Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

T-1 > Flight Line Weekly Knowledge Test (Week 3) > Flashcards

Flight Line Weekly Knowledge Test (Week 3) Flashcards

1
Q

Unless cleared by ATC to deviate, fly the entire instrument approach procedure starting at the __________.

A

IAF

[11-217V1 CH 10.1, pg. 171]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

For a Non-DME Teardrop Approach, when station passage occurs at the IAF, turn immediately in the shorter direction toward the ________________.

A

Outbound course

[11-217V1 CH 10.2.1, pg. 171]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When can we begin the descent for a Non-DME Teardrop Approach?

A

When established on a parallel or intercept heading to the approach course and outbound from the IAF.

[11-217V1 CH 10.2.1, pg. 171]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If you arrive at the IAF at an altitude below that published, maintain altitude and proceed outbound ____________ seconds for each ___________ feet the aircraft is below the published altitude before starting descent.

A

15; 1000

[11-217V1 CH 10.2.1, pg. 171]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: If you arrive at the IAF at an altitude above that published, a descent to the published IAF altitude should be accomplished prior to starting the approach.

A

True

[11-217V1 CH 10.2.1, pg. 171]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If a descent is required at the IAF how would you accomplish this?

A

Obtain clearance to descend in a holding pattern.

[11-217V1 CH 10.2.1, pg. 171]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the recommended descent gradient to ensure that you remain within protected airspace?

A

800-1000 ft/NM (8-10 degrees)

[11-217V1 CH 10.2.1.1, pg. 171]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When a penetration turn altitude is not published when should a turn inbound be started?

A

Start the turn after descending one-half the total altitude between the IAF and FAF altitudes.

[11-217V1 CH 10.2.2, pg. 171]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the normal bank angle used in a penetration turn?

A

30 degrees

[11-217V1 CH 10.2.3, pg. 171]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F: If a penetration turn completion altitude is depicted, do not descend below this altitude until you are established on the inbound segment of the published approach procedure.

A

True

[11-217V1 CH 10.2.3.1, pg. 171]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For a Radial Approach, when over the IAF, turn immediately in the shorter direction toward the __________.

A

Inbound course/approach course

[11-217V1 CH 10.3.1, pg. 173]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

For a Radial Approach, if your heading is within ________ of the approach course, you are not required to overfly the IAF; use normal lead points.

A

90º

[11-217V1 CH 10.3.1, pg. 174]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When can you begin the descent for a Radial Approach?

A

Start the descent when the aircraft is abeam or past the IAF on a parallel or intercept heading to the approach course.

[11-217V1 CH 10.3.2, pg. 174]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When can you begin the descent for a Radial/Arc Combination Approach?

A

Start the descent when you are established on an intercept to the arc and abeam or past the IAF in relation to the initial approach track.

[11-217V1 CH 10.4, pg. 175]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If a dead reckoning course is depicted on an approach fly the heading corrected for wind to fly the depicted _________.

A

Ground track

[11-217V1 CH 10.6, pg. 177]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the two broad categories of low altitude approaches?

A

Course reversals and procedure tracks

[11-217V1 CH 11.2, pg. 179]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Unless ATC specifically clears you otherwise, you are expected to fly to the _______ and execute the full instrument approach procedure as published.

A

IAF

[11-217V1 CH 11.2.1, pg. 179]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When ATC clears you for the approach when can you descend out of the last assigned altitude?

A

When established on a segment of the published IAP

[11-217V1 CH 11.2.1, pg. 179]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When must the pilot slow to aircraft maneuvering speed?

A

Prior to reaching the IAF

[11-217V1 CH 11.2.3, pg. 180]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When should you NOT execute a procedure turn or HILO PT? (Hint: SNERT)

A

S - when ATC clears you for a straight-in
N - if you are flying the approach via No PT routing
E - when you are Established in holding and the approach
and holding course are the same
R - when ATC provides Radar vectors to the FAF
T - when ATC clears you for a Timed approach

[11-217V1 CH 11.3.1, pg. 180]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How are procedure turns depicted?

A

Heavy black line and a barb symbol

[11-217V1 CH 11.4, pg. 184]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the FAA recommended airspeed for flying procedure turn course reversals?

A

200 KIAS

[11-217V1 CH 11.4.1.1, pg. 185]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What maximum safe speed for flying a procedure turn?

A

250 KIAS

[11-217V1 CH 11.4.1, pg. 185]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For a procedure turn, adjust the _____________ leg length to ensure your aircraft will stay inside the “remain within distance”

A

Outbound

[11-217V1 CH 11.5.1, pg. 185]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
When using the Holding method for procedure turns, if you elect a teardrop entry, your teardrop course must be within how many degrees of the procedure turn course?
30 degrees [11-217V1 CH 11.6.2, pg. 186]
26
When using the Holding method for procedure turns, when do you being timing?
Begin timing once you are outbound abeam the procedure turn fix. If you cannot determine the abeam position while in the turn, start timing after completing the outbound turn [11-217V1 CH 11.6.4, pg. 186]
27
When using the Holding method for procedure turns, when can you begin the descent?
When abeam the procedure turn fix heading outbound. If unable to determine the abeam position, start descent after completing the outbound turn [11-217V1 CH 11.6.5, pg. 187]
28
When using the 45/180 or 80/260 method for course reversals, when can you begin the descent?
Do not descend from the procedure turn fix altitude until abeam the procedure turn fix and on a parallel or intercept heading to the outbound track [11-217V1 CH 11.7.3, pg. 188]
29
How do you fly a 45/180 course reversal?
Turn 45 degrees away from the outbound track toward the maneuvering side. Begin timing upon initiating the turn: 1 minute (CAT A and B), 1 minute and 15 seconds (CAT C,D, and E); then begin a 180 degree turn in the opposite direction [11-217V1 CH 11.7.4.1, pg. 188]
30
How do you fly an 80/260 course reversal?
Make an 80 degree turn away from the outbound track toward the maneuvering side followed by an immediate 260 degree turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound course [11-217V1 CH 11.7.4.2, pg. 188]
31
When a descent is depicted on the inbound leg of a HILO PT when can you begin the descent?
You must be established on the inbound segment of the approach before beginning the descent [11-217V1 CH 11.8.2, pg. 188]
32
For a procedure track, when over the IAF turn immediately ___________ to intercept the published track.
In the shorter direction. Normal lead points may be used if your heading is within 90 degrees, if not you must overfly the fix [11-217V1 CH 11.9.2, pg. 191]
33
When flying a procedure track you must conform to the specific ___________ shown on the IAP.
Ground Track [11-217V1 CH 11.9.3, pg. 191]
34
T/F: For procedure tracks, when a descent is depicted at the IAF, start descent when abeam or past the IAF and on a parallel or intercept heading to the procedural track course.
True [11-217V1 CH 11.9.4.1, pg. 192]
35
When an altitude restriction is depicted at a fix defined as an inter a radial and an arc when is the latest you can comply with it?
The restriction must be complied with no later than the completion of the lead turn associated with that fix [11-217V1 CH 11.9.4.1.1, pg. 192]
36
What is the objective of the Terminal Arrival Area (TAA)?
To provide a seamless transition from the en route structure to the terminal environment for arriving aircraft equipped with FMS/GPS navigational equipment [11-217V1 CH 11.10, pg. 193]
37
How are TAAs normally depicted?
The "Basic T" Consists of three IAFs, an intermediate fix, a FAF, and a MAP [11-217V1 CH 11.10.2, pg. 193]
38
The initial segment of a "Basic T" is usually how long?
3-6 NM [11-217V1 CH 11.10.2, pg. 194]
39
The intermediate segment of a "Basic T" is usually how long?
5-7 NM [11-217V1 CH 11.10.2, pg. 194]
40
The final segment of a "Basic T" is usually how long?
5 NM [11-217V1 CH 11.10.2, pg. 194]
41
T/F: During an Entry Via the TAA, a pilot may elect to use the course reversal pattern when it is not required by the procedure, but must inform ATC and receive clearance to do so.
True [11-217V1 CH 11.10.4, pg. 194]
42
What are the three areas in a standard TAA?
Straight-in, left-base, and right-base [11-217V1 CH 11.10.5, pg. 196]
43
T/F: Once cleared to fly the TAA, pilots are expected to obey minimum altitudes depicted within the TAA icons, unless instructed otherwise by ATC.
True [11-217V1 CH 11.10.10, pg. 198]
44
When should pilots descend to the TAA altitude?
After crossing the TAA boundary and cleared by ATC [11-217V1 CH 11.10.13, pg. 201]
45
Once inside the FAF, one navigation receiver available to the pilot must remain tuned to display ___________.
Final approach course guidance [11-217V1 CH 12.1, pg. 206]
46
What is the optimum final approach course length?
5 NM, but may be as long as 10 [11-217V1 CH 12.1.1, pg. 206]
47
What is a Visual Descent Point (VDP)?
A point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which a normal descent (approximately 3 degrees) from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be commenced provided visual reference with the runway environment is established [11-217V1 CH 12.1.1.3, pg. 206]
48
What equation can be used to calculate a VDP?
HAT/GS [11-217V1 CH 12.1.1.3.2, pg. 207]
49
How do you calculate a VDP on approaches based solely off of timing?
Take 10 percent of the HAT in seconds and subtract it from the FAF to MAP time [11-217V1 CH 12.1.1.3.3, pg. 207]
50
If timing is required to identify the MAP when do you begin timing?
Begin timing when passing the FAF or starting point designated in the timing block of the approach plate [11-217V1 CH 12.1.2.1, pg. 208]
51
When is descent below MDA/DA/DH authorized?
Once sufficient visual reference with the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in position to execute a safe landing [11-217V1 CH 12.1.2.2, pg. 209]
52
What elements make up the runway environment?
1. The approach light system 2. The threshold, threshold markings or threshold lights 3. The runway end identifier lights 4. The touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings or touchdown zone lights 5. The runway or runway markings 6. The runway lights 7. The visual approach slope indicator [11-217V1 CH 12.1.2.2, pg. 209]
53
What caveat exists when using the approach light system to identify the runway environment?
The pilot may not descend below 100' above the TDZE using the approach lights as a reference unless the red termination bars or red side row bars are also visible and identifiable [11-217V1 CH 12.1.2.2, pg. 209]
54
When flying an ILS/LOC if the localizer fails is the procedure authorized?
No [11-217V1 CH 12.2.1.1, pg. 209]
55
When flying an ILS/LOC if the outer marker (or at least one of its substitutes) is not available, is the procedure authorized?
No [11-217V1 CH 12.2.1.1, pg. 209]
56
What sensitivity should the airborne marker beacon receivers be set to when flying an ILS?
Low [11-217V1 CH 12.2.1.2.1.1, pg. 209]
57
What is the usable range of a localizer?
18 NM within 10 degrees of course centerline [11-217V1 CH 12.2.1.3, pg. 210]
58
When must a ILS/LOC approach be discontinued?
If the localizer course becomes unreliable, or any time full scale deflection of the CDI occurs on final approach [11-217V1 CH 12.2.1.3.1, pg. 210]
59
When flying an ILS approach what conditions need to be met to descend below the localizer minimums?
Do not descend below the localizer minimums if the aircraft is more than one dot (half scale) below or two dots (full scale) above the glide slope [11-217V1 CH 12.2.1.3.1, pg. 210]
60
When autopilot coupled or auto land operations are to be conducted, and the weather is above ceiling 800 feet and/or visibility 2 miles, when should you advise ATC so they can properly clear the ILS Critical area on the runway?
As soon as practical, but not later than the FAF [11-217V1 CH 12.2.1.3.2, pg. 210]
61
What do pilots need to descend below decision height?
Sufficient visual reference with the runway environment | [11-217V1 CH 12.2.1.6, pg. 211]
62
Can the middle marker (MM) be used as the sole means of identifying the MAP?
No, if the MM is the only way to identify the MAP, then the approach is not authorized [11-217V1 CH 12.2.1.7.1, pg. 211]
63
What do you set in the course selector window in order to fly a back course localizer?
The published front course [11-217V1 CH 12.2.1.7.3, pg. 211]
64
What is the terminal setting for the CDI on RNAV approaches?
+/- 1 NM [11-217V1 CH 12.2.3.1.3, pg. 218]
65
What is the approach setting for the CDI on RNAV approaches?
+/- 0.3 NM [11-217V1 CH 12.2.3.1.4, pg. 218]
66
Do pilots have to activate the missed approach procedure when flying an RNAV approach?
Yes, after crossing the missed approach way point [11-217V1 CH 12.2.3.2.4.1, pg. 218]
67
Attempt contact with the controlling agency if no transmissions are received for approximately:
1. One minute while being vectored to final 2. Fifteen seconds while on final for an ASR 3. Five seconds while on final for a PAR [11-217V1 CH 12.3.2.2, pg. 220]
68
The controller is required to issue ceiling and visibility only when the ceiling is below _____________, or if the visibility is less than _________.
1500' (1000' at civil airports) or below the highest circling minimum; 3 miles [11-217V1 CH 12.3.4.1, pg. 220]
69
Is a visual approach conducted on an IFR flight plan?
Yes, it authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport [11-217V1 CH 12.4, pg. 222]
70
What are the requirements for flying a visual approach?
1. The pilot must have either the airport or the preceding identified aircraft in sight 2. The approach must be authorized and controlled by the appropriate ATC facility 3. 1000' and 3 4. The pilot should advise ATC as soon as possible if a visual approach is not desired [11-217V1 CH 12.4.1, pg. 222]
71
Should you cancel your IFR clearance when cleared for a visual approach?
No [11-217V1 CH 12.4.2, pg. 222]
72
When may ATC issue clearance for a contact approach?
1. The pilot specifically requests the approach. 2. Visibility is at least 1 SM. 3. The contact approach is made to an airport having a standard or special instrument approach procedure. [11-217V1 CH 12.5.1, pg. 223]
73
Does a contact approach occur while flying under an IFR flight plan?
Yes [11-217V1 CH 12.5, pg. 223]
74
Does being cleared for a visual or contact approach authorize the pilot to fly a 360 overhead traffic pattern?
No [11-217V1 CH 12.5.3, pg. 222]
75
What are converging approaches?
Approaches that provide procedures for conducting simultaneous precision instrument approaches to converging runways (having a 15-100 degree angle between them). [11-217V1 CH 12.8, pg. 226]
76
ILS Precision Runway Monitor (ILS/PRM) Approaches are authorized when runways are separated by less than how many feet?
4300' [11-217V1 CH 12.9.1, pg. 228]
77
Who is the approval authority for a flight?
The individual designated on the Flight authorization as the PIC [11-202V3 CH 4.3, pg. 29]
78
When can aircrew file to/land at "P-coded" Civil airports?
1. In an emergency 2. Flying a helicopter or C-coded aircraft 3. Necessary in the recovery of active air defense interceptor aircraft 4. An alternate is required and no other suitable airport is available 5. The wing/CC or higher authority approves the flight [11-202V3 CH 4.8, pg. 30]
79
What is the AIR CARD used for?
Only for fuel and ground services [11-202V3 CH 4.11, pg. 31]
80
Where do we obtain NOTAMS from?
DINS [11-202V3 CH 4.13.4, pg. 31]
81
When will USAF aircraft file IFR flight?
1. To the max extent practical 2. Weather conditions do not permit VFR flight 3. Class A airspace 4. Operating in excess of 180 KTAS within federal airways 5. Operating at night [11-202V3 CH 4.15.1, pg. 32]
82
What weather minimums are required for a straight-in or sidestep approach?
Visibility only [11-202V3 CH 4.15.2.1.1.1, pg. 33]
83
What weather minimums are required for a circling approach?
Ceiling and visibility [11-202V3 CH 4.15.2.1.1.2, pg. 33]
84
What conditions require an alternate?
WWWRRUM 1. 2000 and 3, or 1500 and 3 if two or more suitable independent precision approaches are available 2. No weather reporting capability 3. Winds are out of limits 4. All compatible approaches require radar 5. The denial of RVSM airspace would prevent access to the field 6. Unmonitored NAVAIDS 7. Lowest compatible approach mins are greater than or equal to 1500 and 3 [11-202V3 CH 4.15.3.2, pg. 33]
85
What weather do we consider when selecting an alternate?
The worst forecast weather conditions for ETA 1 hour, to include TEMPO conditions (except those caused by thunderstorms, rain, or snow showers) [11-202V3 CH 4.15.3.4, pg. 34]
86
What conditions disqualify a potential alternate?
ANAGRAMWWU 1. Alternate Not Authorized (ANA) is depicted on the approach 2. All compatible approaches at the alternate require use of GNSS and planning to the destination was also based solely on the use of GNSS 3. All compatible approaches require radar 4. Any note disqualifying the airfield in the Alternate minimums section 5. Required weather is 1000 and 2 SM, or 500 and 1 SM above the lowest compatible approach minimum 6. No weather reporting service 7. Winds out of limits 8. Unmonitored NAVAIDS [11-202V3 CH 4.15.3.5, pg. 34]
87
What are Class A visibility and cloud clearance minimums?
Doesn't apply. IFR flight required. [11-202V3 TABLE 6.1 pg. 47-48]
88
What are Class B visibility and cloud clearance minimums?
3 SM; clear of clouds [11-202V3 TABLE 6.1 pg. 47-48]
89
What are Class C visibility and cloud clearance minimums?
3 SM; 500' below, 1000' above, and 2000' horizontal [11-202V3 TABLE 6.1 pg. 47-48]
90
What are Class D visibility and cloud clearance minimums?
3 SM; 500' below, 1000' above, and 2000' horizontal [11-202V3 TABLE 6.1 pg. 47-48]
91
What are Class E & G (Below 10,000' MSL) visibility and cloud clearance minimums?
3 SM; 500' below, 1000' above, and 2000' horizontal [11-202V3 TABLE 6.1 pg. 47-48]
92
What are Class E & G (At or Above 10,000' MSL) visibility and cloud clearance minimums?
5 SM; 1000' below, 1000' above, 1 SM horizontal [11-202V3 TABLE 6.1 pg. 47-48]
93
How much reserve fuel is the aircraft required to carry?
10 percent (up to a max of 45 minutes for fixed-wing or 30 minutes for helicopters) or 20 minutes, whichever is greater [11-202V3 CH 4.18.3 pg. 36]
94
What fuel consumption rate do we use when calculating reserve?
Best endurance at 10,000' MSL [11-202V3 CH 4.18.3.3 pg. 36]
95
What is the minimum RVR for takeoff?
500 (150 meters) [11-202V3 CH 5.1.1 pg. 38]
96
Are takeoffs permitted with any freezing precipitation on the aircraft?
Yes. 1. A thin coating of frost is permitted on the fuselage as long as lettering and paint are visible. 2. Light frost (1/8 inch) is permitted on the lower wing surface if the fuselage and all other control surfaces are free of icing. [11-202V3 CH 5.1.2 pg. 38]
97
When should all turns after takeoff be delayed until?
400' DER [11-202V3 CH 5.2 pg. 38]
98
List all of the IFR departure methods
1. Diverse Departure 2. Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) 3. Standard Instrument Departure (SID) 4. Specific ATC Departure Instructions 5. MAJCOM Certified Procedure 6. Non-Standard Takeoff Minimums

T-1 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions