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UH-60 > Systems 2 check on learning > Flashcards

Systems 2 check on learning Flashcards

1
Q

TGT will be indicated on the Power Pod when?

A
  • TGT greater than 793°
  • Difference of 75° or more
  • Engine Out (Ng <55%)
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2
Q
  1. When does NG appear on the power pod?
A

When NG exceeds 100%

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3
Q
  1. What are the primary functions of the overspeed drain valve?
A

Hot start prevention, Overspeed protection, Purges fuel, Sends fuel to 12 injectors

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4
Q
  1. The ____________ provides added protection from heat-seeking weapons’ systems by mixing hot exhaust with rotor downwash.
A

UES

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5
Q
  1. What drives LRUs on accessory gearbox?
A

NG

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6
Q
  1. What drives Np governing?
A

DEC, ODV

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7
Q
  1. What are the 3 main functions of the DEC?
A
  • TGT limiting
  • Torque matching and load sharing
  • Np governing
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8
Q
  1. Over servicing is not possible because extra oil will do what?
A

Flow out the filler port

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9
Q
  1. The pneumatic start system uses an air turbine engine start motor for?
A

Engine starting

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10
Q
  1. Where must the engine oil level be in flights over 6 hrs.?
A

Full mark

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11
Q
  1. Oil from the chip detector passes through the oil cooler and is cooled by?
A

Transferring heat from the oil to fuel

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12
Q
  1. How is the gas generator turbine connected to the accessory gear box?
A

Mechanically

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13
Q
  1. The HMU operates what part of the compressor section?
A

Variable guide veins

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14
Q

What controls the electrical function of the engine and transmits systems information to the cockpit?

A

DEC (digital electronic control)

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15
Q
  1. What is the DEC powered by?
A

Alternator or aircraft power

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16
Q
  1. The EDECU will display a torque signal of?
A

25%

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17
Q
  1. What section of the engine mechanically drives NR?
A

Np

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18
Q
  1. Is Ng mechanically linked to Np?
A

No

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19
Q
  1. What is the connection of Np and Nr?
A

1- way mechanical connection via the freewheeling unit

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20
Q
  1. Name the 4 modules of the engine
A

Cold, Hot, Power Turbine, and Accessory Gearbox

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21
Q
  1. What drives the Accessory Gearbox?
A

Gas Generator (at a variable speed)

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22
Q
  1. How many stages are in the compressor section?
A

6 (5 Axial, 1 Centrifugal)

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23
Q
  1. What operational section of the engine drives the rotors?
A

NP (power turbine) (it’s a one way mechanical free-wheeling unit)

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24
Q
  1. What are the 2 operational sections of the engine?
A

Ng and Np

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25
Q
  1. How does engine oil cooling occur?
A
  • Liquid to liquid cooler

- oil flow through the scroll vanes

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26
Q
  1. What is the service capacity for engine oil?
A

7 qts

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27
Q
  1. Where is the oil drawn from for the emergency oil system?
A

Sumps A and B

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28
Q
  1. How does the oil system overcome high pressure during cold starts?
A
  • Oil filter bypass valve

- liquid to liquid cooler bypass valve

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29
Q
  1. Where does the engine receive its electrical power?
A

Engine Alternator

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30
Q
  1. The engine alternator supplies AC power to what?
A

The ignition exciter and DEC/EDECU

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31
Q
  1. When does the DEC go into the 2.5-minute limiting?
A

When one engine is 50% below the torque of other engine

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32
Q
  1. How does the cockpit receive the Ng signal?
A

From the Ng winding of the alternator

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33
Q
  1. If Ng signal is lost, what happens?
A

Engine Out warning light, audio, and 0% Ng

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34
Q
  1. Why does the fuel system operate on negative pressure?
A

It lessens the potential of fire in the event the fuel system is damaged

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35
Q
  1. What function of the DEC keeps NP at 100%?
A

NP governing

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36
Q
  1. Ng governing is influenced by what input to the HMU?
A

T2 sensor

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37
Q
  1. When will TGT Limiting not work?
A

Lockout, compressor stall, start up

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38
Q
  1. What is variable geometry and how does it work?
A

HMU controlling airflow in the engine depending upon power demand

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39
Q
  1. Is the APU capable of starting both engines simultaneously?
A

Yes, within certain ambient temperature ranges

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40
Q
  1. When will fuel flow be automatically shut off to the engine during the start sequence (Hot start prevention)?
A

When TGT reaches 900 Degrees Celcius, NG at ≤60%, NP at ≤50%

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41
Q
  1. Explain Hot Start prevention:
A

It’s a function of the DEC and ODV that automatically prevents over temp during starts by shutting down the engine

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42
Q
  1. What does ODV do?
A
  • Sequences fuel and sends it to the injectors (last stop of fuel
  • Np overspeed protection (120% +-1)
  • purges fuel on shut down
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43
Q
  1. What is the air sce/ht start switch do when on apu?
A

Uses air from APU to start the main engines

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44
Q
  1. What is the air sce/ht start switch do when on eng?
A

Uses air from the engine to provide cabin heat

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45
Q
  1. With one engine operating, what Ng and Nr must be maintained to cross bleed start the other?
A

90 % and 100%

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46
Q
  1. How do you manually disengage the starter?
A

Pull down on the PCL

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47
Q
  1. What controls air fuel mixture?
A

HMU through fuel scheduling

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48
Q
  1. If power is lost to the engine, will the DEC still remain functional?
A

Yes, it is also supplied from the AC airframe power

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49
Q
  1. Which circuit in the DEC is not powered by the alternator?
A

Hot Start Prevention

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50
Q
  1. When is engine Inlet Anti-Icing system available?
A
  • 4°C and below it must activate
  • May or may not activate between 4°and 13° C
  • Not available 13 C and above
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51
Q
  1. Other than bleed air, what is used to assist in the engine anti ice functions?
A

Hot engine oil provides a passive anti ice function

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52
Q
  1. How is torque affected when anti-ice switch is ON?
A

You can lose up to 20% torque available, additional 5% with heater on

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53
Q
  1. How do you recognize a compressor stall?
A

Loud popping/banging accompanied by rapid increase in TGT and fluctuations in NG, Q, NP

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54
Q
  1. Describe the fuel flow:
A
  • Pump
  • Fuel filter
  • HMU
  • Liquid to liquid cooler
  • ODV and nozzles
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55
Q
  1. Describe the load demand system:
A

Provides mechanical input directly from the collective output of the flight control mixer to the engine HMU to reduce transient engine and NR droop

(Reduces transient engine and NR droop)

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56
Q

1.Where is the pedal adjust handle located?

A

On the side of the instrument panel.

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57
Q
  1. Which cockpit control has a telescoping (extend/retract) feature?
A

Co-pilot’s collective

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58
Q

Outputs from cockpit controls are carried by mechanical linkage through the pilot assist servos to the

A

Mechanical Mixing Unit

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59
Q
  1. On which panel can you find both the TAIL SERVO and BACKUP HYD PUMP switches?
A

MISC SWITCH panel

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60
Q
  1. The MMU is designed to reduce
A

Inherent Control Coupling

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61
Q
  1. Name the four mechanical mixes provided by the MMU.
A

Collective to Pitch
Collective to Roll
Collective to Yaw,
Yaw to Pitch.

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62
Q
  1. Describe Collective to Pitch—
A

MMU put fwd input into rotor disc to prevent nose-high attitude

(Prevents nose high attitude)

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63
Q
  1. Collective to roll –
A

MMU makes left rotor disc input to compensate for translating tendency

(Compensates for translating tendency)

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64
Q
  1. Collective to Yaw –
A

MMU inputs left pedal to compensate for torque effect

compensates for torque effect

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65
Q
  1. Yaw to pitch –
A

Aft input to M/R system as T/R pitch is increased. It compensates for vertical thrust

(Compensates for Vertical Thrust]

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66
Q
  1. Collective/Airspeed to Yaw—
A

As collective and A/S increase, T/R pitch decreases and visa versa.

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67
Q
  1. The SERVO OFF switch has an ___ _____ to prevent both servo stages from being turned off
A

– Electrical interlock

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68
Q
  1. With a leak, it takes how many seconds to lose both systems?
A

– 11-13 seconds

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69
Q
  1. Servos are the only thing that can______?
A

Jam or Hardover

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70
Q
  1. How does the MMU minimize inherent control coupling?
A

By combining, summing, and coupling collective, yaw, pitch and roll inputs

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71
Q

What is the only trim actuator that receives hydraulic power from the number 2 hydraulic system?

A

Pitch control

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72
Q

Why is Collective/Airspeed to Yaw mixing completely phased out when the airspeed is above 100 kts?

A

Due to the efficiency of the tail rotor and cambered fin.

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73
Q
  1. Moving the SERVO OFF switch from NORM to 1 st STG or 2 nd STG will?
A

Turn off that stage of primary servos

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74
Q
  1. What is the reason for the depressurization valve to only connect to the Backup Pump?
A

Reduce output pressure of the pump when starting the electric motor.

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75
Q

The No. 1 hydraulic system supplies hydraulic fluid through its transfer module to what servos?

A

The first stage primary servos and first stage tail rotor servo.

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76
Q
  1. HYD LEAK TEST switch allows testing of the ____. –
A

LDI

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77
Q
  1. What HYD pump is the depressurization valve connected to? –
A

Backup HYD Pump

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78
Q
  1. The RSVR 1/2/Backup LOW caution illuminates when?
A

When there is 60% fluid remaining in the reservoir (leak in the system).

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79
Q
  1. If a tail rotor cable breaks, what caution and/or advisory would appear?
A

T/R QUAD FAIL caution

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80
Q
  1. The No. 2 hyd. system supplies pressure through the transfer mod to what servos?
A

The second stage primary servos and pilot-assist servos.

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81
Q

BOOST SERVO OFF caution indicates what?

A

Loss of hydraulic pressure to the collective and/or yaw boost servo.

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82
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the APU Accumulator?
A

Provide a hydraulic charge to the APU start motor.

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83
Q
  1. In flight, the backup pump mode automatically sets to?
A

The AUTO mode even if the switch is in the OFF or ON position.

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84
Q
  1. What does the backup pump supply pressure to?
A
  • No. 1 and/or No. 2 hydraulic systems

- Second stage tail rotor servo and APU accumulator.

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85
Q
  1. Name the trim actuators. –
A

Yaw, roll, collective and pitch

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86
Q
  1. What FCC drives the trim actuators? –
A

FCC #2

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87
Q
  1. What five lights illuminate when the backup hydraulic pump is on?
A 
RES 1 LOW
HYD PUMP 1 
HYD PUMP 2
T/R SERVO 1
T/R SERVO 2 ON and APU ACCUM LOW
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88
Q

Two central components of the AFCS?

A

FCCs

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89
Q

What does the AFCS do?

A

It enhances the stability and handling qualities of the helicopter and provides autopilot functions.

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90
Q
  1. What FCC sends signals to the trim actuator?
A

FCC 2

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91
Q
  1. What are the five basic subsystems of AFCS?
A 
Stabilator
SAS 
Trim
Flight Path Stabilization (FPS)
Flight director (FD)
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92
Q

What are the additional features of AFCS?

A

Heading hold
Pitch and roll hover augmentation/gust alleviation
Turn coordination
Fault detection and annunciations

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93
Q
  1. What are SAS actuators used for?
A

Used to enhance aircraft short term dynamic stability

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94
Q
  1. What axis does SAS work in?
A

pitch, roll, yaw

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95
Q
  1. When does SAS 1 and 2 enhance turn coordination?
A

When the FCC compute data at airspeeds above 50 kts

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96
Q

What provides long term inputs by trimming the flight controls to the position required to maintain selected flight attitude?

A

Outer loop—collective, pitch, roll and yaw (Trim)/FPS

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97
Q
  1. What are the five basic subsystems that comprise AFCS?
A

Stabilator, Trim, SAS, FPS, and Coupled FD .

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98
Q
  1. What type of Stability is Static associated with, Short or Long Term?
A

Long Term

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99
Q
  1. What will the FCCs do if A/S signal is lost?
A

Shut off

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100
Q
  1. What is the control authority of the outer loop trim?
A

100% (10% per second)

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101
Q
  1. Is heading hold an inner or outer loop function?
A

It is an outer loop, because it operates through the yaw trim actuator

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102
Q
  1. What is required for proper operation of the FPS?
A

SAS/BOOST, TRIM and SAS1 and/or SAS 2 functions have been selected on the AUTO FLIGHT CONTROL panel

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103
Q

When is the heading hold reengaged following a turn when what following conditions are maintained for 2 seconds?

A

Roll attitude is within 2 degrees of wing level and yaw rate is less than 2 degrees per second

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104
Q
  1. When will a heading hold be captured in a hover?
A

When yaw rate reaches zero, not when pedal switches are engaged

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105
Q
  1. What are the four signals used by the FCCs to position the Stabilator?
A

C L A P

Collective stick position sensors
Lateral Accelerometers
Airspeed signals from the ADC’s
Pitch rate signals from the EGI’s

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106
Q
  1. Describe the Stabilator.
A

A variable angle of incidence airfoil that enhances handling qualities in the pitch axis in forward flight

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107
Q
  1. What are the stabilator functions?
A

SCLAP

● Streamlines – compensates for rotor downwash
● Collective coupling – minimize pitch excursions due to collective inputs
● Angle of Incidence – Angle of Incidence decreases as airspeed increases
● Lateral Sideslip – Sideslip to pitch coupling to reduce susceptibility to gusts
● Pitch Rate – pitch rate feedback to dampen pitch excursions

● Air data computer – Connected to pitot static system

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108
Q
  1. Where does the Stabilator derive its pitch information?
A

The EGIs.

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109
Q

What employs rate damping to improve helicopter stability, 10% control authority, fast in response, and can operate without causing movement of the flight controls?

A

Inner loop (SAS—pitch, roll and yaw)

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110
Q
  1. What are the two cautions and one advisory associated with the Stabilator?
A

STAB MANUAL MODE, STAB UNLOCKED, STAB DEGRADED

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111
Q
  1. Basic autopilot functions are provided by?
A

Trim/FPS

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112
Q
  1. The FPS will maintain and provide the helicopter with what at a/s above 50kts?
A

Pitch and roll attitude, airspeed and heading during cruise flight, and provide a coordinated turn feature

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113
Q

The ______________ caution indicates the majority of AFCS has shut down.

A

AFCS FAIL

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114
Q
  1. What does the SAS DEGRADED advisory mean?
A

The SAS pitch, roll, or yaw channel has disengaged.

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115
Q
  1. What does the STAB DEGRADED advisory mean?
A

The stabilator is in a limited auto mode.

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116
Q
  1. To attempt to clear AFCS fault indications, the pilot can_________.
A

Press the illuminated CPTR 1 and/or CPTR 2 button

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117
Q
  1. The collective trim beeper can be used below 50 KIAS to ________?
A

Change the aircraft heading

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118
Q
  1. The inner loop or SAS provides how much control authority?
A

5% per or 10% total

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119
Q
  1. The outer loop or Trim/FPS provides how much control authority?
A

100%

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120
Q
  1. What are the five basic subsystems that comprise AFCS?
A

Stabilator, Trim, SAS, FPS, and Coupled FD.

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121
Q

2.Dynamic stability is provided by?

A

SAS

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122
Q

3.Basic auto pilot functions are provided by?

A

`Trim/FPS.

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123
Q

4.The ______________ caution indicates the majority of AFCS has shut down.

A

AFCS FAIL

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124
Q
  1. What does the SAS DEGRADED advisory mean?
A

The SAS pitch, roll, or yaw channel has disengaged.

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125
Q
  1. What does the STAB DEGRADED advisory mean?
A

The stabilator is in a limited auto mode.

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126
Q
  1. To attempt to clear AFCS fault indications, the pilot can_________.
A

press the illuminated CPTR 1 and/or CPTR 2 button

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127
Q
  1. The collective trim beeper can be used below 50 KIAS to ________?
A

change the aircraft heading

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128
Q

What are the main rotor subsystems?

A

m/r blades, hub, flight controls, bifilar vibration absorber

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129
Q
  1. Conical Elastomeric bearings permit what movements?
A

Flap, lead, lag

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130
Q
  1. Cylindrical Elastomeric bearings permit what movements?
A

Provides the pitch change axis

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131
Q
  1. Main module chip detector has a _____ time delay to allow fuzz burn to work?
A

30 seconds

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132
Q
  1. The ________ accessory module has a low oil pressure switch and chip detector.
A

Left

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133
Q
  1. Main XSMSN oil capacity?
A

7 GALLONS

134
Q
  1. The main transmission is made up of ____ modules.
A

Five (Two input modules, the main module, and two accessory modules)

135
Q
  1. Each accessory module has a mounting flange for the installation and drive of the:
A

Main ac generator and

Main hydraulic pump.

136
Q
  1. Where is the Low Oil Pressure switch located?
A

Left accessory module

137
Q
  1. The main transmission may run at cruise flight for _______ with loss of all oil?
A

30 minutes

138
Q
  1. The ac generators on the accessory modules also receive oil for what?
A

Cooling

139
Q
  1. The transmission oil temperature sensor is also the chip detector located where?
A

Main module, intermediate module, tail rotor module

140
Q

What range should oil pressure remain steady in to ensure any fluctuations occur they remain in the acceptable range?

A

45-60 psi

141
Q
  1. What is used to cool the main transmission oil?
A

Oil cooler fan and the radiator

142
Q
  1. What caution appears if a chip detector fails the PBIT during power up?
A

CHIP IBIT FAIL

143
Q
  1. The Oil Filter has ___ stages.
A

Two

144
Q
  1. Does deactivation of the fuzz burn-off feature disable detection and cautions?
A

No

145
Q
  1. The fuzz burn-off feature is deactivated when oil temperature reaches ___°C.?
A

140 *C

146
Q
  1. Does the engine have fuzz burn capability?
A

No

147
Q
  1. When inspecting the flexible couplings, check for _______, _____, and _____.
A

Buckling, Cracks, and Security .

148
Q
  1. The intermediate gear box may run at cruise flight for ___ minutes, with loss of all oil.
A

30

149
Q
  1. The tail rotor provides approximately _____ lift.
A

2 ½% total aircraft lift

150
Q

If both tail rotor control cables fail, a centering spring will position the tail rotor servo linkage to provides ___* of pitch

A

10.5

151
Q

The tail rotor head and blades are installed on the right side of the tail pylon, canted __° upward.

A

20˚

152
Q
  1. One advantage of the wide chord blades is _________________.
A

Better maneuverability

153
Q

Each arm of the hub assembly is pre-lagged and pre-coned __°to reduce the torque bending movement from the head and reduce vibrations.

A

7 degrees

154
Q

Pitch control rod bearings are elastomeric and should be inspected for _____/_____ on preflight.

A

Damage/Cracks

155
Q

The three control inputs connecting the primary servos to the main rotor swashplate are the _______, ___, and _______ control rods.

A

Forward, Aft, and Lateral

156
Q

The rotor brake system is designed to hold the main and tail rotor system during engine starting, with both engines at IDLE and to stop the rotors in approximately ___-___ seconds with 150-180 psi applied at 40% NR during engine shutdown.

A

12-18

157
Q
  1. Operating an engine against the gust lock __ _______ on rotor brake equipped helicopters.
A

Is prohibited

158
Q
  1. What is the purpose of spring cylinders?
A

Maintain tension on operating cables of T/R Quadrant

159
Q

The rotor brake solenoid locks the ______________ in the ground idle position through a locking arm linked to the solenoid.

A

EPCLs

160
Q

Where does emergency power come from?

A

A generator driven by the APU

161
Q
  1. What do the generators do?
A

converts mechanical energy to electrical

162
Q
  1. Where does DC power come from?
A

2 converters

163
Q
  1. What voltage do the converters output?
A

28 volts

164
Q
  1. Where does converter output go?
A

No 1 and 2 DC primary buses

165
Q
  1. What provides secondary or emergency power?
A

2 slab batteries

166
Q
  1. Where does power from the slabs go?
A

Battery utility bus (bub), battery bus, DC essential bus

167
Q
  1. How many phases do the generators have?
A

3 phases

168
Q
  1. How many priorities of power are there and what are they?
A

1st – Main Gens, 2nd- APU Gen, 3rd – External power receptacle

169
Q
  1. How are generators cooled?
A

Oil cooled

170
Q
  1. How is the APU generator cooled?
A

Air cooled

171
Q
  1. How many generators are required for blade de-ice?
A

2

172
Q
  1. Main Generator specs:
A

Driven mechanically by transmission, supplies power even during autorotation
Provide power when NR above 85% (flight) or 93 – 97% (ground)
1 main gen can power entire aircraft with exception of blade de-ice
Must be replaced if aircraft has flown 10 hrs. with bearing fail caution (GEN ½ BRG FAIL)

173
Q

APU Generator specs:

A

APU must be running for generator to work
Aux/Backup power for aircraft
Will not power windshield anti-ice while backup pump is running
2 GENERATORS ARE REQUIRED TO RUN BLADE DE-ICE

174
Q

Generator Control Unit (GCU) specs:

A

Voltage regulation Voltage regulation – Regulates voltage to 115/200 VAC.
Over voltage: When the generator output voltage rises above limits generator is disabled and disconnected from
the system
Under voltage: 85-89% NR
Current Limiting Current limiting – When excessive current demands are placed on the generator
it is disabled and disconnected from the system
Under Frequency: 93-95% NR (ground operation only, disabled by WOW switch)
Feeder Fault When current transformers sense a short circuit in the feeder lines between the
generators and the junction boxes the generator is disabled and disconnected from the system
Converter takes 3 phase 115 VAC and makes 28 VDC
Each system is capable of supplying total aircraft power
External Power Monitor Panel

175
Q
  1. What is Over/Under Voltage?
A

Over Voltage – Will not allow connection of power if voltage is above limits.
Under Voltage – Will not allow connection of power if voltage is below limits.

176
Q
  1. What is Over/Under Frequency?
A

Over Frequency – Will not allow connection of power if frequency is above limits.
Under Frequency – Will not allow connection of power if frequency is below limits.

177
Q
  1. What is the proper phase rotation?
A

(A/B/C)

178
Q
  1. What are the basics of the batteries 1&2?
A

24 VDC SLAB, 5 amp/hr, 15 min uninterrupted emergency power

179
Q
  1. How many systems are in the Electrical system?
A

2 independent systems
Only power BUB bus/BATT bus/DC ESS bus
BUB bus is “hot” whenever battery is plugged in

180
Q

How many generators are required for blade de-ice to function?

A

2

181
Q

Does backup pump have priority oiver windshield anti-ice when APU Gen is sole source of power?

A

Yes

182
Q

The two external components that provide display information to the ESIS are:

A

ADC & Magnetometer

183
Q
  1. A beeping tone can be heard when the acft is on the ground with AC power removed if the BATT STBY INST switch is in which position?
A

ARM (reword to shorten)

184
Q
  1. The ESIS battery should supply power to the instrument for at least ______________.:
A

30 minutes

185
Q
  1. What are the components of the AVCS?
A

Active Vibration Control Computer, Electronic Unit, 3 Force Generators, 10 Accelerometers, & Nr Speed Sensor.

186
Q
  1. The normal Nr operating range for the Active Vibration Control system is ___Nr to ___Nr?
A

90%, 105%.

187
Q
  1. Where is the AVCS control switch located?
A

On the Overhead Console.

188
Q
  1. The FMS can be accessed to check the ________ or initiate a _________ of the AVCS.
A

Status, Built in Test (BIT).

189
Q
  1. How does AVCS reduce helicopter and cabin vibrations?
A

By mechanically generating additional airframe vibratory loads out-of-phase with the main rotor induced 4 per rev vibrations

190
Q
  1. At what NR does AVCS INOP disappear?
A

By 90%

191
Q
  1. What is the function of the Electronic Unit (EU)?
A

Converts AVCC data into analog drive commands and sends the data to the appropriate force generators (FGs)

192
Q

The AVCS INOP advisory illuminates in flight to indicate ____________?

A

Total failure of the AVCS

193
Q

Reducing airspeed may reduce

A

Vibrations

194
Q

Abnormal vibrations not affected by the

VIB CONT switch position or associated with an AVC system failure may require more…..

A

Immediate action

195
Q

What are the components of the Active Vibration Control System?

A

Active Vibration Control Computer, Electronic Unit, 3 Force Generators, 10 Accelerometers, & Nr Speed Sensor.

196
Q

The normal Nr operating range for the Active Vibration Control system is ___Nr to ___Nr?

A

90%, 105%.

197
Q

Where is the AVCS control switch located?

A

On the Overhead Console .

198
Q

The FMS can be accessed to check the ________ or initiate a _________ of the Active Vibration Control System

A

Status, Built in Test (BIT)

199
Q

The AVCS INOP advisory illuminates in flight to indicate

A

Total failure of the Active Vibration Control System

200
Q

The lower stage will absorb energy from landings up to 10 feet-per-second (fps). Above 10 fps the upper stage and lower stage combine to absorb loads up to .

A

39 fps (about 11.25 Gs)

201
Q

Do not exceed a touchdown sink rate of 540 feet-per-minute on level terrain and 360 feet-per-minute on slopes with gross weights of up to 16,825 pounds; above 16,825 pounds gross weight do not exceed ___ feet-per-minute on level terrain and 180 feet-per-minute on slopes.

A

300

202
Q

The brake wear indicator provides a ______ means of checking the level of wear on the brake pads (pucks)?

A

Visual.

203
Q

How many Weight on Wheel (WOW) switches are installed on the landing gear?

A

2, one on each.

204
Q

Do not exceed a touchdown sink rate of ___feet-per-minute on level terrain and ___ feet-per-minute on slopes with gross weights of up to 16,825 pounds; above 16,825 pounds gross weight do not exceed ___feet-per-minute on level terrain and ___ feet-per-minute on slopes?

A

540, 360, 300, 180.

205
Q

ESIS components:

A

Display unit, Magnometer (hdg), ADC (asp/alt/vs), Battery, Detachable configuration module

206
Q

ESIS will function for at least

A

30 min

207
Q

Beeping tone

A

if switch left in ARM

208
Q

Performs continuous ___ (CBIT) and will blank out Hazardous/erroneous information to include entire display

A

Self Test

209
Q

1.The two external components that provide display information to the ESIS are:

A

ADC & Magnetometer

210
Q

2.The BATTERY STBY INST switch is located where in the cockpit?

A

Upper Console

211
Q

A beeping tone can be heard when the the aircraft is on the ground with AC power removed if the BATTERY STBY INST switch is in which position?

A

ARM

212
Q

4.The ESIS battery should supply power to the instrument for at least ______________.

A

30 minutes

213
Q

Dual EGI failure

A
  1. Transition to ESIS display.
  2. EGI switches — OFF , then ON . If successful,
    an EGI inflight alignment will automatically be done.
  3. LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE.
214
Q

How long does it take to recharge the accumulator?

A

Approx. 90 seconds required for backup pump to recharge accumulator

215
Q
  1. What is the minimum psi the APU accumulator must have?
A

2800 psi

216
Q
  1. If the APU OIL HOT caution appears, how much time should you allow for cooling?
A

30 minutes

217
Q
  1. What would you do to get outside air into the cockpit?
A

Turn on the vent blower

218
Q
  1. How long of a delay is there when powering the APU?
A

3 to 5 seconds

219
Q
  1. What are three heated air sources for the aircraft on the ground?
A

Bleed air from the engine, APU, external source

220
Q
  1. Describe the fire detectors:
A

Solid state photoconductive cells that react to infrared radiation

221
Q
  1. If there is no AC power available, you cannot fight a fire on what engine?
A

2 engine

222
Q
  1. The windshield wipers slow down at airspeeds greater than what?
A

20kts

223
Q

If ice is allowed to accumulate, shedding of the windshield anti-ice may enter the engine inlets and result in?

A

FOD and/or Flameout

224
Q
  1. The maximum weight that may be suspended from a cargo hook is?
A

9,000lbs

225
Q
  1. What are the 3 modes of release?
A

Normal, manual, and emergency

226
Q
  1. The landing gear will absorb up to how many feet per second?
A

39fps (about 11.25 Gs)

227
Q
  1. How many quarts does the oil reservoir contain?
A

3 US quarts

228
Q
  1. What does the Electronic Sequencing Unit do?
A

It provides automatic starting and continuous operational monitoring

229
Q

What does the APU accumulator have that can be used to recharge the accumulator if it is not at the minimum of 2800 psi?

A

Hand pump

230
Q
  1. The purpose of the APU is to?
A

Provide a pneumatic air source and an electrical power source

231
Q

If the APU is the sole source of power the ____and ____________can’t be used simultaneously.

A

Windshield anti-ice, back up pump

232
Q

The brake wear indicator provides a __________ means of checking the level of wear on the brake pads (pucks)?

A

Visual

233
Q
  1. How many weights on wheel (WOW) switches are installed on the landing gear?
A

2, one on each

234
Q
  1. What happens when the APU T-handle is activated?
A

It sends a stop signal to ESU/DESU

235
Q
  1. Burn rate of approx. __ pph from #1 main fuel cell
A

120

236
Q
  1. Dipstick has a __ and cold side
A

Hot side

237
Q
  1. Will not run Windshield ____ and Backup pump at same time
A

Anti-Ice

238
Q
  1. Backup pump is __
A

Priority

239
Q

ONLY ____ CAN BE FIRED BY BATT POWER, IF ENGINES OFF AND APU

FIRE USE RESERVE

A

Reserve Fire Bottle

240
Q

APU OIL HOT caution appears, shut down APU and check oil level after ___ min cooling period

A

30 min

241
Q

WARNING: If AC electrical power is not available, only the reserve fire bottle can be discharged and _____

A

fire extinguishing capability for the #2 engine will be lost

242
Q

During ground operation at high ambient temperatures the APU OIL HOT caution may appear and the OIL HOT capsule may illuminate.

A

• If this occurs, the APU should be shut down immediately to prevent damage.
• After a 30-minute cooling period, the oil level should be checked.
If okay, the APU may be restarted

243
Q
  1. ESU will shut down ___ for any detected problem except APU OIL HOT caution
A

APU

244
Q
  1. HEATING/VENTILATION
A

a. Powered by APU on ground, bleed air in flight

b. 5% reduction in Q for using it

245
Q

Thermal protection switch within the mixing valve activates the shut off valve when the temperature reaches _ to _ degrees C

A

90, 96

246
Q

The fire detection system provides fire warning in the cockpit in case of what?

A

Fire in either engine compartment or the APU compartment

247
Q

Upon an impact of 10 g or more, the Omni directional impact switch automatically fires both containers releasing fire extinguishing agent into what?

A

Both engine compartments

248
Q
  1. When the Thermal Discharge Safety Port is missing the plug indicates what?
A

One or both containers have discharged due to over pressurization

249
Q

CONFIRM FIRE IF POSSIBLE BEFORE ACTIVATING SYSTEM FIRE and T-handle will illuminate (NO MASTER CAUTION)

A

Thermal discharge safety port designed to fail if pressure in bottles too high
MAIN fires from AC power, RESERVE battery power (DC PRI bus)
Crash of 10g or more will fire both bottles into both engines by impact switch
If no AC power fire-fighting ability is lost in #2 engine
Engine/Fuselage Fire On Ground
1. ENG POWER CONT levers - OFF.
2. ENG EMER OFF handle – Pull.
Pulling the engine emergency off handle removes the fuel source from the engine and arms the fire extinguishing logic module to set the extinguishing agent valve to the compartment to which the fire extinguishing agent is dispensed
3. FIRE EXTGH switch – MAIN/RESERVE as required .
4. Rotor Brake – As required
WARNING: In case of fire when AC electrical power is not applied to the helicopter, the reserve fire extinguisher must be discharged. Fire extinguisher agent cannot be discharged into No. 2 engine compartment if AC electrical power is not applied to helicopter.
WARNING : If AC electrical power is not available, only the reserve fire bottle can be discharged and fire extinguishing capability for the #2 engine will be lost.

250
Q

Engine Fire In Flight.

A
  1. Establish single engine airspeed.
  2. ENG POWER CONT lever (affected engine) – OFF.
  3. ENG EMER OFF handle – Pull.
  4. FIRE EXTGH switch – MAIN/RESERVE as required .
  5. LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
    WARNING : Attempt to visually confirm fire before engine shutdown or discharging extinguishing agent.
251
Q

APU Compartment Fire

A
  1. APU fire T-handle – Pull.
  2. FIRE EXTGH switch – MAIN/RESERVE as required.
    Electrical Fire In Flight.
  3. Prior to shutting off all electrical power, the pilot must consider the equipment that
    is essential to a particular flight environment which will be affected, e.g., flight
    instruments, flight controls, etc.
  4. If a landing cannot be made as soon as possible, the affected circuit may be isolated
    by selectively turning off electrical equipment and/or pulling circuit breakers.
  5. BATT and GENERATORS switches – OFF.
  6. LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.
252
Q

WINDSHIELD WIPERS

A
  1. Once finished with the windshield wipers the switch should be placed into what position to return the
    wipers to the normal position? Park
  2. If ice accumulates on the windshield what could happen? Ice shedding can cause engine FOD
  3. How many windshield anti-ice switches are there? Three, COPILOT, CTR, PILOT
253
Q
  1. Engine anti-icing is a combination of what?
A

Bleed-air and heated engine oil

254
Q

The temperature of each panel is controlled to a heat level of about?

A

43 degrees C

255
Q
  1. What kind of power does the anti-ice system require?
A

AC power Automatically shuts off at 43 degrees C

Will shut off if being powered by APU and backup pump turns on

256
Q

How many windshield anti-ice switches are there?

A

Three. COPILOT, CTR, PILOT.

257
Q

If the APU is the sole source of power the ______ and ______ can’t be used simultaneously.

A

Windshield anti-ice, Backup pump.

258
Q

If ice accumulates on the windshield what could happen?

A

Ice shedding can cause engine FOD

259
Q

To prevent unintentional discharge of the cargo hook explosive cartridge, the pilot shall call off each procedural step of which test?

A

The emergency release circuit test

260
Q

What are the three modes of release?

A

Normal, Manual, and Emergency.

261
Q

Pitot static pressure is sent to what aircraft components?

A

ADCs

262
Q

Pitot heat and anti-ice shall be on during operations in visible moisture with ambient temperature of _________ and below?

A

4 degrees C (39F)

263
Q
  1. When must pitot heat be turned on?
A

Below 4 degrees and visible moisture pitot heat must be on

264
Q
  1. What happens if the pitot system becomes clogged in flight?
A

Stabilator could program full down

265
Q

What controls the fuel system?

A

Controlled by the Digital Electronic Sequence Unit (DESU)

266
Q
  1. What the most common method of refueling?
A

Pressure will transfer over and is MOST COMMON METHOD (55 PSI 300 GPM)

267
Q
  1. Internal check valves are used for what?
A

1-way direction and keeps system primed

268
Q
  1. What are the pilot controlled fuel systems?
A

submerged boost, prime boost, and CEFS

269
Q
  1. What 3 inputs affect fuel flow to the HMU?
A

PAS, LDS, Torque motor

270
Q
  1. What is the fuel flow? (in order of flow)?
A

Engine driven boost pump, fuel press sensor, fuel filter, HMU, liquid to liquid cooler, ODV, Main fuel manifold (12 injectors)

271
Q
  1. Which fuel cell feeds the APU?
A

Number 1 fuel cell

272
Q
  1. Three methods to refuel the aircraft:
A

gravity (one cell at a time), pressure (55 PSI at 300 GPM both cells simultaneously) and closed circuit (15 PSI at 110 GPM similar to pressure but with NATO fitting) 9.

273
Q

Which fuels may be used?

A

JP-8, JP-5 and JP-4

274
Q
  1. What is considered normal configuration?
A

2 main fuel cells, 2400 lbs, approx. 2.2 hours of flight time

275
Q
  1. Which fuel lines are self-sealing and which ones are not?
A

Engine lines are self-sealing but APU/CEFS are steel braided and not self-sealing

276
Q
  1. Which fuel pump is energized when the button is pressed?
A

Prime boost pump

277
Q
  1. Which fuel pumps are pilot controlled?
A

Submerged boost, prime boost and CEFS

278
Q
  1. When refueling, what mechanism stops incoming fuel?
A

High level shutoff (similar to toilet bowl)

279
Q
  1. Pressure refuel/defuel valves are closed by high/low level shutoff valves when?
A

Fuel level is at the high or low level, respectively

280
Q
  1. Which component produces a signal for the amount of fuel in the cells?
A

Fuel Quantity probe

281
Q
  1. In the fuel cells, what keeps the fuel lines primed?
A

One-way check valves

282
Q
  1. Also in the fuel cells, what component allows for expansion of fuel in cold temperatures?
A

Pressure relief valve

283
Q
  1. Fuel cells have a ballistic tolerance up to?
A

7.62

284
Q
  1. What are the abort criteria?
A

No rise in TGT, Eng Oil Press, NP within 45secs, Eng starter On caution disappears before reaching 52% NG, TGT reaches 851 C before idle is attained (above 63% NG)

285
Q
  1. What powers the submerged boost pump?
A

AC motor (know which bus)

286
Q
  1. When does the FUEL LOW caution appear?
A

Approx. 172 lbs

287
Q
  1. When does the fuel pressure sensor activate the FUEL 1 or FUEL 2 PRESS LOW caution?
A

When fuel pressure is less than 9 psi

288
Q
  1. The APU uses approx. how many pounds per hour?
A

120 lbs

289
Q
  1. What prevents an excessive fuel leak if a fuel line breaks loose?
A

Fuel breakaway valve

290
Q
  1. Approximately how many gallons of fuel remain after pressure defueling?
A

3.5 gallons

291
Q
  1. What kind of pressure does the engine-driven boost pump use to pump fuel?
A

Negative pressure

292
Q

What prevents the fuel cells from collapsing due to negative pressure from the engine driven boost pump?

A

Y-shaped vent tube

293
Q
  1. What section of the aircraft are the fuel cells in?
A

Transition

294
Q
  1. Where do the no.1 and no.2 submerged boost pumps receive their power?
A

No.1 and no.2 AC primary busses respectively

295
Q
  1. The engine driven fuel boost pumps are driven by?
A

The Ng section of the engine

296
Q

How many login attempts are provided before a message is sent to the security officer?

A

Three

297
Q

Over the horizon capability and communication over the tactical internet is accomplished using ______________?

A

Blue Force Tracker Network (BFT)

298
Q

3.Is the username / password file held in the IDM after shutdown?

A

No

299
Q

What does the Receive Message Filter list allow the operator to do?

A

Select the type of messages that will be received.

300
Q

What does the operator need to do if he wants JVMF to automatically acknowledge a message when it is opened?

A

Set (OPERATOR ACK) on the Setup Page to AUTO

301
Q

3.How does the operator manually load JVMF files from the PCMCIA?

A

By using the FILE LOAD feature on the Setup Page.

302
Q

Start-UP

A

•The FMS will not pop up pages for the MFD if it is on a STATUS page. (Login screen, some
manual entries on messages…)
•
•If the MFDs are powered off and back on and find the IDM already in an OPERATIONAL
state the MFD will skip the initialization and just reconnect to the IDM.
•
•PN NET is not functional and should always show STOPPED or CONFIG REQUIRED or
EMCON.
•
•Messages should always use NET: TI NET as the PN net is not currently functional and the
SEND will fail if it is selected.
•
•Selecting LOAD on the FMS DTS page has no effect on the MFD JVMF. The FMS and
MFD load separate sets of files.
•
•The IDM Takes 1 ½ min to boot up from the time power is applied.
Changing the selection of UTO on the SETUP page may result in a brief delay while the IDM processes the selected UTO. The selected UTO should always be set in the AMPS and not changed unless a new UTO is loaded.
• If you have logged into the TI and need to load a different Mission card or you want to start over loading the JVMF from the start, put the card in, verify that it is ready by using the FMS, and follow the File Load slide.
• Always include the UTO files in an AMPS mission load even when you do not need to reload the UTO into the IDM as this will make it easier to select the correct UTO to use in the AMPS screen. Otherwise you will need to remember the database name which may not be the same as the filename.
Elevation data (RDTED files) will not work in the moving map unless it is in the DTS before the TAC page is accessed. This effects Elevation Banding, Height Above Terrain, Threat Inter-Visibility, and certain values prefilled into some VMF messages.
• The process will go smoother if you avoid loading files at the same time as other activities that use the DTS heavily. (FMS DTS Load, Accessing the TAC page…)

303
Q

START UP: Causes for “TI CONFIG REQUIRED”:

A

Own URN not in current UTO; No UTO loaded; Password file or Config file not found in Mission Load.

304
Q

START UP: Causes for “DTS NOT READY”:

A

Mission Card not seated; DTS not finished booting; Mission Card not Ready’ on the FMS DTS page.

305
Q

START UP: Causes for “INVALID PASSWORD”:

A

UTC time not set (EGI not yet aligned); Password entered incorrectly.

306
Q

START UP: Causes for “UTO MISMATCH”:

A

The UTO loaded in the IDM is not the one called for in the Mission Load. If there is no “TI CONFIG REQUIRED” message then you may be able to login anyway but this could interfere
with IDM functionality.

307
Q

START UP: Causes for “IDM INIT FAIL”:

A

If the IDM takes longer than 10 sec to reach Operational this message will appear and will not go away. Mainly see this following a UTO load.

308
Q

• Read/Unread Message (“>”) –

A

Unopened message, displayed in message summary line, once opened, symbol removed upon opening

309
Q

• Acknowledgement Request (“?”) –

A

Operator requested acknowledgment, displayed in message summary line Once an acknowledgement is sent for the message, automatically or manually, the “ ? ” will be removed .

310
Q
  1. What does the > symbol mean before a message line on the Inbox Page?
A

The message hasn’t yet been opened.

311
Q

2.What does the ? Symbol mean before a message line on the Inbox Page?

A

The sender has requested an acknowledgement.

312
Q

3.A MAYDAY message defaults to ____?

A

Downed Aircraft

313
Q

4.When would you need to use the RESEND bezel key on the XMIT STATUS Page?

A

When the status of the sent message is shown as TIMEOUT.

314
Q

• The Setup bezel key, when pressed brings up the ___ setup page which allows the operator to manage and configure JVMF settings.

A

JVMF

315
Q

•___ password entry attempts can be made before a message is sent to the Security Officer.

A

3

316
Q

•The BFT Network is used because of it’s “_______” capability.

A

Over the Horizon

317
Q

On the Inbox page, a “_” at the beginning of a message line means that an acknowledgement has been requested.

A

?

318
Q

On the Inbox page, a “_” symbol at the beginning of a message line indicates an unopened message.

A

>

319
Q

•The Emergency Type in a Mayday message defaults to “_______”.

A

Downed Aircraft

320
Q

•JVMF Annunciations are displayed at the bottom center of each MFD page except the ___.

A

PFD

321
Q

The IVHMU receives ___ data via the Ethernet from the Data Transfer Set (DTS) PCMCIA data card. The IVHMU transmits IVHMS data to a maintenance directory on the PCMCIA card using the DTS.

A

HUMS

322
Q

CVR/FDR normal recording is controlled by a single open/ground discrete connected in parallel with both _____.

A

DCUs to the IVHMU

323
Q

The DCUs manage start-stop control that provides

A

a. an open state condition to initiate recording

b. a ground state to initiate shutdown of recording.

324
Q

CVR/FDR CONTROL: Additionally, the inertia switch is used to control primary power to the CVR/FDR, in the event of an _____ (to preclude the over-writing of pertinent pre-incident data).

A

Incapacitating incident

325
Q

The DCUs monitor inputs and provide an open circuit to the CVR/FDR when ANY of the following conditions exist:

A

a. No. 1 ENG ON (NG1 greater than 55%)
b. No. 2 ENG ON (NG2 greater than 55%)
c. Main XMSN OP greater than 20 PSI
d. WOW switch equals false (In flight condition)

326
Q

The DCUs monitor inputs and provide a ground to the CVR/FDR when ALL of the following conditions exist:

A

a. No. 1 ENG OFF (NG1 less than 55%)
b. No. 2 ENG OFF (NG2 less than 55%)
c. Main XMSN OP less than 20 PSI
d. WOW switch equals true (on ground condition)

327
Q

If the pilot or co-pilot feel unusual vibrations or hear unusual noises, they can use the _________ (Intermittent event) switch to obtain a snapshot of the aircraft flight condition, vibration, and cockpit noise.

A

A: HUMS-E REC

328
Q

Q: How is IVHMS data transferred from the aircraft to the ground station?

A

A: PCMCIA card

329
Q

What starts/ stops the recording of the CVR/FDR (Cockpit Voice Recorder/ Flight Data Recorder)?

A

A: DCUs

330
Q

Q: Which IVHMS main menu would a pilot need to access to perform a HIT check?

A

A: Power Checks

331
Q

The Integrated Vehicle Health Management Unit (IVHMU) integrates the following helicopter health and safety capabilities: Underwater acoustic locating device, Health and Usage Monitoring System (HUMS), and ____________.

A

A: Cockpit Voice Recorder/ Flight Data Recorder

332
Q

The crew must initiate the end of operation ( END OF OP ) prior to hot crew swap. When initiated, the process will write the final usage data to the DTU and complete the usage crosschecks, reset the timers and counters, and the end “data packet” written to the ____

A

DTU

UH-60 (15 decks)

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