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T-1 > Systems 2 > Flashcards

Systems 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What instruments are included in the standby instrument cluster? When might these instruments be used?

A

Airspeed, altimeter, attitude indicator, magnetic compass. Used as backups for failure of the main flight instrument system.

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2
Q

How do you reset the flight time on the clock to zero?`

A

Simultaneously pressing the FLIGHT TIME RESET button and placing the clock switch to the zero position.

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3
Q

Upon arriving to your transition base, you flew an ILS approach. Now you’re practicing VFR patterns and each time you’re on final, you keep hearing an aural alert saying “Glideslope, Glideslope.” How do you prevent this tone from annunciating on every pattern?

A

Detune the NAV#1 radio from the ILS frequency.

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4
Q

Which Air Data Computer normally provides airspeed, altitude and altitude rate information on the GPWS?

A

ADC#1

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5
Q

What are the normal switch positions for the ELT?

A. ELT unit switch OFF and pedestal switch ON
B. ELT unit switch OFF and pedestal switch ARMED/RESET
C. ELT unit switch ON and pedestal switch ON
D. ELT unit switch ON and pedestal switch ARMED/RESET

A

B. ELT unit switch OFF and pedestal switch AMRED/RESET

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6
Q

T/F: The green ELT ON light should normally be illuminated during flight.

A

False

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7
Q 
TCAS resolution advisories are not issued at altitudes below \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ AGL
A. 1000
B. 800
C. 500
D. 100
A

A. 1000

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8
Q

T/F: TCAS relieves the pilot of the responsibility to see and avoid other traffic.

A

False

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9
Q

T/F: Ignoring or failing to follow a resolution advisory (RA) could lead to additional RAs in which alert and visual annunciations may not agree.

A

True

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10
Q

You have just complied with a TCAS preventative resolution advisory that directed you to climb, and have received a “clear of conflict” advisory. Unless ATC directs otherwise, what should you do?

A

Return to applicable ATC clearance

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11
Q

T/F: You should consider information displayed on the radio altimeter to be accurate at all times, unless a warning flag is in view in the instrument.

A

False

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12
Q

You’re on an ILS approach and the display on the pilot’s EADI starts flickering so badly that it’s nearly impossible to read. What can you do to allow the pilot to continue flying the approach?

A

Set the pilot’s composite switch to EHSI position.

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13
Q

T/F: When both the pilot and copilot’s EFIS Master Warning Switchlights are illuminated, pressing either switchlight extinguishes both lights.

A

False

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14
Q

T/F: During cross-side operations, no comparator warnings are available, and the pilots should crosscheck position, attitude and altitude with other reliable instruments, such as the standby instruments.

A

True

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15
Q

When using the MFD composite mode, which side’s (Pilot or Copilot) data is normally used to provide the modified EADI and EHSI displays?

A

Pilot’s

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16
Q

How do you disable an RTU?

A

Move the applicable RTU NORM/DISABL switch to DISABL

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17
Q

You’ve experienced a dual RTU failure. After completing the Dash-1 procedure, you determine you need to transmit and receive communications using VHF guard. How do you do this?

A

Pull and reset the VHF circuit breaker

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18
Q

What are the indications of an ADC failure?

A

Boxed ADC on the altimeter and Mach/Speed indicator and inoperative flight director vertical modes.

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19
Q

Where do you find various indications associated with avionics malfunctions?

A

Fig. 3-11 in TO 1T-1A-1 (Dash-1)

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20
Q

What is indicated when a yellow boxed “PIT” indication is displayed on both EADI’s?

A

Pilot and copilot’s AHRS disagree in pitch attitude.

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21
Q

Which of the following TCAS symbols is used to identify an intruder aircraft that has been identified as a TA?

A. Yellow Circle
B. Cyan solid diamond
C. Cyan open diamond
D. Red Square

A

A. Yellow Circle

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22
Q

T/F: The TCAS in the T-1A is capable of providing both vertical and horizontal guidance in the event of traffic.

A

False

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23
Q

The radio altimeter provides an indication of AGL height up to _____ ft.

A. 250
B. 2,500
C. 12,500
D. 25,000

A

B. 2,500ft

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24
Q

T/F: The T-1A GPWS alerts you to landing with the gear retracted.

A

True

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25
Q

T/F: The standby altimeter is accurate at all altitudes and configurations and no corrections need to be applied.

A

False

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26
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. The standby airspeed indicator uses inputs from the pilots pitot static system

B. The magnetic compass is unreliable when the windshield heat is set to low.

C. Once standby power is lost, the standby attitude indicator will provide accurate pitch and roll data (+-9 degrees) for six minutes.

D. Readings from the magnetic compass are valid only in level and unaccelerated flight.

A

D

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27
Q

You’re on initial takeoff and hear an audible alert, “Don’t Sink, Don’t Sink.” What would cause this alert?

A. Rapidly rising terrain ahead of the aircraft

B. Intruder traffic below the aircraft

C. Excessive altitude loss after takeoff

D. Improper flap setting

A

C

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28
Q

Which of the following TCAS symbols displays an intruder aircraft identified as a Resolution Advisory?

A. Cyan open diamond
B. Cyan solid diamond
C. Yellow circle
D. Red square

A

B

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29
Q

When entering a planned 500-ft low level and, upon passing 800ft, you hear a GPWS alert, “Too Low, Terrain.” Can you inhibit this warning?

A. Yes, by pressing the GPWS TAC switch

B. Yes, by pressing the GPWS FLP ORIDE switch

C. Yes, by pressing the GPWS TEST switch

D. No, the warning cannot be inhibited. You’ll need to fly at least 800ft AGL.

A

A

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30
Q

In the event of complete power loss (including standby battery), the standby attitude indicator should provide reliable +- _____ degrees pitch and roll information for _____ minutes

A. 2;5
B. 6;9
C. 6:15
D10;10

A

B

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31
Q

T/F: the flight time function of the digital clock automatically zeros when power is removed from the aircraft.

A

False

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32
Q

You’re planning a simulated single-engine VFR pattern and landing. How can you inhibit the Mode 4 portion of the GPWS that warns of landing with less than 30 degrees of flaps?

A. Press the GPWS FLP ORIDE switch

B. Press the GPWS TAC switch

C. Press the GPWS Test switch

D. The warning can’t be inhibited

A

A

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33
Q

The right and left hydraulic pumps are driven

A. Only in emergencies
B. Electrically by the standby battery
C. By the accessory gearbox on each engine
D. By pumping the hydraulic pump handle

A

C

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34
Q

Hydraulically-operated equipment includes

A. The landing gear, rudder and nosewheel steering
B. The rudder, standby control yoke, and trim tabs
C. The landing gear, flaps, speed brakes, and power wheel brakes
D. The flaps, standby trim, rudder trim, and parking brake

A

C

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35
Q

What is the capacity of the hydraulic reservoir when full?

A. 0.6 gallons
B. 0.8 gallons
C. 1.2 gallons
D. 1.6 gallons

A

C

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36
Q

T/F: The hydraulic pumps start operating during the engine start sequence.

A

True

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37
Q

The hydraulic pressure indicator displays system pressure from 0 to 2,000 PSI in increments of _______

A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 200

A

C

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38
Q

The T-1A landing gear is ____ controlled and _____ operated.

A. Hydraulically; hydraulically
B. Manually; electrically
C. Electrically; hydraulically
D. Electrically; electrically

A

C

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39
Q

Three green lights illuminated on the landing gear control panel indicates what?

A. The gear are in transit
B. The gear is down and locked
C. The gear is up and locked
D. There is an unsafe gear configuration

A

B

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40
Q

The nosewheel steering is operated by _________

A. The nose gear steering motor
B. The instructor in the jump seat
C. Derek Miller
D. Rudder pedals

A

D

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41
Q

A ground safety switch on the left main landing gear, when engaged, prevents LDG GR handle from being positioned to the _________

A. DN position when the aircraft is on the ground
B. DN position when the aircraft is airborne
C. UP position when the aircraft is on the ground
D. UP position when the aircraft is airborne

A

C

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42
Q

T/F: Emergency gear extension is accomplished by “blowing” the gear down using nitrogen.

A

False

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43
Q

The brakes are actuated by ______

A. The brake pedal next to the accelerator
B. The brake handle next to the jump seat
C. Toe brakes at the top of the rudder pedals
D. The brake pedal to the right of the rudder pedals

A

C

44
Q

T/F: The anti-skid control contains a touchdown protection circuit, preventing application of brake pressure by the crew until the wheels are on the ground.

A

True

45
Q

A _______ inside each main gear axle senses changes in wheel rotation

A. Wheel speed transducer
B. Wheel slippage actuator
C. Tire slide limiter
D. Mechanical slip differential

A

A

46
Q

The brake assemblies on the main gear wheels are designed to operate on _____ pressure for emergency braking should the hydraulic system malfunction.

A. Hydrogen
B. Electrically produced air
C. Air
D. Nitrogen

A

D

47
Q

What are the three modes of the power braking system?

A. Nitrogen, electrical and parking
B. Normal, emergency and standby
C. Anti-skid, power and manual
D. Manual, parking and special

A

C

48
Q

Which of the following is not a primary flight control?

A. Spoilers
B. Flaps
C. Rudder
D. Elevators

A

B

49
Q

Which of the following is not a secondary flight control?

A. Spoilers
B. Trim system
C. Speed Brakes
D. Flaps

A

A

50
Q

Which of the following is not hydraulically-operated?

A. Flaps
B. Landing Gear
C. Rudder Trim
D. Power wheel brakes

A

C

51
Q

When the hydraulic reservoir drops to _______, the HYD LEVEL LO annunciator illuminates

A. 0.6 gallons
B. 0.8 gallons
C. 1.0 gallons
D. 1.2 gallons

A

A

52
Q

How many shutoff valves are there in the hydraulic system?

A. 10
B. 5
C. 1
D. 2

A

D

53
Q

T/F: Pressing the LH or RH ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight opens the respective hydraulic valve.

A

False

54
Q

With only the right hydraulic pump operating in flight, which of the following is true?

A. You will have to use emergency braking upon landing
B. The landing gear will not be able to extend normally
C. All hydraulic systems will operate normally
D. You will have to do a no-flap approach

A

C

55
Q
  • If you used the nitrogen bottle to close the gear doors, you should still have enough nitrogen for _____ applications of the emergency braking system.

A. 2 to 4
B. 10 to 11
C. 3 to5
D. 7 to 9

A

D

56
Q
  • The normal operating pressure of the hydraulic system stabilizes at _____ PSI.

A. 1,200
B. 1,650
C. 1,300
D. 1,500

A

D

57
Q
  • What provides primary roll control for the T-1A?

A. Ailerons
B. Elevator
C. Rudder
D. Spoilers

A

D

58
Q
  • Aircrew intervention is required if the hydraulic pressure exceeds ________ PSI.

A. 1,350
B. 1,850
C. 1,650
D. 1,500

A

B

59
Q

When should the brakes not be set?

A. If the engines are shutdown
B. When chocks are used
C. With the ground power unit connected
D. When the brakes are hot

A

D

60
Q

The hydraulic pump automatically begins operating ____

A. During the engine start sequence
B. After pressing the brakes
C. After pressing the LH and RH HYDR START buttons
D. After passing 1,250 RPM on the left engine

A

A

61
Q

If pressure output from a pump falls below ___ PSI, the applicable LH or RH PMP PRESS LO annunciator illuminates.

A. 1,550
B. 750
C. 150
A. 50

A

B

62
Q
  • Which of the following systems does not receive power through the valve package?

A. Landing gear
B. Wheel brakes
C. Speed brakes
D. Flaps

A

B

63
Q
  • T/F: The hydraulic fluid from the landing gear, flaps, speed brakes and wheel brakes returns to the hydraulic reservoir in one return line.
A

False

64
Q

The landing gear control panel is located _______

A. On the center console
B. On the overhead panel
C. On the pilot’s instrument panel
D. On the copilot’s instrument panel

A

D

65
Q

When do the rudder pedals control both the rudder and nosewheel steering?

A. Never
B. When the nosewheel is extended
C. Only when the nosewheel steering switch is ON
D. At all times

A

B

66
Q

After emergency gear extension, the main gear doors are closed using _____

A. The standby gear door retraction motor
B. The manual door closing crank next to the center console
C. The landing gear control panel
D. Nitrogen pressure

A

D

67
Q
  • T/F: The copilot’s brake pedals should always be used to set the parking brake.
A

False

68
Q

The rudder is moved by _____

A. The pilot in command only
B. Pulling or pushing the control yoke backwards and forwards
C. Depressing the left or right rudder pedals
D. Rotating the control yoke left or right

A

C

69
Q

The flaps are ____ controlled and ______ actuated

A. Electrically; hydraulically
B. Mechanically; electrically
C. Hydraulically; electrically
D. Electrically; mechanically

A

A

70
Q

What happens when a hydraulic filter becomes clogged?

A. The pressure relief valve opens to relieve pressure
B. The hydraulic pumps generate excess power
C. The hydraulic fluid routes directly back to the pumps
D. Hydraulic fluid bypasses the clogged filter

A

D

71
Q
  • Which hydraulic subsystem is not supplied with hydraulic pressure through the valve package?

A. Speed brakes
B. Flaps
C. Brakes
D. Landing gear

A

C

72
Q

What component should automatically open if the hydraulic pressure exceeds 1,650 PSI, routing excess pressure to the return line?

A. Hydraulic pressure bypass valve
B. Hydraulic pressure relief valve
C. Either pump
D. Valve package

A

B

73
Q

Pressurizing the hydraulic reservoir with engine bleed air prevents fluid foaming and _____

A. Prevents system pressure surges
B. Opens the system check valve
C. Provides constant supply of fluid to the pumps
D. Maintains system pressure at 1,500 PSI

A

C

74
Q

The normal operating pressure of the hydraulic system stabilizes at _____ PSI.

A. 1,300
B. 1,500
C. 1,650
D. 1,850

A

B

75
Q

The HYD LEVEL LO annunciator illuminates when the fluid level in the reservoir reaches ______ gallons.

A. 1.1
B. 0.6
C. 0.8
D. 0

A

B

76
Q

The L or R H PMP PRESS LO annunciator illuminates when the pressure from the respective pump drops below _____ PSI

A. 1,800
B. 1,500
C. 1,000
D. 750

A

D

77
Q

Pilot intervention is required if the hydraulic pressure reaches _______ PSI.

A. 1,350
B. 1,500
C. 1,650
D. 1,850

A

D

78
Q

The hydraulic reservoir should be serviced when the sight gauge fluid level is ______

A. Below 3.5 gallons
B. Below the REFILL line
C. Above the FULL line
D. Between the FULL and REFILL lines

A

B

79
Q

Which statement is true concerning the hydraulic system filters?

A. The filters remove contaminants that could damage moving parts

B. If the filter becomes clogged, the pilot must activate the bypass feature

C. Each hydraulic component contains a self cleaning filter

D. The FLT BYPASS annunciator illuminates if the hydraulic filters become clogged.

A

A

80
Q

During an emergency gear extension, nitrogen pressure is used to

A. Hold the gear in the down position
B. Unlock the main gear
C. Activate nosewheel steering
D. Close the main gear fuselage

A

D

81
Q

The brake subsystem hydraulic components use an accumulator charged with

A. Trapped hydraulic fluid
B. Nitrogen
C. Air
D. None of the above

A

B

82
Q

The emergency brake nitrogen bottle ____ the brake accumulator.

A. Charges
B. Dampens hydraulic pressure fluctuations along with
C. Is isolated from
D. Augments

A

C

83
Q

Which of the following is true?

A. The anti-skid functions normally in manual mode

B. The manual mode of braking may have limited effectiveness and should not be relied on for braking from high energy states

C. If a malfunction occurs in the anti-skid system, braking reverts to the manual mode

D. When using the emergency brake system, pump the emer brake handle several times during landing roll

A

B

84
Q

T/F: You should not test the anti-skid in a congested area.

A

True

85
Q

T/F: With the anti-skid switch in the OFF position, the brake system functions in the power mode.

A

True

86
Q

T/F: After testing the system, normal braking with anti-skid will not be available for approximately 4 seconds.

A

True

87
Q

The emergency brake nitrogen storage system provides at least ____ brake applications if not used for other systems.

A. 5-7
B. 6-8
C. 7-10
D. 7-9

A

C

88
Q

The maximum temperature generated by the brakes does not reach the outer surface of the wheel brake assembly for ____ minutes or more. Do not approach overheated brakes for _____.

A. 30; one hour
B. 25; forty-five mins
C. 15; one half hour
D. None of the above

A

C

89
Q

If ____ million foot pounds of total brake energy are absorbed, brake damage and failure may occur.

A. 5.9
B. 14.8
C. 12.3
D. 18.1

A

B

90
Q

Assuming it is operating correctly, the anti-skid system _____

A. Functions only if the nitrogen bottle has normal pressure
B. Is functional in the manual mode
C. Is functional in the power mode
D. Is only functional above 45 knots tire speed.

A

C

91
Q

The maximum temperature generated by the brakes does not reach the outer surface of the wheel brake assembly for _____ minutes or more.

A. 30
B. 25
C. 15
D. 10

A

C

92
Q

Braking is controlled by _______

A. Cumulative force applied by both pilots
B. The pilot who is applying the most force
C. Left seat pilot
D. Right seat pilot

A

B

93
Q

When landing without hydraulic pressure, plan on using the _______ mode for braking during the landing roll

A. Emergency
B. Manual
C. Power
D. Anti-skid

A

A

94
Q

The most efficient way to use the emergency brake system is ______

A

To use a single, smooth steady application of the brakes.

95
Q

What does the transducer in the wheel hub do?

A

It senses a change in the main wheel rotation speed.

96
Q

Do not set the parking brake using ______

A. Emergency brake system
B. Anti-skid switch
C. Copilot’s switch
D. Pilot’s brake pedals

A

C

97
Q

When landing without hydraulic pressure, which of the following components is still active?

A. Flaps
B. Power brakes
C. Spoilers
D. Speed brakes

A

C

98
Q

T/F: Nitrogen storage bottle pressure is used to raise the fuselage gear doors during emergency gear extension.

A

True

99
Q

When landing without normal brakes,

A. Anti-skid protection is available
B. Plan on using manual brakes
C. Normal braking should not be attempted while using the emergency brake system
D. Plan on using the parking brake accumulator

A

C

100
Q

If the anti-skid function fails, braking reverts to the ____

A. Manual braking system
B. Power braking system
C. Emergency braking system
D. None of the above

A

B

101
Q

When landing with a flat tire on one main gear,

A. Land on the side of the runway corresponding to the good tire.

B. Land in the center of the runway

C. Land on the side of the runway corresponding to the bad tire

D. None of the above

A

A

102
Q

If the yaw damper doesn’t engage,

A. Use the autopilot
B. Land ASAP
C. Do not fly above 28,000ft
D. Manually hold the switch in the ENGAGED position

A

C

103
Q

If the rudder boost fails,

A. Fly a no-flap approach

B. Higher rudder pedal forces will occur during single-engine operation

C. Higher rudder pedal pressure forces will be required for all flight regimes

D. Check the ROLL TRIM circuit breakers are in and refer to the checklist

A

B

104
Q

The flap asymmetry detection system alerts the crew of ________

A. Either main or aft flap asymmetry
B. A main flap asymmetry
C. An aft flap asymmetry
D. Both main and aft flap asymmetry

A

B

105
Q

At what altitude should you perform the controllability check?

A

Above 8,000 AGL

106
Q

T/F: A speed brake failure increases the landing distance by 20%.

A

True

T-1 (6 decks)

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