Systems 1 check on learning Flashcards

1
Q

Max gross weight

A

22,000

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2
Q

aluminum paneling is used for added E3 protection. where aluminum paneling couldnt be use, _____ was used?

A

Aluminum mesh

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3
Q

Minimum crew for UH-60

A

Two, pilot and co-pilot

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4
Q

How much ground clearance does the landing and searchlights have when extended?

A

less than one-foot.

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5
Q

If flights of over __ hours are made, engine oil level must be at the full line of sight glass before flight

A

6

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6
Q

The landing gear is designed to absorb a landing rate of up to ___ feet per-second?!

A

39

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7
Q

The _____ provides pneumatic power for main engine start, cabin heating and electrical power for ground operations and in-flight emergency electrical power.

A

APU

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8
Q

The main transmission has a built-in ____ forward tilt.

A

3

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9
Q

The cargo hook is used to carry external loads up to ______ lbs.

A

9,000

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10
Q

Accumulator pressure gage should read ______ PSI for APU starting.

A

2800

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11
Q

What changes the direction, transmits torque and reduces shaft speed from the main gear box to the tail rotor gear box?!

A

The intermediate gear box

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12
Q

The tail wheel swivels ____ degrees on a yoke assembly when unlocked.

A

360 deg.

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13
Q

The bottom trailing edge of the tail pylon has an aerodynamically shaped fairing, with a ___ degree of camber to decrease the amount of tail rotor pitch/anti-torque required in forward flight.

A

7

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14
Q

The helicopter has a variable angle of incidence stabilator to enhance _______ qualities.

A

Handling

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15
Q

Where is the #1 flight control computer located?

A

Aft avionics compartment

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16
Q

Why should you not store any items below the pilot seats?!

A

Any obstruction will increase the probability and severity of injury

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the Reversionary Switch Panel?

A

Provides a means of manually selecting alternate data sources for the pilot and copilot MFDs.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the I-Event switch?

A

To capture intermittent events such as noise and vibrations

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19
Q

Where is the Stabilator indicator located?

A

Upper left corner of the PFD

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20
Q

The radio control panel on the lower console is connected to which radio?

A

AN/ARC-231-3

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21
Q

How can the tailwheel be locked in the trail position?

A

By pressing the Tailwheel LOCK/UNLK switch to indicate LOCK.

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22
Q

What are the three positions of the Backup Hydraulic Pump switch?

A

ON, OFF, AUTO

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23
Q

What are the 4 positions on an ENG POWER CONT (PCL) called?!

A

Each ENG POWER CONT lever has four positions: OFF-IDLE-FLY- LOCKOUT.

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24
Q

How is cockpit ventilation controlled?!

A

A switch on the upper console marked VENT BLOWER.!

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25
How many fire extinguisher emergency off handles are there in the cockpit?
TWO engine fire extinguisher T-handles on the engine control quadrant and ONE APU T-handle on the APU control panel. 2 on the engine control quadrant 1 on the APU control panel
26
The ICS system consists of how many panels located throughout the cabin?!
FIVE
27
How is a radio’s audio disabled?
Pull up on the associated radio’s volume control knob.
28
What does the ICS consist of?
The ICS is a centralized system consisting of one Interface Control Unit (ICU); five ICS control panels, and cyclic and collective switches. 1 ICU 5 ICS control panels cyclic and collective switches
29
The CVR is used primarily for what?
Accident investigation
30
The acoustic beacon will emanate a signal for how long?
30 Days
31
What controls the START / STOP function of the CVR/FDR?
DCU's
32
How can the Martin Baker Seat be adjusted to face?
These seats can be adjusted to face left, right, forward, or aft.
33
What is the purpose of the inertia reels on the seat back and bottom?
It gives the wearer freedom of movement
34
How many passengers will the UH-60M normally carry in a “seats in” configuration, not including crew members?
Eleven
35
What are the two types of restraints offered to the passengers in a UH-60M?
Belt and Shoulder Harness
36
What kind of protection is offered to the pilot and copilot against small arms fire?
Armor plating resistant up to 7.62mm
37
The VLEAs may be manually adjusted for occupants ranging in weight from ___ to ____.
130 to 250 pounds optimizing the occupant’s protection.
38
What does the Flight/Mission Display System (F/MDS) consist of?
4 Multifunction Displays, Reversionary Switch Panels, Electronic Flight Information System (EFIS) Junction Boxes, and the Multifunction and Collective Slew Controllers. 4 MFD's 1 EFIS The multifunction and collective slew controllers
39
The Outboard, No. 1 and No. 4 MFDs default to the _____ upon power-up. The inboard No. 2 and No. 3 MFDs default to the _______ display.
PFD, EICAS
40
What are the pilot and copilot Reversionary Switch Panels used for?
Selecting the Alternate Data Source
41
What do the MFSCs provide?
They provide control of the MFD cursor, cursor activation, menu navigation and selection Control of: MFD cursor, Cursor activation Menu navigation and selection
42
Selection of the MFD display and various submodes is accomplished using each MFD’s, _____________.
24 bezel keys – 6 keys per side.
43
The PFD ______________ annunciations are displayed as a parameter label with a double-headed arrow above in either yellow or white?
Miscompare
44
Where is the Stabilator Position Indicator located?
The upper left corner of the PFD
45
The Stabilator Position indicator will be displayed in what colors for which modes of operation?
White for the Auto Mode and Limited Auto Mode; Yellow for the Manual Mode
46
An input failure of the airspeed data will result in what being displayed?
A Red IAS Fail Flag
47
The pitch and roll attitude inputs to the PFD are provided by what?
The EGIs
48
What is the standard lateral deviation pointer and scale provided for?
Course deviation guidance for Flight Management System (FMS) and Very high frequency Omni-directional Ranging (VOR) navigation, TACAN and Instrument Landing System (ILS) back course approaches. The pointer indicates normal fly-to sensing FMS VOR TACAN ILS
49
Which readout of the Barometric Altimeter defaults to the last setting?
Correction setting
50
What does the selected vertical speed symbology provide the pilot?
A reference vertical speed indication that is associated with a currently active flight director mode. Reference vertical speed indication Currently active flight director mode
51
The Correction Readout, Radar Altimeter Lo and High Bug settings push to synchronize to what readings?
2992, 50 ft, and 200 ft.
52
What is removed from the HSI when the heading input is invalid or failed?
The compass rose, cardinal points, heading readout/readout box are removed and the heading fail flag is displayed.
53
What does a yellow readout with an R represent in the wind speed and direction field?!
Remembered winds
54
What is the course pointer (associated selected course or desired track) and display controlled by?
FD/DCP NAV SRC and OBS knobs
55
What additional items can be displayed on the ARC submode that is not displayed on the FULL submode?
The Range Rings, Stormscope, Flightplan, and Hover point.
56
How are Strikes and Cells displayed when the Stormscope is enabled?
Strikes are displayed as an X, Cells displayed as a +
57
What does the Velocity Vector and Acceleration cue represent?
Velocity vector represents the direction and velocity the aircraft is currently moving. The Acceleration cue represents the directional acceleration. Velocity Vector: Direction and velocity AC is moving Acceleration Cue: Directional acceleration
58
When the Power Pod TGT is in the 2.5 minute range, it is displayed as _______.
Yellow Tape and Two Yellow Balls
59
On the PFD display, a black on red annunciation indicates the _____ to the MFD for that parameter has failed or is not being _______.
Input, recieved.
60
The Vertical Deviation (GS) pointer is displayed as a ___________.
Diamond
61
The ____________ is displayed below the barometric altimeter and is displayed in ___________.
correction setting, inches of Hg
62
The Vne indication will extend in a counterclockwise (decreasing airspeed) direction along the scale to show a reduced Vne IAS value when the ___________ is in the ____________.
stabilator, manual mode
63
The ND FULL display is oriented ________?
Heading up
64
The ND PLAN mode is oriented ________?!
True North up
65
Map annunciations are displayed (located) _________ and will be __________ when multiple annunciations are active.
Bottom center, Prioritized
66
When referring to indicator display colors, the parameter labels remain white unless ______________ .
A miscompare condition exist.
67
What does a large red X represent when displayed on the Engine Out Instrument?
Engine out indication
68
Within each of the EICAS windows, cautions and advisories are displayed in chronological order, with the most recently activated displayed at the _____ of the window.!
Top
69
A miscompare of EICAS data will be displayed with the _______________.!
Label in inverse video
70
What determines which FMS becomes the Bus Controller (BC)?
The first panel to complete its PBIT.
71
What are the first four lines of data on the FMS display called?
Header
72
The pilot’s FMS header defaults to what on power up?
NAV
73
How may waypoints may be put into a flight plan?
99
74
How many “store points” may be captured?
25
75
“IG2” indicates which navigation solution?
Blended solution from the #2 EGI.
76
What does the “STS” annunciation display at the top of the FMS mean?
A change in status has occured
77
A Box around a parameter on any given screen indicates what?
Can be edited
78
Manual selection of the aircraft navigation solution can be accomplished by accessing which FMS page?
EGI
79
How can you quickly “capture” a Target Store point?!
Press Fix twice
80
How is FPLN-A or FLPN-B initiated?
From the Flight Plan EDIT page, select ENGAGE.
81
Which page allows the pilot to change the com data/frequency assigned to a specific preset?
DAT (Mission Data Page)
82
What is the purpose of the flight plan Sequence Next function when in the Auto mode?
Can sequence to the course between the next pair of waypoints.
83
Steering cue commands for display on the MFDs are provided by?!
The FCC's
84
What are the components of the Flight Director?
Two independent Flight Control Computers, two Flight Director/Display Control Panels, two go-around switches, and two remote standby switches 2 Flight control computers 2 FD/DCP 2 Go around switches 2 remote standby switches
85
The FD processes signals from navigation and flight instrument sets to produce steering commands that are performed through which axes?
Through the pitch, roll, or collective axis.
86
What are the three HVR moves?
HVR DECL, HVR VHLD, & HVR POSN.
87
What are the Roll NAV sources?
FMS, VOR, TCN, LOC & BC.
88
To engage the ILS DECL mode, the indicated airspeed must be above ____kts.
70 KTS
89
To engage the HVR VHLD mode, the airspeed must be below____kts.
60 KTS
90
The Go Around mode provides collective, pitch, roll cues and FPS commands to establish a wings level ___ fpm Rate Of Climb while maintaining ___ knots.
750 and 70.
91
To engage the aircraft level attitude recovery mode when in an unusual attitude, the aircraft must be above _____ knots.
60
92
LTP drops offline ___ feet prior to the selected reference.
50 ft
93
When engaging Hover Hold using the Trim Beeper below 60 kts, what two modes will capture on the FD/DCP?
Hover Mode and RALT
94
PCMCIA cards must be inserted into the DTU how?
With the INSERT label facing aft.
95
A flashing status indicator light on the DTU indicates what?
That data is writing or updating.
96
The USER partition of the DTS is used for ____________________?
File management
97
A flashing status indicator light by a card slot indicates what?
The card is writing, copying, or updating information
98
To load data from the card into the FMS, select SK-10, DTS on:
INITIALIZATION 1/3!