Sy06 Exam Braindumps 451-500

Question 1

A small, local company experienced a ransomware attack. The company has one web-facing server and a few workstations. Everything is behind an ISP firewall. A single web-facing server is set up on the router to forward all polls so that the server is viewable from the internet. The company uses an older version of third-party software to manage the website. The assets were never patched. Which of the following should be done to prevent an attack like this from happening again? (Choose three.)

a. install DLP software to prevent data loss
b. Use the latest version of software
c. Install a SIEM device
d. Implement MDM
e. Implement a screened subnet for the web server
f. Install an endpoint security solution
g. Update the website certificate and revoke the existing ones
h. Deploy additional network sensors

Answer 1

(Community : BEF 100%)

The following are the three actions that should be taken to prevent a ransomware attack from happening again:

B. Use the latest version of software: Using the latest version of software will help to patch any vulnerabilities that may exist in older versions of the software.

E. Implement a screened subnet for the web server: A screened subnet, or demilitarized zone (DMZ), can be used to isolate the web-facing server from the internal network and to restrict inbound and outbound traffic.

F. Install an endpoint security solution: An endpoint security solution can help to protect workstations from malware and ransomware attacks

ChatGPT :
b. Use the latest version of software
e. Implement a screened subnet for the web server
f. Install an endpoint security solution

B. Use the latest version of software: The company should upgrade to the latest version of the third-party software that is used to manage the website. Older versions of software often have known vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers. Upgrading to the latest version can help ensure that the company is using software that has the latest security patches and fixes.

E. Implement a screened subnet for the web server: The company should implement a screened subnet, also known as a DMZ (demilitarized zone), to separate the web-facing server from the internal network. This will provide an additional layer of security by limiting the potential attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.

F. Install an endpoint security solution: An endpoint security solution should be installed on all workstations to protect against malware and ransomware. This can include anti-virus software, host-based firewalls, and other endpoint security controls.

Question 2

A security investigation revealed that malicious software was installed on a server using a server administrator’s credentials. During the investigation, the server administrator explained that Telnet was regularly used to log in. Which of the following most likely occurred?

a. A spraying attack was used to determine which credentials to use
b. A packet capture tool was used to steal the password
c. A remote-access Trojan was used to install the malware
d. A dictionary attack was used to log in as the server administrator

Answer 2

b. A packet capture tool was used to steal the password

Telnet is an unencrypted protocol that sends data, including login credentials, in clear text over the network. This means that anyone with access to the network traffic can use a packet capture tool to intercept and read the login credentials. In this case, an attacker could have used a packet capture tool to steal the server administrator’s password and then used it to log in and install the malicious software on the server.

Question 3

Which of the following roles would most likely have direct access to the senior management team?

a. Data custodian
b. Data owner
c. Data protection officer
d. Data controller

Answer 3

b. Data owner

The data owner (option b) would most likely have direct access to the senior management team. Here’s why:

Responsibility for Data: The data owner is responsible for making decisions about how data is used, protected, and accessed within an organization.
Accountability: They often have authority over data management policies and practices, which can include reporting directly to senior management on data-related issues.
Strategic Decisions: Access to senior management is crucial for data owners to communicate data strategy, compliance issues, and risk management related to data assets.

Let’s briefly explain why the other options are less likely to have direct access to senior management:

a. Data custodian:

Explanation: Data custodians are responsible for the storage, maintenance, and protection of data assets according to the policies set by the data owner and senior management.
Access to Senior Management: While data custodians play a critical role in data management, their responsibilities typically do not include direct interaction with senior management on strategic decisions related to data.

c. Data protection officer:

Explanation: A Data Protection Officer (DPO) ensures an organization complies with data protection regulations, handles data privacy issues, and acts as a point of contact for data subjects and regulatory authorities.
Access to Senior Management: DPOs may interact with senior management on compliance matters and data protection strategies, but their focus is more on regulatory compliance rather than direct data management decisions.

d. Data controller:

Explanation: Data controllers determine the purposes and means of processing personal data within an organization.
Access to Senior Management: Like data owners, data controllers may have interactions with senior management, particularly regarding data processing activities and compliance with data protection regulations. However, their scope of responsibility is more focused on specific data processing functions rather than overarching data strategy.

Therefore, the data owner (option b) is the role most likely to have direct access to the senior management team due to their responsibility for making decisions about data management and strategy within the organization.

Question 4

Stakeholders at an organization must be kept aware of any incidents and receive updates on status changes as they occur. Which of the following plans would fulfill this requirement?

a. Communication plan
b. Disaster recovery plan
c. Business continuity plan
d. Risk plan

Answer 4

a. Communication plan

A communication plan (option a) is designed to ensure stakeholders are kept informed about incidents and receive timely updates on status changes as they occur. Here’s why:

Stakeholder Communication: A communication plan specifies how information about incidents, their impact, and recovery efforts will be communicated to stakeholders.
Timely Updates: It outlines the methods, channels, and frequency of communication to ensure stakeholders receive accurate and timely updates.
Coordination: The plan ensures coordination among internal teams, external parties, and stakeholders during incident response and recovery phases.

Let’s briefly explain why the other options are less likely to fulfill the specific requirement of keeping stakeholders informed about incidents and status updates:

b. Disaster recovery plan:

Explanation: A disaster recovery plan focuses on restoring IT systems and infrastructure after a disruptive event. While communication is a component of disaster recovery, its primary focus is on technical recovery rather than stakeholder communication.

c. Business continuity plan:

Explanation: A business continuity plan outlines procedures to ensure critical business functions continue during and after a disaster or disruption. It includes communication elements but is broader in scope than incident-specific communication to stakeholders.

d. Risk plan:

Explanation: A risk management plan identifies, assesses, and mitigates risks within an organization. While risk plans include communication strategies for risk-related information, they do not specifically address incident-specific communication to stakeholders.

Therefore, a communication plan (option a) is specifically tailored to fulfill the requirement of keeping stakeholders aware of incidents and providing them with updates on status changes as they occur.

Question 5

An employee who is using a mobile device for work, is required to use a fingerprint to unlock the device. Which of the following is this an example of?

a. Something you know
b. Something you are
c. Something you have
d. Somewhere you are

Answer 5

b. Something you are

This scenario where an employee uses a fingerprint to unlock a mobile device is an example of “something you are” (option b) in terms of authentication factors. Here’s why:

Biometric Authentication: A fingerprint is a biometric characteristic unique to the individual user.
Identification Factor: Biometrics, such as fingerprints, iris scans, or facial recognition, are classified as "something you are" because they identify individuals based on their physical characteristics.
Authentication Factor: In multi-factor authentication (MFA), biometrics serve as a strong authentication factor, providing a high level of security based on the uniqueness and difficulty of replication of these physical traits.

Let’s briefly explain why the other options are not applicable in this context:

a. Something you know:

Explanation: This refers to authentication factors based on knowledge, such as passwords or PINs.
Not Applicable: While the device may also require a PIN or password as an additional factor, the use of a fingerprint specifically falls under "something you are."

c. Something you have:

Explanation: This refers to authentication factors based on possession, such as smart cards, tokens, or mobile devices themselves.
Not Applicable: While the mobile device itself is something the user has, the fingerprint used for unlocking the device is not considered as "something you have."

d. Somewhere you are:

Explanation: This refers to authentication factors based on location or context, such as GPS or IP geolocation.
Not Applicable: The use of a fingerprint for device unlock does not relate to the user's physical location or environment.

Therefore, using a fingerprint to unlock a mobile device is an example of “something you are” (option b) in the context of authentication factors.

Question 6

Which of the following security controls can be used to prevent multiple people from using a unique card swipe and being admitted to a secure entrance?

a. Visitor logs
b. Faraday cages
c. Access control vestibules
d. Motion detection sensors

Answer 6

c. Access control vestibules

Access control vestibules (option c) can be used to prevent multiple people from using a unique card swipe and being admitted to a secure entrance. Here’s how they work:

Purpose: Access control vestibules, also known as mantraps or airlocks, are designed to control entry into secure areas.
Operation: They consist of two sets of doors that cannot be opened simultaneously. An individual must use their access card to enter the first door, which then closes behind them before they can use the card again to open the second door.
Preventing Tailgating: This design prevents unauthorized individuals from following someone through a door before it closes, ensuring that only one person can pass through per valid access card swipe.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are not suitable for preventing multiple people from using a single access card:

a. Visitor logs:

Explanation: Visitor logs track the entry and exit of individuals into a facility but do not prevent multiple people from entering simultaneously with one access card.

b. Faraday cages:

Explanation: Faraday cages are enclosures designed to block electromagnetic signals, often used to protect electronic equipment from electromagnetic interference (EMI) or to isolate sensitive information from external electromagnetic signals. They do not relate to preventing multiple people from using a single access card.

d. Motion detection sensors:

Explanation: Motion detection sensors are used to detect movement in specific areas but do not directly prevent multiple people from using a single access card to gain entry.

Therefore, access control vestibules (option c) are specifically designed to prevent unauthorized multiple entries with a single access card and are an effective security control for this purpose.

Question 7

Unauthorized devices have been detected on the internal network. The devices’ locations were traced to Ethernet ports located in conference rooms. Which of the following would be the best technical controls to implement to prevent these devices from accessing the internal network?

a. NAC
b. DLP
c. IDS
d. MFA

Answer 7

a. NAC (Network Access Control)

Network Access Control (NAC) (option a) would be the best technical control to implement to prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the internal network. Here’s why:

Purpose: NAC enforces security policies on devices seeking to access the network. It ensures that only authorized and compliant devices can connect to the network.
Controlled Access: NAC can authenticate devices based on their identity, compliance status (such as up-to-date antivirus software), and user credentials before allowing access to the network.
Segregation: It can segment devices into different network zones based on their compliance level, ensuring that unauthorized or non-compliant devices are restricted to isolated network segments.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are not the best choices for preventing unauthorized devices from accessing the network in this scenario:

b. DLP (Data Loss Prevention):

Explanation: DLP solutions focus on preventing unauthorized data exfiltration rather than controlling access to the network based on device compliance.
Not Applicable: While DLP is important for protecting data, it does not address the issue of unauthorized devices connecting to the network.

c. IDS (Intrusion Detection System):

Explanation: IDS monitors network traffic for suspicious activity or known threats but does not directly prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network.
Not Applicable: IDS is more reactive in nature and does not provide the proactive control over network access that NAC does.

d. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication):

Explanation: MFA adds an additional layer of security by requiring multiple factors for user authentication, such as a password and a token or biometric verification.
Not Applicable: While MFA is important for user authentication, it does not address the issue of unauthorized devices physically connecting to the network through Ethernet ports.

Therefore, Network Access Control (NAC) (option a) is the most appropriate technical control to implement to prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the internal network via Ethernet ports in conference rooms.

Question 8

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to implement a new solution that can protect against certain categories of websites whether the employee is in the office or away. Which of the following solutions should the CISO implement?

a. WAF
b. SWG
c. VPN
d. HIDS

Answer 8

b. SWG (Secure Web Gateway)

A Secure Web Gateway (SWG) (option b) would be the best solution for the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to implement in order to protect against certain categories of websites whether the employee is in the office or away. Here’s why:

Web Filtering: SWGs are designed to enforce company policies on web usage by filtering and monitoring web access based on predefined categories (such as adult content, gambling, social media, etc.).
Protection Anywhere: SWGs can apply these policies regardless of whether the employee is accessing the internet from the office network or remotely, such as from home or a public Wi-Fi hotspot.
Security and Compliance: They provide protection against web-based threats, enforce compliance with corporate internet usage policies, and ensure consistent security across all network access points.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less suitable for this specific requirement:

a. WAF (Web Application Firewall):

Explanation: WAFs protect web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between a web application and the internet.
Not Applicable: While WAFs are important for protecting web applications, they do not filter or control user access to websites based on categories.

c. VPN (Virtual Private Network):

Explanation: VPNs create encrypted tunnels for secure remote access to the corporate network, but they do not filter or control web browsing based on website categories.
Not Applicable: VPNs provide secure access to internal resources but do not specifically address the filtering of website categories.

d. HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System):

Explanation: HIDS monitor the internals of a computing system against malicious activities or policy violations.
Not Applicable: HIDS focus on monitoring and detecting suspicious activities within a host system, not on controlling web access based on website categories.

Therefore, a Secure Web Gateway (SWG) (option b) is the most suitable solution for implementing web filtering and enforcing policies against certain categories of websites regardless of the employee’s location.

Question 9

A security analyst is using OSINT to gather information to verify whether company data is available publicly. Which of the following is the best application for the analyst to use?

a. theHarvester
b. Cuckoo
c. Nmap
d. Nessus

Answer 9

a. theHarvester

The best application for a security analyst to use for gathering information through OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) to verify whether company data is available publicly is theHarvester (option a). Here’s why:

Purpose: theHarvester is specifically designed for gathering email addresses, subdomains, hosts, employee names, open ports, and banners from different public sources like search engines and PGP key servers.
OSINT Focus: It is widely used for reconnaissance and information gathering during security assessments to identify what information about a company or its employees is publicly accessible.
Output: theHarvester aggregates data from various sources into a structured format, facilitating further analysis and assessment of potential security risks related to exposed information.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less suitable for this specific task:

b. Cuckoo:

Explanation: Cuckoo is a malware analysis sandbox platform used for analyzing suspicious files and URLs to detect malware behavior.
Not Applicable: Cuckoo is not used for OSINT activities like gathering publicly available company data.

c. Nmap:

Explanation: Nmap is a network scanning tool used for discovering hosts and services on a computer network, auditing network security, and managing service upgrade schedules.
Not Applicable: While Nmap can reveal information about network hosts and services, it is not specifically designed for gathering publicly available information about a company from external sources.

d. Nessus:

Explanation: Nessus is a vulnerability scanning tool used for identifying vulnerabilities, configuration issues, and malware on network devices, servers, and applications.
Not Applicable: Nessus focuses on vulnerability assessment and does not perform OSINT tasks like gathering publicly available information about a company.

Therefore, theHarvester (option a) is the most appropriate application for a security analyst to use when conducting OSINT to verify whether company data is publicly available.

Question 10

A network engineer receives a call regarding multiple LAN-connected devices that are on the same switch. The devices have suddenly been experiencing speed and latency issues while connecting to network resources. The engineer enters the command show mac address-table and reviews the following output:

VLAN MAC PORT
1 00-04-18-EB-14-30 Fa0/1
1 88-CD-34-19-E8-98 Fa0/2
1 40-11-08-87-10-13 Fa0/3
1 00-04-18-EB-14-30 Fa0/4
1 88-CD-34-00-15-F3 Fa0/5
1 FA-13-02-04-27-64 Fa0/6

Which of the following best describes the attack that is currently in progress’?

a. MAC flooding
b. Evil twin
c. ARP poisoning
d. DHCP spoofing

Answer 10

a. MAC flooding

The output from the show mac address-table command indicates that there are multiple MAC addresses associated with the same port (Fa0/1 in this case). This situation is indicative of a MAC flooding attack. Here’s why:

MAC Address Table: The MAC address table (CAM table) maps MAC addresses to corresponding switch ports. Normally, each MAC address should map to a unique port to avoid confusion in directing traffic.
Duplicate MACs: Seeing multiple MAC addresses associated with the same port (Fa0/1) suggests that the switch is overwhelmed with MAC addresses, exceeding its capacity to manage MAC-to-port mappings efficiently.
Attack Description: MAC flooding is a type of attack where an attacker floods the switch with a large number of fake MAC addresses. This can cause the switch to enter a state known as "failopen," where it begins to behave like a hub and broadcasts traffic to all ports, rather than just the intended destination port.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be the correct answer:

b. Evil twin:

Explanation: An evil twin attack involves setting up a rogue Wi-Fi access point to mimic a legitimate one, tricking users into connecting to it instead. This is not relevant to the scenario described with a network switch and MAC addresses.

c. ARP poisoning:

Explanation: ARP poisoning (or ARP spoofing) involves manipulating ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) messages to associate a different MAC address with an IP address. While ARP poisoning can lead to network issues, the symptoms described (multiple MAC addresses on the same switch port) are not characteristic of ARP poisoning.

d. DHCP spoofing:

Explanation: DHCP spoofing involves a malicious device impersonating a legitimate DHCP server to distribute incorrect IP addresses or other configuration information. This does not directly relate to the symptoms described with MAC addresses on a switch port.

Therefore, based on the information provided, the most likely attack in progress is MAC flooding (option a), which is causing the speed and latency issues experienced by the LAN-connected devices.

Question 11

A security administrator needs to add fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage. Which of the following is the best choice to achieve this objective?

a. Multipath
b. RAID
c. Segmentation
d. 802.11

Answer 11

a. Multipath

Multipath (option a) is the best choice to achieve fault tolerance and load balancing for the connection from the file server to the backup storage. Here’s why:

Fault Tolerance: Multipath technology allows for redundant paths between devices, ensuring that if one path fails or experiences issues, traffic can automatically failover to another available path. This enhances fault tolerance by providing redundancy.
Load Balancing: Multipath also supports load balancing by distributing data traffic across multiple paths. This optimizes performance and utilization of network resources, ensuring efficient use of available bandwidth.
Application: In the context of connecting a file server to backup storage, multipath can ensure continuous access to data (fault tolerance) and distribute data transfer across multiple links (load balancing), improving overall reliability and performance of the backup process.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less suitable for achieving fault tolerance and load balancing in this scenario:

b. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks):

Explanation: RAID is used to combine multiple physical disk drives into a single logical unit to improve performance, data redundancy, or both. However, RAID operates at the disk level and does not provide fault tolerance or load balancing for network connections.

c. Segmentation:

Explanation: Segmentation typically refers to dividing a network into segments or subnets for organizational or security purposes. It does not provide fault tolerance or load balancing for network connections.

d. 802.11:

Explanation: 802.11 refers to the IEEE standard for wireless local area networks (Wi-Fi). It is not applicable to wired connections between a file server and backup storage, nor does it provide fault tolerance or load balancing for such connections.

Therefore, Multipath (option a) is the most appropriate choice to achieve fault tolerance and load balancing for the connection from the file server to the backup storage, ensuring reliability and optimal performance of data transfers.

Question 12

Which of the following incident response phases should the proper collection of the detected IoCs and establishment of a chain of custody be performed before?

a. Containment
b. Identification
c. Preparation
d. Recovery

Answer 12

a. Containment

Explanation:

Identification: In this phase, the security team identifies that an incident has occurred based on the detected IoCs or other suspicious activities.

Containment: Once the incident is identified, containment involves taking actions to prevent further damage or spread of the incident within the environment. This could include isolating affected systems, disabling compromised accounts, or blocking malicious traffic.

Preparation: This phase involves preparing the incident response team, resources, and tools necessary to effectively respond to and mitigate the incident.

Recovery: After containing the incident and mitigating its impact, recovery focuses on restoring affected systems and services to normal operations.

Importance of IoCs and Chain of Custody:

IoCs: These are crucial digital artifacts that provide evidence of malicious activities or compromises. Collecting and analyzing IoCs helps in understanding the scope and nature of the incident.

Chain of Custody: Establishing a chain of custody ensures that all evidence collected during the incident response process is properly documented and preserved. This documentation is essential for maintaining the integrity and admissibility of evidence in legal proceedings or internal investigations.

Therefore, collecting IoCs and establishing a chain of custody typically occurs during the Identification phase, as these actions are essential for guiding subsequent containment efforts and ensuring the integrity of evidence throughout the incident response process.

Question 13

Which of the following measures the average time that equipment will operate before it breaks?

a. SLE
b. MTBF
c. RTO
d. ARO

Answer 13

b. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)

MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) measures the average time that equipment will operate before it breaks. Here’s a brief explanation of MTBF and why it fits the description:

MTBF: It is a reliability metric that quantifies the expected lifetime of a device or equipment by calculating the average time it is expected to function before experiencing a failure.
Usage: MTBF is commonly used in various industries to assess the reliability and durability of hardware components, systems, or entire products.
Calculation: MTBF is typically calculated as the total operational time divided by the number of failures observed within that time period, providing an average estimation of reliability.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are not correct:

a. SLE (Single Loss Expectancy):

Explanation: SLE estimates the cost or impact of a single security incident or loss.
Not Applicable: SLE is used in risk assessment and management contexts, not to measure equipment operational reliability.

c. RTO (Recovery Time Objective):

Explanation: RTO defines the maximum acceptable downtime for restoring a system, service, or application after an incident or disaster.
Not Applicable: RTO is a measure of how quickly a system needs to be recovered after a failure, not the average operational time before failure.

d. ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence):

Explanation: ARO estimates the frequency or likelihood of a specific type of incident occurring within a given time frame, typically annually.
Not Applicable: ARO quantifies the probability of occurrence of incidents, such as security breaches or natural disasters, and is not related to measuring equipment operational time before failure.

Therefore, b. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) is the measure that specifically quantifies the average time that equipment will operate before it breaks down.

Question 14

A security administrator examines the ARP table of an access switch and sees the following output:

VLAN MAC Address Type Ports
All 012b1283f77b STATIC CPU
All c656da1009f1 STATIC CPU
1 f9de6ed7d38f DYNAMIC Fa0/1
2 fb8d0ae3850b DYNAMIC Fa0/2
2 7f403b7cf59a DYNAMIC Fa0/2
2 f4182c262c61 DYNAMIC Fa0/2

a. DDoS on Fa0/2 port
b. MAC flooding on Fa0/2 port
c. ARP poisoning on Fa0/1 port
d. DNS poisoning on port Fa0/1

Answer 14

b. MAC flooding on Fa0/2 port

Based on the ARP table output, it appears that there are multiple MAC addresses associated with port Fa0/2, which suggests that MAC flooding may be occurring on this port. Therefore, the correct answer is B. MAC flooding on Fa0/2 port.

ARP poisoning is a type of attack where the attacker sends fake ARP messages to associate their own MAC address with the IP address of another device on the network. However, there is no evidence of this type of attack in the ARP table output provided.

DDoS and DNS poisoning attacks are not related to the information provided in the ARP table output, so options A and D are incorrect.

Question 15

Which of the following documents specifies what to do in the event of catastrophic loss of a physical or virtual system?

a. Data retention plan
b. Incident response plan
c. Disaster recovery plan
d. Communication plan

Answer 15

(Community C 88%)
c. Disaster recovery plan

The document that specifies what to do in the event of catastrophic loss of a physical or virtual system is the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP).

Here’s a brief explanation of why DRP is the correct answer:

Disaster Recovery Plan: A DRP outlines the procedures and processes to recover and restore IT infrastructure, systems, and data after a catastrophic event such as a natural disaster, cyberattack, or hardware failure.
Focus: The primary focus of a DRP is on ensuring business continuity and minimizing downtime by defining recovery strategies, roles and responsibilities, backup and recovery procedures, and the sequence of steps to be followed during and after a disaster.
Scope: A DRP covers various scenarios including data loss, infrastructure damage, and system outages, providing a structured approach to restore operations quickly and effectively.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. Data retention plan:

Explanation: A data retention plan specifies policies and procedures for retaining and disposing of data based on regulatory requirements and business needs.
Not Applicable: While important for managing data lifecycle, a data retention plan does not specifically address catastrophic loss or disaster recovery.

b. Incident response plan:

Explanation: An incident response plan outlines steps to detect, respond to, and recover from cybersecurity incidents or breaches.
Not Applicable: While related to handling incidents, it focuses more on cybersecurity events rather than comprehensive recovery from catastrophic system loss.

d. Communication plan:

Explanation: A communication plan defines how information is shared internally and externally during and after a crisis or incident.
Not Applicable: While critical for managing communication during disasters, it does not specifically address the technical recovery aspects of systems and data after catastrophic loss.

Therefore, the document that specifically addresses what to do in the event of catastrophic loss of a physical or virtual system is the Disaster Recovery Plan (c).

Question 16

Which of the following rales is responsible for defining the protection type and classification type for a given set of files?

a. General counsel
b. Data owner
c. Risk manager
d. Chief Information Officer

Answer 16

b. Data owner

The role responsible for defining the protection type and classification type for a given set of files is the Data owner.

Here’s why:

Data Owner: The data owner is typically a business or functional manager who has the responsibility and authority to determine the classification and protection requirements for specific sets of data or files.
Responsibilities: Among the responsibilities of a data owner are defining the sensitivity level (classification) of data based on its importance and regulatory requirements, and specifying the appropriate security controls and protections needed to safeguard that data.
Influence: Data owners work closely with security professionals and other stakeholders to ensure that data handling practices align with organizational policies and legal requirements.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. General counsel:

Explanation: General counsel typically provides legal advice and guidance on legal matters, including data protection and compliance.
Not Applicable: While general counsel may advise on data protection policies, they typically do not directly define the protection type and classification for specific sets of files.

c. Risk manager:

Explanation: Risk managers assess and mitigate risks within an organization, including risks related to data security and compliance.
Not Applicable: Risk managers focus on overall risk management strategies and may provide input on data classification and protection, but they do not define these specifics for individual files.

d. Chief Information Officer (CIO):

Explanation: The CIO oversees the organization's information technology strategy and operations.
Not Applicable: While the CIO plays a role in setting IT policies and strategies, defining the protection type and classification type for specific files is typically the responsibility of data owners who are closer to the specific data and its business context.

Therefore, b. Data owner is the role responsible for defining the protection type and classification type for a given set of files within an organization.

Question 17

An employee’s company email is configured with conditional access and requires that MFA is enabled and used. An example of MFA is a phone call and:

a. a push notification
b. a password
c. an SMS message
d. an authentication application

Answer 17

b. a password

phone call -> something you have
push notif -> something you have
SMS mess -> something you have
auth app -> something you have
password -> something you know

Question 18

Which of the following is a security implication of newer ICS devices that are becoming more common in corporations?

a. Devices with cellular communication capabilities bypass traditional network security controls
b. Many devices do not support elliptic-curve encryption algorithms due to the overhead they require
c. These devices often lack privacy controls and do not meet newer compliance regulations
d. Unauthorized voice and audio recording can cause loss of intellectual property

Answer 18

a. Devices with cellular communication capabilities bypass traditional network security controls

Here’s the reasoning:

ICS Devices: Industrial Control Systems (ICS) devices are critical to industrial operations and are increasingly integrated into corporate networks.
Cellular Communication: Newer ICS devices often come equipped with cellular communication capabilities to facilitate remote monitoring and management.
Security Implication: Cellular communication allows these devices to bypass traditional network security controls such as firewalls and intrusion detection systems (IDS). This creates potential security vulnerabilities as these devices may not be as tightly controlled or monitored as devices directly connected to corporate networks.
Risk: Cellular connections may expose ICS devices to attacks or unauthorized access from external networks, increasing the risk of compromise and potential impact on industrial operations.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

b. Many devices do not support elliptic-curve encryption algorithms due to the overhead they require:

Explanation: While encryption algorithm support is important for security, it is not specifically tied to the integration of newer ICS devices into corporate networks.

c. These devices often lack privacy controls and do not meet newer compliance regulations:

Explanation: Compliance and privacy controls are important considerations, but they are not directly tied to the security implications of cellular communication capabilities in ICS devices.

d. Unauthorized voice and audio recording can cause loss of intellectual property:

Explanation: Unauthorized voice and audio recording is a specific security concern but is not directly related to the integration of ICS devices with cellular communication capabilities.

Therefore, a. Devices with cellular communication capabilities bypass traditional network security controls is the security implication commonly associated with newer ICS devices becoming more common in corporations.

Question 19

Which of the following is required in order for an IDS and a WAF to be effective on HTTPS traffic?

a. Hashing
b. DNS sinkhole
c. TLS inspection
d. Data masking

Answer 19

c. TLS inspection

To effectively inspect HTTPS traffic using an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and a Web Application Firewall (WAF), TLS inspection is required.

Here’s why TLS inspection (also known as SSL inspection or HTTPS inspection) is necessary:

HTTPS Encryption: HTTPS encrypts traffic between clients and servers using Transport Layer Security (TLS) or its predecessor, Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). This encryption prevents visibility into the actual content of the traffic by intermediaries, including security devices like IDS and WAF.

TLS Inspection: TLS inspection involves decrypting and inspecting the contents of HTTPS traffic. This allows security devices such as IDS and WAF to analyze the decrypted traffic for potential threats, attacks, or policy violations.

Effectiveness: Without TLS inspection, IDS and WAF can only inspect the metadata (such as IP addresses, ports, and header information) of HTTPS packets, but not the actual payload contents, which limits their effectiveness in detecting and blocking sophisticated attacks embedded within encrypted traffic.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. Hashing:

Explanation: Hashing is a cryptographic technique used for data integrity and authenticity, but it does not provide the ability to inspect or decrypt HTTPS traffic for security analysis.

b. DNS sinkhole:

Explanation: DNS sinkholing is a technique used to redirect malicious domain names to a benign IP address, primarily for blocking malicious content. It is not directly related to inspecting or decrypting HTTPS traffic.

d. Data masking:

Explanation: Data masking is used to obfuscate or hide sensitive data, typically for privacy or compliance purposes. It does not involve decrypting or inspecting HTTPS traffic for security analysis.

Therefore, c. TLS inspection is necessary for IDS and WAF to effectively analyze and protect against threats within HTTPS traffic by decrypting and inspecting the encrypted payload.

Question 20

A company policy requires third-party suppliers to self-report data breaches within a specific time frame. Which of the following third-party risk management policies is the company complying with?

a. MOU
b. SLA
c. EOL
d. NDA

Answer 20

b. SLA (Service Level Agreement)

The company policy requiring third-party suppliers to self-report data breaches within a specific time frame aligns with the concept of a Service Level Agreement (SLA).

Here’s why:

Service Level Agreement (SLA): An SLA is a contract between a service provider (in this case, third-party suppliers) and their customer (the company). It defines the level of service expected from the supplier, including performance metrics, responsibilities, and guarantees.

Compliance: SLAs often include clauses related to security, data protection, and incident response. Requiring suppliers to self-report data breaches within a specific time frame is a measure to ensure compliance with agreed-upon security and incident response protocols outlined in the SLA.

Risk Management: Third-party risk management involves assessing, monitoring, and mitigating risks associated with outsourcing services to suppliers. A well-defined SLA helps manage these risks by setting expectations and responsibilities related to data security incidents.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding):

Explanation: An MOU is a non-binding agreement that outlines the terms and details of a partnership or agreement between parties. It typically does not include specific contractual obligations related to incident reporting.

c. EOL (End of Life):

Explanation: EOL refers to the end of a product's or service's life cycle, indicating it is no longer supported or maintained. It is not directly related to third-party risk management or incident reporting requirements.

d. NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement):

Explanation: An NDA is a legal contract that establishes confidentiality obligations between parties, preventing the disclosure of confidential information. While important for protecting sensitive information, it does not specify incident reporting requirements.

Therefore, the company’s policy of requiring third-party suppliers to self-report data breaches within a specific time frame is most closely aligned with b. SLA (Service Level Agreement), which sets forth the contractual obligations and expectations related to incident reporting and data security.

Question 21

While troubleshooting service disruption on a mission-critical server, a technician discovered the user account that was configured to run automated processes was disabled because the user s password failed to meet password complexity requirements. Which of the following would be the best solution to securely prevent future issues?

a. Using an administrator account to run the processes and disabling the account when it is not in use
b. Implementing a shared account the team can use to run automated processes
c. Configuring a service account to run the processes
d. Removing the password complexity requirements for the user account

Answer 21

c. Configuring a service account to run the processes

Here’s why configuring a service account is the best solution:

Service Account: A service account is specifically designed for running automated processes and services within an IT environment. Unlike regular user accounts, service accounts are typically configured with non-expiring passwords and are exempt from password complexity requirements.

Security Best Practice: It's a best practice to use dedicated service accounts for automated processes to ensure continuity and security. These accounts are configured with appropriate permissions and settings for the specific tasks they perform.

Mitigation: By configuring a service account, you ensure that automated processes continue to run smoothly without being affected by password complexity requirements or other user account policies.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. Using an administrator account to run the processes and disabling the account when it is not in use:

Explanation: Using an administrator account for automated processes can introduce security risks due to elevated privileges. Additionally, disabling and enabling accounts manually is not practical for automated processes.

b. Implementing a shared account the team can use to run automated processes:

Explanation: Shared accounts are generally discouraged for security reasons, as they make it difficult to trace activities to specific individuals or processes. They also do not address the issue of password complexity requirements for automated processes.

d. Removing the password complexity requirements for the user account:

Explanation: Removing password complexity requirements compromises security best practices and exposes the account to potential vulnerabilities. It's important to maintain strong password policies across all accounts for security reasons.

Therefore, c. Configuring a service account to run the processes is the best solution to securely prevent future issues with automated processes on the mission-critical server.

Question 22

A security analyst is assessing a newly developed web application by testing SQL injection, CSRF, and XML injection. Which of the following frameworks should the analyst consider?

a. ISO
b. MITRE ATT&CK
c. OWASP
d. NIST

Answer 22

c. OWASP

The OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) framework is specifically focused on web application security testing and provides guidelines and resources for testing various vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery), and XML injection.

Here’s why OWASP is the appropriate framework for the security analyst:

OWASP: OWASP is a community-driven organization that provides freely available articles, methodologies, documentation, tools, and technologies in the field of web application security. It maintains a widely recognized list of the top web application security risks, including vulnerabilities like SQL injection, CSRF, and XML injection.

Assessment Focus: When assessing a new web application, security analysts often refer to OWASP's resources to understand common vulnerabilities and how to test for them effectively.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. ISO (International Organization for Standardization):

Explanation: ISO standards cover a broad range of topics, including security standards, but they are not specifically focused on web application security testing methodologies like OWASP.

b. MITRE ATT&CK:

Explanation: MITRE ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) is a framework focused on understanding and categorizing adversary behaviors in cybersecurity. It does not specifically address web application vulnerabilities or testing methodologies.

d. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology):

Explanation: NIST provides cybersecurity and information security standards and guidelines, but like ISO, it does not specifically focus on web application security testing methodologies as OWASP does.

Therefore, c. OWASP is the framework that the security analyst should consider when assessing the new web application for vulnerabilities like SQL injection, CSRF, and XML injection.

Question 23

A user s laptop constantly disconnects from the Wi-Fi network. Once the laptop reconnects, the user can reach the internet but cannot access shared folders or other network resources. Which of the following types of attacks is the user most likely experiencing?

a. Bluejacking
b. Jamming
c. Rogue access point
d. Evil twin

Answer 23

Braindump : d. Evil twin

The user is most likely experiencing an Evil Twin attack. In this type of attack, an attacker creates a fake access point with the same name as the legitimate access point to which the user is trying to connect. The attacker can then intercept and eavesdrop on the user’s network traffic, potentially stealing sensitive information. The user’s laptop may be disconnecting and reconnecting to the fake access point, causing the inability to access shared folders or other network resources.

Question 24

Which of the following procedures would be performed after the root cause of a security incident has been identified to help avoid future incidents from occurring?

a. Walk-throughs
b. Lessons learned
c. Attack framework alignment
d. Containment

Answer 24

b. Lessons learned

After identifying the root cause of a security incident, the next step to help avoid future incidents from occurring is typically to conduct lessons learned.

Here’s why:

Lessons Learned: Lessons learned involve analyzing the incident, understanding what went wrong, identifying gaps or weaknesses in existing security measures or practices, and deriving actionable insights. This process helps organizations improve their security posture by implementing corrective actions, updating policies or procedures, enhancing training, or making technological improvements.

Purpose: The primary goal of lessons learned is to turn the incident into a learning opportunity. It enables organizations to strengthen their defenses against similar incidents in the future by addressing root causes and improving incident response processes.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. Walk-throughs:

Explanation: Walk-throughs typically refer to rehearsals or simulations of incident response plans. While useful for preparedness and training, they are not specifically focused on addressing root causes identified after an incident.

c. Attack framework alignment:

Explanation: Attack framework alignment involves mapping incident details to known attack frameworks (such as MITRE ATT&CK) to understand the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by attackers. While this can provide valuable insights, it is more focused on understanding the incident rather than preventing future incidents directly.

d. Containment:

Explanation: Containment refers to the immediate actions taken during the incident response process to limit the impact and scope of the incident. Once containment is achieved and the root cause is identified, the focus shifts to implementing lessons learned and preventing future incidents.

Therefore, b. Lessons learned is the procedure typically performed after identifying the root cause of a security incident to help avoid future incidents from occurring by improving overall security practices and defenses.

Question 25

A security administrator is integrating several segments onto a single network. One of the segments, which includes legacy devices, presents a significant amount of risk to the network. Which of the following would allow users to access to the legacy devices without compromising the security of the entire network?

a. NIDS
b. MAC filtering
c. Jump server
d. IPSec
e. NAT gateway

Answer 25

c. Jump server

A jump server (also known as a bastion host) is the best option among the choices provided to allow users to access legacy devices without compromising the security of the entire network. Here’s why:

Jump Server: A jump server is a hardened system that acts as an intermediary or gateway through which users can access specific devices or segments of a network. It is typically configured with stringent security controls, such as multi-factor authentication (MFA), strong password policies, and access logging.

Benefits: By using a jump server, users can securely connect to the segment containing legacy devices without directly exposing those devices to the broader network. This setup adds an additional layer of security because access to the legacy devices is controlled and monitored through a single entry point (the jump server).

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System):

Explanation: A NIDS monitors network traffic for suspicious activity or known threats. While important for detecting threats, it does not specifically address how to securely access legacy devices without compromising the network.

b. MAC filtering:

Explanation: MAC filtering restricts network access based on the MAC addresses of devices. However, MAC addresses can be spoofed, and this method does not provide sufficient security controls or isolation for accessing legacy devices.

d. IPSec (Internet Protocol Security):

Explanation: IPSec provides secure communication over IP networks by encrypting and authenticating IP packets. While it enhances security for data in transit, it does not specifically address secure access to legacy devices or segmenting network access.

e. NAT gateway (Network Address Translation gateway):

Explanation: A NAT gateway translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses and vice versa, providing a form of network address translation. It does not provide the necessary isolation and access control mechanisms required for securely accessing legacy devices.

Therefore, c. Jump server is the most appropriate solution for allowing users to access legacy devices while mitigating the security risks associated with integrating them into a single network segment.

Question 26

Which of the following would a security analyst use to determine if other companies in the same sector have seen similar malicious activity against their systems?

a. Vulnerability scanner
b. Open-source intelligence
c. Packet capture
d. Threat feeds

Answer 26

d. Threat feeds

Threat feeds would be used by a security analyst to determine if other companies in the same sector have seen similar malicious activity against their systems.

Here’s why:

Threat Feeds: Threat feeds provide up-to-date information about known threats, attack patterns, and malicious activities observed globally or within specific sectors. Security analysts use threat feeds to gather intelligence on emerging threats and to understand if similar incidents have been reported by other organizations in the same sector.

Purpose: By monitoring threat feeds, analysts can gain insights into the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by threat actors targeting similar industries. This information helps organizations proactively defend against potential attacks by implementing appropriate security measures and defenses.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. Vulnerability Scanner:

Explanation: A vulnerability scanner is used to identify weaknesses in systems, applications, or networks by scanning for known vulnerabilities. It does not provide information about malicious activities observed by other companies in the sector.

b. Open-source Intelligence (OSINT):

Explanation: OSINT involves gathering information from publicly available sources to understand potential threats and vulnerabilities. While useful for broad intelligence gathering, it may not specifically provide information about sector-specific malicious activities.

c. Packet Capture:

Explanation: Packet capture involves capturing and analyzing network traffic to understand communication patterns and detect anomalies. It is useful for network troubleshooting and forensics but does not provide sector-wide intelligence on malicious activities.

Therefore, d. Threat feeds is the most appropriate tool for a security analyst to use when determining if other companies in the same sector have experienced similar malicious activity against their systems.

(Braindump : b. Open-source intelligence)

Question 27

Which of the following types of disaster recovery plan exercises requires the least interruption to IT operations?

a. Parallel
b. Full-scale
c. Tabletop
d. Simulation

Answer 27

c. Tabletop

A tabletop exercise is a type of disaster recovery plan exercise that requires the least interruption to IT operations. Here’s why:

Tabletop Exercise: In a tabletop exercise, participants gather together in a conference room or virtual setting to discuss and simulate a hypothetical disaster scenario. They walk through the steps they would take, discuss roles and responsibilities, and evaluate the effectiveness of their disaster recovery plan (DRP) without actually executing any IT operations.

Minimal Interruption: Unlike other types of exercises, such as full-scale exercises or simulations, a tabletop exercise does not involve live IT systems or actual disruption of IT operations. It focuses more on testing and refining the disaster recovery procedures, communication protocols, and decision-making processes among key stakeholders.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. Parallel Exercise:

Explanation: In a parallel exercise, a duplicate IT environment is set up and run simultaneously with the production environment to test the effectiveness of the DRP. This can potentially impact IT operations due to the resources required to maintain the parallel environment.

b. Full-scale Exercise:

Explanation: A full-scale exercise involves testing the entire disaster recovery plan in a real-world scenario, often with actual execution of IT operations in a controlled environment. This type of exercise can cause significant interruption to IT operations.

d. Simulation:

Explanation: A simulation involves creating a scenario that closely mimics a real disaster to test the response capabilities of the organization. While it may not involve actual IT operations, it often requires extensive planning and coordination, potentially interrupting normal business activities.

Therefore, c. Tabletop is the type of disaster recovery plan exercise that requires the least interruption to IT operations, making it valuable for training and assessing preparedness without impacting day-to-day business activities.

Question 28

Which of the following disaster recovery sites is the most cost effective to operate?

a. Warm site
b. Cold site
c. Hot site
d. Hybrid site

Answer 28

b. Cold site

A cold site is the most cost-effective disaster recovery site to operate among the options provided. Here’s why:

Cold Site: A cold site is a facility that provides only the basic infrastructure (such as power and HVAC systems) for IT operations. It does not have active computer systems or pre-installed software. In the event of a disaster, organizations need to install and configure their equipment and software, which can take time but is less costly than maintaining active systems.

Cost Consideration: Cold sites are less expensive because they do not require the ongoing maintenance, power consumption, and licensing fees associated with active IT systems (as seen in hot and warm sites). Organizations save on operational costs by paying for the infrastructure only when it is needed during a disaster recovery event.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. Warm Site:

Explanation: A warm site is a facility that has some pre-installed IT equipment, such as servers and network connections. However, it may lack current data or configurations. Warm sites are more expensive than cold sites because they require ongoing maintenance and operational readiness to quickly deploy IT systems during a disaster.

c. Hot Site:

Explanation: A hot site is a fully operational facility with active IT systems, real-time data replication, and all necessary infrastructure. Hot sites are the most expensive option because they require continuous operational expenses, including power, cooling, staffing, and licensing fees.

d. Hybrid Site:

Explanation: A hybrid site combines elements of different types of disaster recovery sites, such as integrating cloud-based services with on-premises infrastructure. Hybrid sites are typically tailored to specific organizational needs and may vary widely in cost depending on the configuration.

Therefore, b. Cold site is considered the most cost-effective disaster recovery site to operate due to its minimal ongoing operational costs and infrastructure maintenance requirements until it is needed for disaster recovery purposes.

Question 29

A security operations center wants to implement a solution that can execute files to test for malicious activity. The solution should provide a report of the files’ activity against known threats. Which of the following should the security operations center implement?

a. the Harvester
b. Nessus
c. Cuckoo
d. Sn1per

Answer 29

c. Cuckoo

Cuckoo is a suitable solution for the security operations center (SOC) to implement in this scenario. Here’s why:

Cuckoo: Cuckoo Sandbox is an open-source automated malware analysis system. It allows files to be executed in a controlled environment to observe their behavior and interactions with the operating system. Cuckoo analyzes files and provides detailed reports on their activities, helping SOC analysts identify potential malicious behavior based on known threats and behavioral patterns.

Functionality: With Cuckoo, SOC teams can submit files for analysis, monitor their execution in a sandboxed environment, and receive comprehensive reports that detail the files' activities, network communications, and any potential indicators of compromise (IOCs).

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. theHarvester:

Explanation: theHarvester is a tool used for gathering email addresses, user names, and other information from publicly available sources. It is not designed for executing files and analyzing their behavior for malicious activity.

b. Nessus:

Explanation: Nessus is a vulnerability scanner that identifies vulnerabilities in systems and networks by scanning for known security issues. It does not execute files or analyze their behavior against known threats.

d. Sn1per:

Explanation: Sn1per is a penetration testing tool used for scanning and testing network security. It focuses on finding vulnerabilities and performing security assessments, rather than executing and analyzing files for malicious activity.

Therefore, c. Cuckoo is the appropriate solution for the SOC to implement when they need to execute files to test for malicious activity and receive detailed reports on the files’ behavior against known threats.

Question 30

A security administrator would like to ensure all cloud servers will have software preinstalled for facilitating vulnerability scanning and continuous monitoring. Which of the following concepts should the administrator utilize?

a. Provisioning
b. Staging
c. Staging
d. Quality assurance

Answer 30

a. Provisioning

Provisioning is the concept the security administrator should utilize to ensure all cloud servers have software preinstalled for facilitating vulnerability scanning and continuous monitoring. Here’s why:

Provisioning: In the context of IT and cloud computing, provisioning refers to the process of setting up and preparing IT resources, such as servers, networks, or software applications, to be ready for use. It involves installing necessary software, configuring settings, and ensuring that all components are operational and accessible.

Role in Security: For security purposes, provisioning ensures that security tools, such as vulnerability scanning software and continuous monitoring agents, are installed and configured on cloud servers before they are put into production. This proactive approach helps to maintain security posture by continuously monitoring and scanning for vulnerabilities and threats.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

b. Staging:

Explanation: Staging involves preparing and testing IT systems or applications in a controlled environment before they are deployed into production. It focuses more on testing functionality and performance rather than ensuring security tools are preinstalled.

c. Staging (duplicate option):

d. Quality assurance:

Explanation: Quality assurance (QA) involves processes and activities that ensure products or services meet specified requirements and quality standards. While important for overall system integrity, QA does not specifically address the preinstallation of security tools for vulnerability scanning and continuous monitoring.

Therefore, a. Provisioning is the correct concept for the security administrator to use when ensuring that all cloud servers have software preinstalled for facilitating vulnerability scanning and continuous monitoring.

Question 31

A network architect wants a server to have the ability to retain network availability even if one of the network switches it is connected to goes down. Which of the following should the architect implement on the server to achieve this goal?

a. RAID
b. UPS
c. NIC teaming
d. Load balancing

Answer 31

c. NIC teaming

NIC (Network Interface Card) teaming, also known as NIC bonding or link aggregation, is the solution the network architect should implement on the server to ensure network availability even if one of the network switches it is connected to goes down. Here’s why:

NIC Teaming: NIC teaming combines multiple network interfaces into a single logical interface. By configuring NIC teaming on the server, it can maintain network connectivity even if one of the physical switches fails. The server can continue to communicate through the other NICs that are still connected to operational switches, thereby ensuring network availability and redundancy.

Fault Tolerance: NIC teaming provides fault tolerance by enabling failover mechanisms. If one NIC or switch fails, traffic can automatically fail over to the remaining NICs that are still functional, minimizing downtime and maintaining network connectivity.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks):

Explanation: RAID is a storage technology that combines multiple physical disks into a single logical unit for data redundancy and performance improvement. While RAID enhances data availability and fault tolerance for storage, it does not directly address network availability or switch failures.

b. UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply):

Explanation: A UPS provides backup power to devices during power outages, ensuring they remain operational. It protects against power-related interruptions but does not directly address network switch failures.

d. Load Balancing:

Explanation: Load balancing distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or network paths to optimize resource utilization, maximize throughput, and minimize response time. It does not inherently provide redundancy in case of network switch failures.

Therefore, c. NIC teaming is the appropriate solution for the network architect to implement on the server to retain network availability even if one of the network switches it is connected to goes down.

Question 32

An employee received multiple messages on a mobile device. The messages were instructing the employee to pair the device to an unknown device. Which of the following best describes what a malicious person might be doing to cause this issue to occur?

a. Jamming
b. Bluesnarfing
c. Evil twin attack
d. Rogue access point

Answer 32

b. Bluesnarfing

Bluesnarfing best describes the scenario where an employee receives messages instructing them to pair their mobile device with an unknown device. Here’s why:

Bluesnarfing: Bluesnarfing is a type of attack where unauthorized access is gained to information on a wireless device through a Bluetooth connection. Malicious actors exploit vulnerabilities in Bluetooth security to access data such as contact lists, emails, text messages, and even calendar information without the user's knowledge or consent. They can initiate the pairing process remotely and gain access to sensitive data stored on the device.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. Jamming:

Explanation: Jamming refers to the interference of wireless signals, disrupting communication between devices. It does not involve initiating Bluetooth pairing or accessing device data.

c. Evil twin attack:

Explanation: An evil twin attack involves setting up a rogue Wi-Fi access point with a similar name to a legitimate access point to trick users into connecting to it. It does not directly involve Bluetooth pairing or accessing data on mobile devices.

d. Rogue access point:

Explanation: A rogue access point is an unauthorized wireless access point that has been installed on a network without the knowledge of the network administrator. It typically targets Wi-Fi networks rather than Bluetooth connections.

Therefore, b. Bluesnarfing is the most appropriate description of what a malicious person might be doing to cause the issue where an employee receives messages instructing them to pair their mobile device with an unknown device.

Question 33

A security administrator installed a new web server. The administrator did this to increase the capacity for an application due to resource exhaustion on another server. Which of the following algorithms should the administrator use to split the number of the connections on each server in half?

a. Weighted response
b. Round-robin
c. Least connection
d. Weighted least connection

Answer 33

b. Round-robin

Round-robin is the algorithm the administrator should use to split the number of connections evenly between the two web servers. Here’s why:

Round-robin: In a round-robin load balancing algorithm, each server in the pool is assigned connections in a sequential order. When a new connection request comes in, it is directed to the next server in the list. This method distributes incoming connections evenly among all servers, ensuring that each server handles an equal number of connections over time.

Suitability: For the scenario where the administrator wants to split the number of connections in half between two servers, round-robin is straightforward and effective. It does not take into account server load or capacity but simply distributes connections in a cyclic manner.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. Weighted response:

Explanation: Weighted response is not a standard load balancing algorithm. It may refer to a method where server responses are weighted based on certain factors, but it does not describe a load distribution algorithm like round-robin.

c. Least connection:

Explanation: The least connection algorithm directs new connections to the server with the fewest active connections at the time of the request. It does not necessarily split connections evenly between servers but rather routes traffic to the server with the least load.

d. Weighted least connection:

Explanation: Weighted least connection is a load balancing algorithm that considers both the number of active connections and the server's capacity or weight. It adjusts the distribution of connections based on server load metrics, which is more complex than evenly splitting connections between two servers.

Therefore, b. Round-robin is the most suitable algorithm for the security administrator to use to split the number of connections evenly between the two newly installed web servers.

Question 34

Security analysts have noticed the network becomes flooded with malicious packets at specific times of the day. Which of the following should the analysts use to investigate this issue?

a. Web metadata
b. Bandwidth monitors
c. System files
d. Correlation dashboards

Answer 34

b. Bandwidth monitors

Bandwidth monitors would be the most appropriate tool for investigating the issue of network flooding with malicious packets at specific times of the day. Here’s why:

Bandwidth Monitors: Bandwidth monitoring tools track and analyze the amount of network traffic passing through a specific point in the network. They can provide detailed statistics about the volume and type of traffic, including spikes in traffic that could indicate malicious activities such as flooding with malicious packets.

Use Case: In this scenario, bandwidth monitors can help security analysts pinpoint the exact times when the network experiences a surge in traffic associated with malicious packets. This information is crucial for understanding the scope of the issue, identifying patterns or trends in the attack, and potentially correlating it with other security events.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

a. Web metadata:

Explanation: Web metadata typically refers to information related to web traffic, such as HTTP headers or logs. It is not directly related to monitoring network traffic for malicious packets.

c. System files:

Explanation: System files on individual devices may contain logs or information related to local system events or activities. They are not typically used to monitor or analyze network-wide traffic patterns.

d. Correlation dashboards:

Explanation: Correlation dashboards aggregate and visualize data from multiple sources to identify relationships or patterns. While useful for correlating security events and identifying trends, they rely on data from various sources rather than directly monitoring network traffic.

Therefore, b. Bandwidth monitors is the tool that security analysts should use to investigate the issue of network flooding with malicious packets at specific times of the day.

Question 35

A security administrator performs weekly vulnerability scans on all cloud assets and provides a detailed report. Which of the following describes the administrator’s activities?

a. Continuous deployment
b. Continuous integration
c. Data owners
d. Data processor

Answer 35

d. Data processor

Here’s why:

Data Processor: A data processor is an entity that processes data on behalf of a data controller. In this scenario, the security administrator is actively involved in processing data (performing vulnerability scans) related to the cloud assets owned by the organization. The vulnerability scans generate reports that provide insights into the security posture of the cloud assets.

Continuous Deployment and Continuous Integration: These terms refer to software development practices rather than security assessment activities. Continuous deployment involves automatically deploying code changes into production, while continuous integration involves frequently integrating code changes into a shared repository.

Data Owners: Data owners are typically responsible for overseeing the governance and management of specific data within an organization. They define how data should be used and protected, but they are not directly involved in vulnerability scanning activities.

Therefore, the most appropriate term describing the security administrator’s role in this context is:

d. Data processor

Question 36

An attacker is targeting a company. The attacker notices that the company’s employees frequently access a particular website. The attacker decides to infect the website with malware and hopes the employees’ devices will also become infected. Which of the follow ng techniques is the attacker using?

a. Watering-hole attack
b. Pretexting
c. Typosquatting
d. Impersonation

Answer 36

a. Watering-hole attack

In a watering-hole attack, attackers target websites that are frequently visited by their intended victims. They compromise these websites with malware, exploiting the trust that users have in them to infect the users’ devices. Here’s why this fits the scenario described:

Watering-hole attack: This technique involves identifying websites that are regularly visited by the target organization or individuals. The attacker then compromises these legitimate websites, injecting them with malicious code. When employees or users visit these infected websites, their devices can become infected with malware, which can lead to further compromise of the organization's network or sensitive information.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

b. Pretexting:

Explanation: Pretexting involves creating a fabricated scenario or pretext to deceive individuals into providing sensitive information or performing certain actions. It does not involve infecting websites with malware to target users.

c. Typosquatting:

Explanation: Typosquatting refers to registering domain names that are similar to legitimate domains, often with typographical errors, to deceive users who mistype URLs. It is not directly related to infecting websites with malware.

d. Impersonation:

Explanation: Impersonation involves pretending to be someone else or a legitimate entity to deceive individuals. It does not necessarily involve infecting websites with malware but rather focuses on deception or fraud through impersonation.

Therefore, based on the scenario described, a. Watering-hole attack is the technique the attacker is using by infecting a frequently visited website to target the company’s employees.

Question 37

A digital forensics team at a large company is investigating a case in which malicious code was downloaded over an HTTPS connection and was running in memory, but was never committed to disk. Which of the following techniques should the team use to obtain a sample of the malware binary?

a. pcap reassembly
b. SSD snapshot
c. Image volatile memory
d. Extract from checksums

Answer 37

c. Image volatile memory

Here’s why this technique is suitable:

Image volatile memory: This involves creating a forensic copy (image) of the system's volatile memory (RAM). Malware that is running in memory, such as in this scenario, may leave traces that can be captured in the memory image. Forensic tools are used to extract relevant portions of memory, including the malware code, for analysis and investigation purposes.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less suitable:

a. pcap reassembly:

Explanation: pcap reassembly involves reconstructing network traffic from captured packets. It focuses on capturing and reconstructing network communications rather than extracting malware binaries from memory.

b. SSD snapshot:

Explanation: Taking an SSD snapshot captures the current state of the storage device. However, since the malware is only in memory and not on disk, this method would not capture the malware binary.

d. Extract from checksums:

Explanation: Extracting from checksums typically involves verifying data integrity using checksum values. It does not apply to extracting malware binaries from volatile memory.

Therefore, c. Image volatile memory is the correct technique for the digital forensics team to use in this scenario to obtain a sample of the malware binary that was downloaded over an HTTPS connection and is running in memory.

Question 38

A website visitor is required to provide properly formatted information in a specific field on a website form. Which of the following security measures is most likely used for this mandate?

a. Input validation
b. Code signing
c. SQL injection
d. Form submission

Answer 38

a. Input validation

Input validation is the security measure most likely used for ensuring that a website visitor provides properly formatted information in a specific field on a website form. Here’s why:

Input validation: This process involves checking user input against specified criteria (such as format, length, type, and range) to ensure that it meets expected requirements before processing it further. For example, if a website form requires a phone number in a specific format (e.g., XXX-XXX-XXXX), input validation would check that the entered value matches this format to prevent errors or malicious input.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be correct:

b. Code signing:

Explanation: Code signing is used to verify the authenticity and integrity of software code, typically through digital signatures, to ensure it has not been tampered with. It is not directly related to ensuring properly formatted information in a website form.

c. SQL injection:

Explanation: SQL injection is a type of attack where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution. It is a vulnerability rather than a security measure, and it exploits improper input handling rather than enforcing proper formatting.

d. Form submission:

Explanation: Form submission refers to the process of sending data entered into a web form to a server for processing. It is an action rather than a security measure for validating input.

Therefore, a. Input validation is the security measure most likely used to mandate properly formatted information in a specific field on a website form.

Question 39

A technician is setting up a new firewall on a network segment to allow web traffic to the internet while hardening the network. After the firewall is configured, users receive errors stating the website could not be located. Which of the following would best correct the issue?

a. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443
b. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top
c. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic
d. Ensuring that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set

Answer 39

d. Ensuring that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set.

Here’s why this is the correct choice:

Port 53: Port 53 is used for DNS (Domain Name System) traffic. DNS is crucial for resolving domain names (like www.example.com) to IP addresses (like 192.0.2.1) that computers can use to communicate over the internet. If DNS traffic (UDP and TCP on port 53) is blocked by the firewall, users will not be able to resolve domain names to access websites, resulting in errors stating that the website could not be located.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to correct the issue:

a. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443:

This option would affect HTTP (port 80) and HTTPS (port 443) traffic differently. However, the issue described doesn't specify a problem with HTTPS traffic (port 443), so blocking port 80 explicitly would not necessarily resolve DNS resolution issues.

b. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top:

The implicit deny at the bottom of the rule set typically blocks traffic that does not match any explicitly allowed rules. Moving it to the top would invert the firewall's behavior but wouldn't directly address the DNS issue.

c. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic:

Allowing all traffic indiscriminately is not a recommended security practice. It exposes the network to unnecessary risks and doesn't specifically address the DNS resolution issue.

Therefore, d. Ensuring that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set is the correct approach to ensure that DNS traffic is permitted through the firewall, allowing users to resolve domain names and access websites successfully.

Question 40

A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure. Which of the following data classifications should be used to secure patient data?

a. Private
b. Critical
c. Sensitive
d. Public

Answer 40

c. Sensitive

Here’s why:

Sensitive data: This classification is used for information that, if disclosed, could result in harm to individuals or the organization. Patient data includes personal and health-related information that is considered sensitive and requires protection under privacy laws and regulations such as HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) in the United States.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less appropriate for securing patient data:

a. Private: While patient data is private, the term “private” is more commonly used to describe personal or confidential information that is not intended for public access. It may not fully encompass the regulatory and security requirements specific to healthcare data.

b. Critical: This classification often refers to data or systems that are essential for the operation of an organization. While patient data is critical to the healthcare provider’s operations, “critical” does not inherently specify the level of sensitivity or privacy associated with healthcare information.

d. Public: This classification applies to information that is intentionally made available to the general public. Patient data is not public and should be protected from unauthorized access and disclosure.

Therefore, c. Sensitive is the most appropriate data classification for securing patient data in a hospital setting.

(Braindump : a. Private)

Question 41

A small business uses kiosks on the sales floor to display product information for customers. A security team discovers the kiosks use end-of-life operating systems. Which of the following is the security team most likely to document as a security implication of the current architecture?

a. Patch availability
b. Product software compatibility
c. Ease of recovery
d. Cost of replacement

Answer 41

a. patch availability :

a. Patch availability: End-of-life operating systems no longer receive security patches and updates from the vendor. This leaves the kiosks vulnerable to known and future security vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers.

Let’s briefly review why the other options are less likely to be the primary security implication:

b. Product software compatibility: While this could be an issue with upgrading or replacing the operating system, the primary concern from a security standpoint is the lack of security patches rather than software compatibility.

c. Ease of recovery: This typically refers to the ability to recover from a system failure or disaster, which is important but not directly related to the ongoing security risks posed by using an end-of-life operating system.

d. Cost of replacement: While the cost of replacing the kiosks or upgrading their operating systems is a concern for the business, it is not the primary security implication. The focus is on mitigating the security risks associated with running outdated and unsupported software.

Therefore, a. Patch availability is the security implication that the security team would likely document regarding the use of end-of-life operating systems on the kiosks.

Question 42

During a security incident, the security operations team identified sustained network traffic from a malicious IP address: 10.1.4.9. A security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address from accessing the organization’s network. Which of the following fulfills this request?

a. access-list inbound deny ip source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
b. access-list inbound deny ip source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
c. access-list inbound permit ip source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
d. access-list inbound permit ip source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32

Answer 42

b. access-list inbound deny ip source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0

Here’s why:

The deny statement is used to block traffic from the specified source IP address (10.1.4.9).
/32 denotes a single IP address in CIDR notation.
destination 0.0.0.0/0 specifies that the denial applies to all destinations (anywhere on the network).

Let’s briefly review why the other options are incorrect:

a. access-list inbound deny ip source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32

This rule denies all traffic from any source (0.0.0.0/0) to the specific destination IP (10.1.4.9). It does not target traffic from the specific malicious IP (10.1.4.9) towards any destination, which is the requirement.

c. access-list inbound permit ip source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0

This rule permits traffic from the specific source IP (10.1.4.9) to any destination. The requirement is to block, not permit, traffic from this IP address.

d. access-list inbound permit ip source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32

This rule permits traffic from any source to the specific destination IP (10.1.4.9). It does not block traffic from the specific malicious IP (10.1.4.9).

Therefore, option b. access-list inbound deny ip source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0 is the correct choice to block the IP address 10.1.4.9 from accessing the organization’s network.

Question 43

Which of the following is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities?

a. Preparation
b. Recovery
c. Lessons learned
d. Analysis

Answer 43

a. Preparation

During the preparation phase of incident response, roles and responsibilities are typically defined and documented. This includes identifying team members, their responsibilities during an incident, and the escalation paths. This preparation ensures that when an incident occurs, the team knows who is responsible for what actions and can respond effectively.

To summarize:

Preparation: Involves preparing the incident response plan, defining roles and responsibilities, and ensuring the team is ready to respond to incidents.
Recovery: Focuses on restoring systems and services to normal operation after an incident has been contained.
Lessons learned: Takes place after the incident has been resolved, where the team reviews what happened, identifies improvements, and updates the incident response plan.
Analysis: Involves investigating the incident, determining the root cause, and understanding the impact and extent of the incident.

Therefore, a. Preparation is the phase where roles and responsibilities are reviewed and established in the incident response process.

Question 44

An administrator is reviewing a single server’s security logs and discovers the following:

Keywords Date and Time Source Event ID Task Category
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:05 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:07 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:09 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:11 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:13 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:15 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:17 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:19 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:21 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:23 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:25 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon
Audit Failure 09/16/2022 11:13:27 AM Windows Security 4625 Logon

Which of the following best describes the action captured in this log file?

a. Brute-force attack
b. Privilege escalation
c. Failed password audit
d. Forgotten password by the user

Answer 44

a. brute-force attack.

Brute-force attack (option a): This involves an attacker attempting multiple login combinations systematically to gain unauthorized access to a system or account. The series of consecutive failed logon attempts seen in the log (each attempt occurring every 2 seconds) suggests an automated or manual brute-force attack where the attacker is trying different username/password combinations rapidly.

Privilege escalation (option b): This refers to the process of gaining higher levels of access within a system or network after initially gaining access. It doesn't typically involve repeated failed logon attempts like those seen in the log.

Failed password audit (option c): While there are failed logon attempts, the term "password audit" typically refers to a deliberate review of password strength or compliance rather than the automated or malicious attempts seen in the log.

Forgotten password by the user (option d): This does not fit the scenario because it would not result in repeated failed logon attempts every 2 seconds.

Therefore, the most appropriate description of the action captured in the log file is a. Brute-force attack.

Question 45

Which of the following can be used to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers?

a. Honeypot
b. Video surveillance
c. Zero trust
d. Geofencing

Answer 45

a. Honeypot

Explanation:

Honeypot: A honeypot is a decoy system or server intentionally exposed to attract attackers. Its purpose is to detect, deflect, or study attempts at unauthorized use of information systems. By observing interactions with the honeypot, security teams can identify potential attacker activities without risking or affecting production servers.

Video surveillance: While video surveillance can be used for physical security monitoring, it does not directly help in identifying potential attacker activities on servers or networks.

Zero trust: Zero trust is a security concept and architectural approach that assumes breach and denies trust by default, regardless of whether the user is inside or outside the network perimeter. It focuses on authenticating and authorizing every request before granting access.

Geofencing: Geofencing is a technology that uses GPS or RFID to define geographical boundaries, and it can be used in security contexts to control access based on the geographic location of devices or users.

Therefore, among the options provided, a. Honeypot is specifically designed to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers.

Question 46

A company wants the ability to restrict web access and monitor the websites that employees visit. Which of the following would best meet these requirements?

a. Internet proxy
b. VPN
c. WAF
d. Firewall

Answer 46

a. Internet proxy

Explanation:

Internet proxy: An internet proxy server acts as an intermediary between users and the internet. It can be configured to restrict access to certain websites based on policies defined by the company. Additionally, it allows monitoring of the websites visited by employees, providing visibility into their web browsing activities.

VPN (Virtual Private Network): A VPN is used to create a secure and encrypted connection to a private network over the public internet. While it secures communications, it does not inherently restrict or monitor web access unless specific controls are implemented within the VPN solution.

WAF (Web Application Firewall): A WAF is designed to protect web applications from various attacks and vulnerabilities, such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS). It does not directly restrict or monitor web access for employees.

Firewall: A firewall controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. While it can be configured to block access to certain websites, it does not provide granular monitoring capabilities of web browsing activities.

Therefore, a. Internet proxy is the best option for the company to restrict web access and monitor the websites that employees visit.

Question 47

A security analyst notices an unusual amount of traffic hitting the edge of the network. Upon examining the logs, the analyst identifies a source IP address and blocks that address from communicating with the network. Even though the analyst is blocking this address, the attack is still ongoing and coming from a large number of different source IP addresses. Which of the following describes this type of attack?

a. DDoS
b. Privilege escalation
c. DNS poisoning
d. Buffer overflow

Answer 47

a. DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service)

Explanation:

DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service): In a DDoS attack, multiple compromised systems (often thousands or more) are used to flood the target system or network with a large volume of traffic. These attacks typically overwhelm the target's resources, causing it to become slow or completely unavailable to legitimate users. Even if one source IP address is blocked, the attack continues because it originates from many different IP addresses, making it difficult to mitigate.

Privilege escalation: This refers to the unauthorized elevation of privileges within a system or network, typically after an attacker has gained initial access.

DNS poisoning: DNS poisoning involves altering DNS records to redirect traffic to malicious sites.

Buffer overflow: A buffer overflow occurs when a program or process tries to store more data in a buffer (temporary storage) than it was intended to hold, leading to unintended behavior or system crashes.

In the scenario described, where blocking a single IP address does not stop the attack due to traffic coming from various sources, it aligns with the characteristics of a DDoS attack. Therefore, option a. DDoS is the correct answer.

Question 48

A company needs to centralize its logs to create a baseline and have visibility on its security events. Which of the following technologies will accomplish this objective?

a. Security information and event management
b. A web application firewall
c. A vulnerability scanner
d. A next-generation firewall

Answer 48

a. Security information and event management (SIEM)

Explanation:

Security information and event management (SIEM): SIEM systems collect, aggregate, and analyze log data from various sources across an organization's IT infrastructure. They provide centralized visibility into security events, allowing for real-time monitoring, correlation of events, and generation of alerts. SIEM systems are essential for creating baselines, detecting anomalies, and responding to security incidents effectively.

Web application firewall: A WAF protects web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic between a web application and the internet.

Vulnerability scanner: Vulnerability scanners identify security vulnerabilities in systems and applications by scanning them for known weaknesses.

Next-generation firewall: NGFWs integrate traditional firewall capabilities with additional features such as intrusion prevention, application awareness, and advanced threat protection.

Given the company’s need to centralize logs for baseline creation and security event visibility, SIEM is the most appropriate technology as it specializes in log aggregation, analysis, and monitoring across the network.

Question 49

Two organizations are discussing a possible merger. Both organizations’ Chief Financial Officers would like to safely share payroll data with each other to determine if the pay scales for different roles are similar at both organizations. Which of the following techniques would be best to protect employee data while allowing the companies to successfully share this information?

a. Pseudo-anonymization
b. Tokenization
c. Data masking
d. Encryption

Answer 49

(community : A 68%, B 16%, C 16%)
a. Pseudo-anonymization

Pseudo-anonymization replaces PII while maintaining financial information for comparison purposes. Data masking replaces financial information with fictitious data, making it unmeaningful for pay scale comparisons between the two organizations. Tokenization replaces financial information with tokens, making it unreadable unless a tokenization system reverses it.

Pseudo-anonymization specifically replaces PII, but keeps everything else the same, so comparisons can be made on the real data that matters.
Tokenization replaces the data with random strings, so no comparisons can be done.
Data masking makes the values fictitious, so the comparisons would be inaccurate. Developers just need data, fictitious or not, so masking works for them.

ChatGPT & Braindump :

b. Tokenization

Explanation:

Tokenization involves replacing sensitive data (such as payroll information) with unique identification symbols (tokens) that retain essential information about the data without compromising its security. The original data is stored securely in a tokenization system, while only the tokens are shared between the organizations. This approach ensures that sensitive information like payroll data remains protected from unauthorized access during transmission and storage.

Let’s briefly look at the other options for clarity:

Pseudo-anonymization: This technique replaces identifiable information with pseudonyms, but it might still be reversible and therefore not as secure as tokenization.

Data masking: Involves hiding original data with a modified version to protect its confidentiality, but it can sometimes be reversible or still provide clues to the original data.

Encryption: While encrypting data is secure, it requires managing encryption keys and may not be as practical for direct data sharing scenarios due to the need for decryption at the receiving end.

Therefore, tokenization is specifically designed to enable secure data sharing while protecting sensitive information like payroll data, making it the best choice for this scenario.

Question 50

A large retail store’s network was breached recently, and this news was made public. The store did not lose any intellectual property, and no customer information was stolen. Although no fines were incurred as a result, the store lost revenue after the breach. Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?

a. Employee training
b. Leadership changes
c. Reputation damage
d. Identity theft

Answer 50

c. Reputation damage

Explanation:
While the breach did not directly result in fines or loss of intellectual property/customer information, the loss of revenue indicates a broader impact related to reputation damage. Customers may lose trust in the store’s ability to protect their data, which could lead to reduced patronage and, consequently, revenue loss. Reputation damage is a common consequence of security breaches and can significantly impact a company’s bottom line even when direct financial losses are not incurred.