cabin aft ceiling air conditioning chamber, providing additional cooling to the aft cabin.
A. AFT CEILING COOL
B. VCCS
C. AFT CABIN COOL
D. CABIN OUTLET
D
When will the load shed controller automatically shut off the VCCS?
A. During Engine Start
B. When using windshield De-ice
C. When using horizontal stabilizer anti-ice/deice
D. All of the above
D
Which VCCS component removes heat from the refrigerant following compression?
A. Compressor
B. Cooling coils
C. Condenser/heat exchanger
D. Blower Units
C
Placing the AUX TEMP CONTROL rotary switch to the _______ position applies power to the VCCS.
AUX COOL
How is air temperature controlled with the AUX TEMP CONTROL switch in the ELEC HEAT 1 position?
Air temperature cannot be controlled by the crew when using the electric heat subsystem. The air temp is automatically maintained at 120ºF to 150ºF at the outlet.
T/F: When the BLEED AIR switch position(s) is in L ENG, R ENG, NORM, or HIGH, ACU cooling will be provided to the flight deck.
True
In which MODE switch position will sensors on the flight deck be used to help maintain a constant flight deck temperature?
A. AUTO FLDK
B. AUTO DUCT
C. MAN DUCT
A
For the ACU to function, the BLEED AIR switch must be in what position?
A. NORM
B. L ENG or R ENG
C. HIGH
D. Any of the above
D
For most training flights, the MODE switch will be in the _____ position.
A. CABIN OUTLET
B. AUTO FLDK
C. MAN DUCT
D. AUTO DUCT
B
A passenger seated in the rear of the aircraft complains that the aft cabin is too hot. How can you increase cool airflow into the aft portion of the cabin?
A. Select AUTO DUCT
B. Turn the TEMP knob toward cool
C. Press the CABIN OUTLET pushbutton
D. Switch to the MAN DUCT mode
C
Pressurization is provided by ______
A. Bleed air through the ACU
B. Bleed air through the pressurization unit
C. The oxygen cylinder
D. The vapor cycle unit
A
Cabin pressure is maintained by regulating the amount of _______
A. Bleed air exiting the engines
B. Air cycle air entering the cabin
C. Air leaving the cabin
D. Vapor cycle air entering the cabin
C
Prior to takeoff the cabin rate of climb knob should be set to the _____ O’clock position.
A. 2
B. 7
C. 10
D. 12
C
The CABIN PRESSURE LO annunciator illuminates when the cabin altitude reaches ________.
A. 18,000ft (+/- 500)
B. 13,000ft (+/- 1500)
C. 9,500ft (+/- 500)
D. 5,000ft (+/- 500)
C
When operating properly, the outflow valves will keep cabin pressure differential from exceeding _____ PSID.
A. 10.2
B. 9.2
C. 8.3
D. 3.5
B
Prolonged operation with bleed air in EMER can result in _______.
A. Over pressurization
B. Excessive rate of climb on the CABIN RATE OF CLIMB indicator
C. Extreme cold
D. Melted trim panels in the rear portion of the cabin
D
The VCCS provides ________.
A. The primary cooling prior to engine start and auxiliary cooling in the air
B. All aircraft cooling
C. Primary cooling on the ground
D. Primary cooling in the air
A
ELECT HEAT 1&2 activates _________
A. Inflight heating
B. One heater
C. Two heaters
D. Three heaters
D
Ground air provides fresh air to the cabin ___________.
A. In flight only
B. On the ground only
C. Any time below 10,000ft
D. Any time selected
B
What action should be taken in the event of the AV BLO FAIL annunciator illumination?
A. Turn on AUX COOL
B. Press the AV STBY BLO switch
C. Select GND AIR
D. Select BLOW 1&2
B
The T-1A is pressurized by _______.
A. The aft evaporator/blower unit
B. The vapor cycle unit
C. Engine bleed air
D. The oxygen bottle
C
The temperature in the cabin during normal inflight operations is controlled by ____________.
A. Mixing hot bleed air and bleed air that has been cooled
B. Selecting the amount of hot air entering the cabin
C. Selecting the amount of cold air entering the cabin
D. Turning the VCCS on and off
A
When planning to cruise at FL330 the cabin controller should be set to __________.
A. 35,000ft
B. 34,000ft
C. 33,000ft
D. 32,000ft
B
The use of the EMER position on the bleed air knob is _______.
A. Acceptable if flight does not continue for more than 1 hour
B. Acceptable until you can do an enroute descent below FL180
C. An emergency and should not be prolonged any longer than necessary
D. Unacceptable
C
The avionics standby blower _________.
A. Provides an alternate source for the avionics on the flight deck
B. Provides an additional source of cooling for the avionics rack in the back of the cabin
C. Uses fresh air from outside the aircraft
D. Uses the Air Cycle Unit system
B
Which of the following is capable of cooling the aircraft cabin prior to engine start?
A. ACU (Air Cycle Unit)
B. Avionics Standby Blower
C. Outflow valves
D. Vapor Cycle Cooling Subsystem (VCCS)
D
Selecting ELEC HEAT 1&2 on the AUX TEMP CONTROL switch ________
A. Activates 4 heaters
B. Activates 3 heaters
C. Activates 2 heaters
D. Adds a second heater to an already operating heater
B
For the ACU to function, the BLEED AIR switch must be in what to function?
A. NORM
B. L ENG or R ENG
C. HIGH
D. Any of the above
D
For most training flights, the MODE switch will be in the ______ position.
A. CABIN OUTLET
B. MAN DUCT
C. AUTO DUCT
D. AUTO FLDK
D
A passenger seated in the rear of the aircraft complains that the aft cabin is too hot. How can you increase the cool airflow into the aft portion of the cabin?
A. Select AUTO DUCT
B. Turn the TEMP knob toward cool
C. Press the CABIN OUTLET pushbutton
D. Switch to the MAN DUCT mode
C
The vapor cycle cooling system can be used ______.
A. On the ground or in the air
B. On the ground only
C. On the ground only with the ground power unit
D. In the air only
A
The electric heat subsystem ____________.
A. Can only be used on the ground with the aircraft’s battery or on external power
B. Can only be used on the ground when connected to external power
C. Is limited to one unit in the air due to load consideration
D. Can be used on the ground or as a back-up in the air
B
With the AUX TEMP CONTROL switch in ELECT HEAT 1&2, the electric subsystem uses ______.
A. Excess heat from the generators
B. Two electrical heating elements
C. Three electrical heating elements
D. One electrical heating element
C
The Ice Detector Probe ________.
A. Is continuously heated in flight
B. Must be tested during preflight to ensure proper operation
C. Receives power through its heater through the L AOA switch
D. Illuminates an annunciator when it accumulates 0.02 inches of ice.
D
Which of the following statements concerning the T-1A engine anti-ice system is correct?
A. The engine nacelles are warmed by electrical heater elements.
B. The T0 probe is continually heated when the engine is running.
C. The bleed air inlet valve closes when DC electrical power is applied and opens when power is removed.
D. The L or R ENG ICE TEMP LO annunciator extinguishes when the temperature of the air in the nacelle reaches 100ºF.
C
T/F: Do not operate the engine anti-ice while airborne if temperatures exceed 10ºC.
False
The red WING OV HT annunciator illuminates when ____.
A. Any one of the over temperature switches senses a temperature in excess of either 212ºF or 350ºF
B. The temperature switch closes as the temperature in the leading edge passes 140ºF
C. The three overtemperature switches sense temp in excess of 350ºF
D. The temperature switch senses a temperature in excess of 350ºF
A
Which of the following statements is true regarding wing anti-ice system operation?
A. Two wing anti-ice switches are located on the overhead panel
B. The wing anti-ice system uses a combination of engine bleed air and ram air.
C. The amber BL AIR DCT FAIL annunciator indicates high temperature in the wing leading edge
D. The wing leading edge deice system uses a combination of bleed air and electric heater elements
B
Should the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice system fail during flight, continue to your destination using the ________.
A. De-ice backup system
B. De-ice system
C. Either of the above
D. None of the above
A
Use the wing anti-ice and de-ice systems on the ground ________.
A. As necessary to clear ice from the horizontal stabilizer
B. Only on occasions where significant weather is present
C. When weather conditions are favorable for ice accumulation
D. For testing only
D
The backup de-ice system is operated by placing the switch in the ________.
A. MANUAL position for 30 seconds
B. TEST position for 20 seconds
C. MANUAL position momentarily
D. ON position for 30 seconds
C
Placing the H STAB ANTI ICE in the TEST position _______.
A. Simulates an overheat condition
B. Is necessary prior to switching the system OFF
C. Provides a continuity test of the ANTI ICE system
D. Creates a 10 second delay before the system switches to the ON position
A
The PLT STATIC rocker switch on the overhead control panel controls the power to heating elements in ______.
A. The two static ports on the pilot’s side of the aircraft
B. One static port on each side of the aircraft
C. All four static ports if the copilot’s system fails
D. Normally one port on each side, but all 4 if the copilot’s system fails
B
The PITOT HT OFF annunciator will illuminate when _________.
A. Either pitot heater fails
B. Both pitot heaters fail
C. Either pitot heater is turned OFF
D. Any of the above
D
What is the maximum airspeed for the windshield wipers?
200 KIAS
What significant anomaly results from using the HIGH setting for electric heat to the windshield?
A. It increases airflow to the leading edge anti-ice systems
B. It results in a 5% reduction in effective engine thrust
C. It causes 50% increase in landing roll
D. It causes erratic and unreliable magnetic compass headings
D
The wing anti-ice system contains which of the following components?
A. 12 heater mats
B. Piccolo tubes and an ejector
C. Laminate heating elements
D. Leading edge electrical heating elements
B
T/F: The wing anti-ice system uses a combination of engine bleed air and ram air.
True
Fresh ambient air is introduced into the wing leading edge by ________.
A. Ram air scoops located in the nose of the aircraft
B. Ram air scoops located at the root of each wing and near each wing tip
C. Air scoops located on the lower fuselage section of the aircraft
D. Ram air scoops in each engine nacelle
B
Which of the following is true concerning the horizontal stabilizer anti-ice/de-ice?
A. The anti-ice system is primary; the de-ice system is secondary
B. The de-ice system is primary; the anti-ice system is secondary
C. Both are equally important and can operate independently
D. Neither system is primary. You must have both operating to have effective anti-ice/de-ice operation.
D
The horizontal stabilizer deice backup system is for use when _________.
A. Both the anti-ice and de-ice systems malfunction
B. You encounter extra heavy icing conditions
C. Either the anti-ice or de-ice systems malfunction
D. Your flight weather briefing calls for it
C
The HIGH setting on the windshield switches causes heating of the _________.
A. Broad area of the windshield at a high temperature
B. Lower section of the windshield at a high temperature
C. Entire windshield at a high temperature
D. Defog air to a high temperature
B
The T-1A windshield defog system delivers conditioned air to the __________.
A. Windshield
B. Floor
C. Either of the above
D. Neither of the above
C
Which of the following uses electric heat for ice protection?
A. Wing leading edge
B. Horizontal stabilizer leading edge
C. Flightdeck side window
D. Defog
B
How is the windshield ice protection initiated?
A. Turn the windshield control switch ON
B. Turn the defog switch to ON
C. Turn the windshield control switch to LOW
D. Press the defog blower switchlight
C
What circumstance allows you to operate the wing anti-ice system on the ground?
A. Preflight check/landing rollout
B. Before taxi check
C. Ice accumulation before takeoff
D. After starting engines with less than 10 minutes before takeoff
A
T/F: You can operate the wing anti-ice on the ground during the pre-flight check and during the landing rollout.
True
If the horizontal stab anti-ice and deice fail, you should not use more than how many degrees of flaps?
A. 10º
B. 14º
C. 9º
D. 20º
A
T/F: Using high heat for clearing the windshield during takeoff and landing is prohibited.
True
Oxygen is not available to anyone unless the ________.
A. PASS OXYGEN knob is pulled
B. Pressure is above 1850 PSI
C. SYS READY knob is pulled
D. Pressure is above 200 PSI
C
The passenger oxygen subsystem is charged when ______
A. The lanyard is pulled
B. SYS READY knob is pulled
C. PASS OCYGEN knob is pulled
D. SYS READY and PASS OXYGEN knobs are pulled
D
The green overboard discharge indicator will be missing _______.
A. At any pressure above 1850 PSI
B. If the pressure goes below 200 PSI
C. If the pressure has exceeded 2700 PSI
D. When the crew has used all the oxygen
C
The pilots are already on oxygen because the cabin altitude rose to 15,000ft. To start the flow of oxygen to the aft crew oxygen masks,
A. The copilot must pull the SYS READY knob
B. The copilot must pull the PASS OXYGEN knob
C. The passenger must pull down on the mask/lanyard
D. All of the above
B
The redline pressure on the oxygen pressure gauge is _____ PSI.
A. 2700
B. 2000
C. 1850
D. 1600
B
To determine the amount of oxygen available in minutes,
A. Estimate 100 minutes of oxygen per person regardless of altitude.
B. Refer to the Oxygen Duration in Minutes figure in Section I of the TO 1T-1A-1.
C. Estimate 60 minutes at 10000ft and increase the time by 5 minutes for every 5000ft climbed.
D. Estimate 60 minutes at 10000ft and decrease the time by 5 minutes for every 5000ft climbed
B
On preflight you notice the Green Overboard Discharge Indicator is missing. What does this mean?
A. It will not be possible to pressurize the aircraft.
B. There is no oxygen in the passenger system but the crew system is normal.
C. All oxygen has been vented overboard.
D. The oxygen system is operational and ready for flight.
C
Neither the crew nor the passenger oxygen system will function unless the _________
A. SYS READY knob is pulled
B. PASS OXYGEN knob is pulled
C. Cabin altitude is above 10,000ft
D. Cabin depressurizes
A
If the SYS READY knob is pulled, the passenger system will get oxygen pressure once ___________.
A. The aircraft is airborne
B. The PASS OXYGEN knob is pulled
C. The crew chief turns it on
D. When the aircraft passes 18,000ft +/-1,000ft
B
Climbing rapidly out of Yuma, Arizona, in mid-Summer, you notice that the oxygen pressure has dropped by 10% after stabilized at FL320. This indicates ________.
A. Oxygen used to support pressurization
B. A cabin decompression
C. A leak in the oxygen cylinder
D. Normal cooling of the oxygen cylinder
D
To ensure that crew members in the aft cabin get oxygen from their crew masks, the copilot must pull the
A. PASS OXYGEN knob
B. SYS READY knob
C. O2 flow circuit breaker
D. None of the above
A
The oxygen cylinder in the nose of the aircraft provides
A. Oxygen only above 10,000ft
B. Oxygen only above FL180
C. Oxygen only above FL250
D. All crew and passengers oxygen
D
Why should the crew be careful about use of emergency pressurization for prolonged periods of time?
The air entering the cabin when in emergency is extremely hot; it is hot enough to melt plastic trim and maybe cause fumes.
During air conditioning emergency operation, how can temperature of the air be decreased?
The temperature of the air cannot be regulated, though it can be turned OFF. You should use emergency pressurization only as long as required. AUX COOL might introduce some cooling air.
If the DOOR UNLOCK annunciator illuminates, you should:
A. Remain as far from the door as possible with seat belts securely fastened
B. Ask either the jump or pilot not flying to go back and check the door pins
C. Increase the aircraft cabin pressurization to fully seal the door
D. Set the bleed air selector to EMER to fully seat the door
A
After switching the WINDSHIELD ANTI-ICE/DEICE switch to OFF, what should you do when a windshield overheat condition is indicated?
Push the WSHLD and WSHLD CONT circuit breakers for the affected side.
T/F: Flight in visible moisture without pitot heat may result in erratic operation of the MSI.
True
When activating the de-ice backup system, you hold the switch in the manual position ______
A. For 10 seconds
B. For 20 seconds
C. For 30 seconds
D. Momentarily
D
T/F: You should reduce the throttles prior to turning on the engine anti-ice.
False
Available full scale, selectable range for the T-1A weather is from _______ NM to ______ NM.
A. 10; 200
B. 10; 300
C. 5; 200
D. 5; 300
D
What color indicates a strong to very strong return on the weather radar display?
A. Green
B. Magenta
C. Yellow
D. Red
D
The aircrew can adjust the radar tilt ____ degrees in _____ degree increments using the TILT knob on the DCP.
A. -60; 0.25
B. -60; 0.5
C. -14; 0.25
D. -14; 0.5
C
T/F: Gain may be used to discriminate between stronger and weaker areas of precipitation.
True
Weather can be displayed on the EHSI in ____ mode by pressing the ______
A. ARC or MAP; weather button on the DSP
B. ARC; WX button on the DCP
C. ARC or MAP; WX LSK on the CDU
D. MAP; WX button on the MSP
A
With weather radar displayed on the EHSI, which device is used to adjust the range?
A. MFD
B. DSP
C. MSP
D. CDU
B
Precipitation attenuation is directly affected by moisture content. Which type of precipitation causes the most signal attenuation?
A. Rain
B. Snow
C. Wet Hail
D. Dry Hail
C
The T-1A weather radar system electronically compensates for for distance attenuation when a return is within ____.
A. 65 NM
B. 100 NM
C. 65 NM, only when GCS is selected.
D. The selected range
A
With a Present Position Map displayed on the MFD, you can overlay a weather radar display by pressing ______.
A. WX button on the DSP
B. WX LSK on the radar functions page of the CDU
C. MAP LSK on the CDU RDR FUNCTIONS page on the CDU
D. RADAR DISPLAY LSK on the MFD
D
Press the _____ to access the RADAR FUNCTIONS page on the CDU.
A. MFD MENU function button on the CDU
B. RDR CTL button on the DCP
C. MAP function button on the CDU
D. WX LSK on the MFD
B
Recommended tilt settings for standard departures and low altitude climbs (>10,000ft) are +5 degrees to +7 degrees because this allows you to see returns from __________
A. Below to slightly above your climb path
B. Well below to well above your climb path
C. Slightly below to well above your climb path
D. Co-altitude to slightly above your climb path
C
The recommended initial tilt setting while cruising between 10,000 and 20,000ft is -1 degree to -3 degrees adjusted to paint ground clutter in the outer _______
A. One-third of the display
B. One-fourth of the display
C. One-half of the display
D. Any of the above
A
What do squall lines look like on the radar display?
A. Rapid developing moderate to severe storms 50-200NM long
B. Short distances between the different color bands of a return
C. Narrower, finger-like returns that exert and slowly curl back
D. Shows up as a black area with tight color shifts at short ranges.
A
When the ______ function is activated, the weather radar display freezes for up to 5 minutes.
A. GND MAP
B. RADAR
C. HOLD
D. GCS
C
When using the GND MAP function, GCS wedge can occur with excessive _______.
A. Up tilt
B. Down tilt
C. Negative gain
D. Positive gain
B
Use lower _____ settings to operate the T-1A radar in ground mapping mode.
A. Range
B. Gain
C. Tilt
D. GCS
B
To activate the radar receiver/transceiver antenna (RTA) and the weather radar adapter (WXA), press the _______
A. WX button on the pilot or copilot DSP
B. RADAR DISPLAY LSK on the MFD MAP display
C. WX LSK on the CDU RADAR FUNCTIONS page followed by the RDR CTL button on the DCP
D. RDR CTL button on the DCP followed by the WX LSK on the CDU RADAR FUNCTIONS page
D
Which of the following is NOT true concerning the weather radar system?
A. Unable to separate weather targets in close proximity
B. Maximum weather target detection range is 150NM
C. Attenuation distortion may occur
D. Line of sight only
B
Which of the following lists of colors indicates the intensity of precipitation portrayed on the T-1A WX radar system, from least intense to most intense?
A. Green, yellow, red, magenta
B. Magenta, red, yellow, green
C. Yellow, magenta, green, red
D. Green, yellow, magenta, red
A
The radar antenna tilt can be manually adjusted ____ by the aircrew.
A. +/- 60º in 0.25º increments
B. +/- 60º in 0.5º increments
C. +/- 14º in 0.25º increments
D. +/- 14º in 0.5º increments
C
Which type of precipitation has the highest reflectivity and causes the most attenuation?
A. Dry hail
B. Wet hail
C. Rain
D. Snow
B
What are the two primary causes of weather radar attenuation?
Distance and precipitation
The T-1A Weather radar electronically compensates for distance attenuation when returns are within _____ NM.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 65
D. 100
C
Recommended settings for a standard departure climb below 10,000ft are 50NM and +5º to +7º tilt. This allows you to see targets _____________.
A. Well above and well below your flight path
B. Along and slightly below your flight path
C. Along your flight path, starting slightly below to well above
D. Along and well below your flight path
C
Why should you avoid using maximum gain during GND MAP operations?
A. False targets may paint on the radar at multiples of 40
B. Ground returns will not paint
C. The high gain setting generates excessive radar shadow
D. Individual targets will blend together.
D
You are in GND MAP mode at 10,000ft AGL. Initially, set the range to 50 NM and tilt to -1.5 to -2.0. Next, adjust tilt so ground clutter appears in the outer _____ of the display.
A. One-fourth
B. One-third
C. One-half
D. Two-thirds
B
Power is applied to the radar system any time the battery switch is ___________.
A. In standby
B. OFF
C. ON
D. OFF or ON
C
What color presented on the weather radar represents the most intense precipitation?
Magenta
Increased signal loss (attenuation) results from _________ distance and _________ precipitation.
A. Increased; increased
B. Increased; decreased
C. Decreased; decreased
D. Decreased; increased
A
If you observe a weather radar return that is depicted with yellow color on your radar display, you should assume it contains _______ precipitation intensity.
A. Light
B. Moderate
C. Very strong
D. Intense to extreme
B
A good reference for setting up the radar tilt when ground mapping is to have the ground returns appear in the ______.
A. Outer one-third of the screen
B. Inner one-third of the screen
C. Middle of the screen
D. Outer two-thirds of the screen
A
At ________ KTAS, a timer starts in the radar system and at the end of ________ seconds, the FMC automatically reverts to the system to radar mode standby.
A. 30; 30
B. 40; 45
C. 50; 60
D. 100; 60
C
In the heading mode, the roll angle commanded depends on the number of degrees to turn and the rate of turn. The maximum commanded roll is _____ degrees.
A. 25
B. 27
C. 30
D. 40
C
The flight director off (FD OFF) _________.
A. Removes steering and mode information when coupled to the autopilot
B. Has no function when coupled to the autopilot
C. Is used to uncouple the autopilot
D. Eliminates course information when coupled to the autopilot
B
Which of the following generates steering commands with HDG as the active lateral mode?
A. EHSI heading bug position
B. Current heading
C. Selected course sensor
D. Bearing pointer position
A
The pitch wheel is functional when the auto pilot is engaged and ________
A. Does not override glideslope capture.
B. Generates pitch command non-proportional to the amount of displacement
C. Overrides glideslope capture
D. Levels the aircraft when returned to the center detent position
A
If the turn knob is not in the detent (center) position when the autopilot is engaged, the autopilot ______
A. Reverts to heading mode
B. Reverts to navigation mode
C. Ignores commands from the turn knob until it is centered and then moved out of the detent position
D. Immediately enters a turn as commanded by the turn knob.
C
What are the initial indications on the EADI upon autopilot activation?
A. ROLL and PITCH
B. Heading (HDG) and altitude select (ALTS)
C. ROLL and altitude select (ALTS)
D. Heading (HDG) and PITCH
A
The turn knob __________.
A. Is spring loaded to a center detent position
B. Interrupts a localizer approach when coupled
C. Generates a roll command proportional to the amount of roll displacement
D. Commands immediate roll upon coupling the autopilot
C
The TRIM INT & A/P DISENG switch on the control yoke ________
A. Disengages the autopilot but leaves the yaw damper on
B. Momentarily interrupts the autopilot while retrimming the aircraft
C. Disengages both the autopilot and the yaw damper
D. Allows the autopilot to be engaged and disengaged without removing your hands from the yoke
C
Which autopilot control, when disengaged, causes another autopilot panel control to disengage also?
A. Yaw Damper Lever
B. Autopilot lever
C. Autopilot transfer button
D. Pitch Wheel
A
Moving the pitch wheel while in approach mode and glideslope capture ____________.
A. Is not recommended since pilot inputs will not be as accurate as those generated by the computer
B. Does not override the AP from maintaining glideslope
C. Can result in pilot induced oscillations on glideslope
D. Is not recommended unless the 1/2 bank mode is selected on the MSP
B
The go around button on the left throttle ________
A. Moves the throttles to the preselected Go-around %N1
B. Causes the aircraft to fly the go around profile entered in the FMS for the approach being flown
C. Disengages a yaw damper to allow the pilot to fly the aircraft without conflicting autopilot inputs
D. Generates a fixed pitchup command and holds the heading at the moment go-around was selected
D
Rotation of the autopilot turn knob after LOC capture with the APPR mode selected _______.
A. Is not recommended unless the 1/2 bank mode is selected on the MSP
B. Does not have an effect on the approach
C. Is not recommended because pilot inputs will cause S turns on final
D. Immediately disengages the autopilot
B
The turn knob ________
A. Is spring loaded to a center detent position
B. Interrupts a localizer approach when coupled
C. Generates a roll command proportional to the amount of knob displacement
D. Commands immediate roll upon coupling the autopilot
C
You have selected heading (HDG) as the flight director active lateral mode. What heading does the flight director use as a reference to generate steering commands?
A. EHSI heading bug position
B. Current heading
C. Selected course sensor
D. Bearing pointer position
A
The TRIM INT and A/P DISENG switch on the control yoke __________.
A. Disengages the autopilot but leaves the yaw damper on
B. Disengages both the autopilot and the Yaw Damper
C. Momentarily interrupts the autopilot while retrimming the aircraft
D. Allows the autopilot to be engaged and disengaged without moving the control yoke
B
T/F: Moving the pitch wheel on the autopilot control panel while on an ILS glideslope in the APP mode does not override the autopilot from maintaining glideslope.
True
After pressing the trim interrupt and AP disengage switch, disengagement of the autopilot is indicated on the EADI by a ___________.
A. Yellow flashing AP/R or AP/L and YD
B. Red flashing AP annunciation
C. Cyan AP annunciation
D. Red boxed FD annunciation
A
What is the maximum angle of bank commanded by the autopilot when using the roll knob?
30º
What is the maximum angle of bank commanded by the autopilot when using the heading mode?
27º
In order for the FMS to automatically advance to the next waypoint in the flight plan during coupled operations, the system must ________.
A. Be in AUTO mode
B. Be in the INHIBIT mode on a course defined leg
C. Have FMS selected on the BRG knob of the DSP
D. Either A or B
A
T/F: Manually moving the Yaw Damper Lever from the ENGAGED to the DISENGAGED position also causes the autopilot to disengage.
True
Manually moving the Autopilot lever from ENGAGED to DISENGAGED also causes the Yaw Damper to disengage.
False
If you engage the autopilot without having selected a lateral or vertical mode on the MSP, what modes become active?
A. Heading and Pitch
B. Pitch and Altitude Select
C. Roll and Pitch
D. Roll and Heading
C
T/F: When the altitude hold (ALT) mode is selected on the MSP, the flight director directs a vertical mode that maintains the altitude selected by the preselect function on the altimeter.
FALSE
What airspeed is commanded when LVL CHG mode is selected?
The current airspeed
If you want to climb or descend at a specific airspeed using the autopilot, what vertical mode should you select on the MSP?
A. IAS/MACH
B. LVL CHG
C. VS
D. ALT
B
While maintaining a course using the NAV mode, the flight director provides automatic crosswind correction with crab angles of up to ______ degrees.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 30
D. 45
C
The active NAV source is selected on the _______.
A. DSP
B. MSP
C. CDU
D. RTU
A
In APPR Mode on the MSP, the type of approach is determined by _________.
A. The first NAVAID set in the RTU
B. The approach programmed in the CDU flight plan
C. Derek Miller
D. The active NAV source
D
When the AP XFR button on the autopilot panel has a white light illuminated, the autopilot is controlled by the ________’s MSP.
A. Pilot’s
B. Copilot’s
B
If the GPS database in the aircraft is not current, can you fly GPS approaches?
NO
GPS Mode Course sensitivities:
Enroute: ____ NM
Terminal: ____ NM
Approach: ____ NM
Missed Approach: ____ NM
5, 1, 0.3, 1
T/F: The minimum weather requirements to fly a GPS approach are 1) Day VMC for an overlay approach and 2) 500 - 1/2 for a GPS approach.
True
The GPS course sensitivity should change to terminal mode when within ______ nm of the destination airfield.
A. 5
B. 15
C. 20
D. 30
30
The missed approach portion of a GPS approach procedure ___________.
A. Is automatically selected upon passing the MAP
B. Is activated by advancing the throttles to a setting greater than 95% N1
C. Must be manually sequenced by the aircrew by pressing the Go-around button on the left throttle
D. Must be manually selected by highlighting “INHIBIT” on the CDU LEGS page.
C
T/F: If a RAIM alert occurs prior to the FAF, you may contact ATC for an alternate clearance.
True
How many fans are operating when in AUX COOL?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
C
T/F: Engine and wing anti-ice use bleed air while the windshield, AOA, Pitot static and horizontal stabilizer systems use electricity.
True
How many oxygen gauges does the T-1A have?
Two (one inside on copilot’s side, one outside)
Illumination of the CABIN AIR OV HT annunciator means the cabin air supply temperature is greater than _________.
390ºF +/- 15
Can you fly an enroute navigation profile with an expired GPS database?
Yes, if you have ground based NAVAIDS to back you up.
In what two situations will the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminate?
400º OVER TEMP and OVER PRESS (53 PSI)
What happens when the AIR COND FAIL annunciator illuminates?
The two Pressure Regulator/Shutoff Solenoid Valves (L and R) close, and the Emergency Shutoff Solenoid Valve opens.
