Sy06 Exam Braindumps Flashcards
A user is attempting to navigate to a website from inside the company network using a desktop. When the user types in the URL, https://www.site.com, the user is presented with a certificate mismatch warning from the browser. The user does not receive a warning when visiting http://www.anothersite.com. Which of the following describes this attack?
a. on-path
b. Domain hijacking
c. DNS poisoning
d. Evil twin
c. DNS poisoning
Here’s how DNS poisoning fits the scenario:
DNS Poisoning (or DNS Spoofing): This attack involves corrupting the DNS resolution process in order to redirect domain name lookups to malicious IP addresses. In this case, when the user tries to access https://www.site.com, the DNS responses could have been tampered with to redirect the user to a different (potentially malicious) IP address that does not match the expected SSL certificate for www.site.com. This causes the browser to display a certificate mismatch warning because the certificate presented by the server does not match the domain name requested by the user (www.site.com). HTTP vs HTTPS: The lack of warnings for http://www.anothersite.com suggests that the DNS poisoning is specifically targeting HTTPS (SSL/TLS) connections (https://www.site.com). HTTP connections (http://www.anothersite.com) do not use SSL/TLS and thus do not trigger certificate mismatch warnings.
Here’s why the other options are less likely:
On-path: While an on-path attack involves intercepting and manipulating traffic between two parties, it typically does not specifically cause SSL certificate mismatch warnings unless combined with DNS poisoning or other techniques to redirect traffic. Domain hijacking: Domain hijacking involves unauthorized changes to domain registration records, leading to control over the domain itself. While related, it does not directly cause certificate mismatch warnings as described. Evil twin: An evil twin attack involves setting up a rogue Wi-Fi access point with the same name (SSID) as a legitimate one to intercept wireless communications. It is not directly related to DNS poisoning or causing certificate mismatch warnings in the context of accessing websites.
Which of the following tools is effective in preventing a user from accessing unauthorized removable media?
a. USB data blocker
b. Faraday cage
c. Proximity reader
d. Cable lock
a. USB data blocker
Explanation:
USB data blocker: This device is specifically designed to allow charging of a device while blocking data transfer through the USB port. This prevents unauthorized access to removable media by ensuring that data cannot be transferred to or from the USB port.
Other Options:
Faraday cage: This is a shield used to block electromagnetic fields. It is not designed for preventing access to removable media and is generally used for different purposes, such as preventing wireless communication. Proximity reader: This is used for access control, such as securing physical entry to a location. It does not prevent access to removable media. Cable lock: This is used to physically secure a device to prevent theft but does not control access to removable media.
Therefore, the USB data blocker is the most suitable tool for the specified purpose.
A Chief Security Officer is looking for a solution that can provide increased scalability and flexibility for back-end infrastructure, allowing it to be updated and modified without disruption to services. The security architect would like the solution selected to reduce the back-end server resources and has highlighted that session persistence is not important for the applications running on the back-end servers. Which of the following would BEST meet the requirements?
a. Reverse proxy
b. Automated patch management
c. snapshots
d. NIC teaming
a. Reverse proxy
Here’s how a reverse proxy aligns with the specified needs:
Increased scalability and flexibility: A reverse proxy can distribute client requests across multiple back-end servers, allowing for easier scaling by adding or removing servers as needed. It can also provide flexibility by routing requests based on various criteria (e.g., URL, headers). Updating and modifying back-end infrastructure without disruption: A reverse proxy can route traffic to different versions of back-end servers seamlessly during updates or modifications, ensuring continuous service availability without interruptions. Reducing back-end server resources: By offloading tasks like SSL termination, caching, and load balancing, a reverse proxy can optimize the usage of back-end server resources. Session persistence not important: Reverse proxies can handle session management and load balancing without requiring session persistence on the back-end servers, which aligns with the stated preference.
Let’s briefly consider why the other options are less suitable:
Automated patch management: While important for security and maintenance, automated patch management primarily focuses on keeping servers up to date with the latest patches and updates. It doesn't directly address scalability, flexibility, or resource reduction. Snapshots: Snapshots are a feature used for data protection and recovery but do not inherently provide scalability, flexibility, or resource reduction for back-end infrastructure. NIC teaming: NIC teaming (or network bonding) is used to increase network bandwidth and provide redundancy, primarily at the network interface level. It does not directly address the scalability, flexibility, or resource reduction needs of back-end infrastructure in the context described.
Which of the following describes a social engineering technique that seeks to exploit a person’s sense of urgency?
a. A phishing email stating a cash settlement has been awarded but will expire soon
b. A smishing message stating a package is scheduled for pickup
c. A vishing call that requests a donation to be made to a local charity
d. A SPIM notification claiming to be undercover law enforcement investigating a cybercrime
a. A phishing email stating a cash settlement has been awarded but will expire soon
The social engineering technique that seeks to exploit a person’s sense of urgency is described in option A. By stating that a cash settlement has been awarded but will expire soon, the attacker creates a sense of urgency and tries to manipulate the recipient into taking immediate action without thoroughly considering the authenticity or legitimacy of the email. This technique aims to pressure the target into making a hasty decision or divulging sensitive information.
A security analyst is reviewing application logs to determine the source of a breach and locates the following log: https://www.comptia.com/login.php?id=’%20or%20’1’1=’1
Which of the following has been observed?
a. DLL Injection
b. API attack
c. SQL injection
d. XSS
c. SQL injection
The log entry provided (https://www.comptia.com/login.php?id=’%20or%20’1’1=’1) indicates a type of attack where a malicious actor is trying to manipulate the SQL query used by the application. This pattern matches the characteristics of a SQL injection attack.
SQL injection (SQLi) involves inserting or “injecting” SQL queries via the input data from the client to the application. This can allow attackers to bypass authentication, access, modify, or delete data, and execute administrative operations on the database.
The specific part of the log entry id=’%20or%20’1’1=’1 is a classic example of an SQL injection attempt. The attacker is trying to manipulate the SQL query logic to always evaluate to true (e.g., 1=1), which can potentially bypass login authentication or retrieve unauthorized information.
An audit identified PII being utilized in the development environment of a critical application. The Chief Privacy Officer (CPO) is adamant that this data must be removed; however, the developers are concerned that without real data they cannot perform functionality tests and search for specific data. Which of the following should a security professional implement to BEST satisfy both the CPO’s and the development team’s requirements?
a. Data anonymization
b. Data encryption
c. Data masking
d. Data tokenization
(Community C 54%, A 45% )
c. Data masking
Explanation:
Data masking: This technique involves creating a structurally similar but inauthentic version of an organization's data that can be used for purposes such as software testing and user training. It allows the developers to use data that appears real but doesn't contain actual sensitive information, thus satisfying the Chief Privacy Officer's (CPO) requirement to remove Personally Identifiable Information (PII) while still allowing the developers to perform functionality tests and search for specific data.
Why other options are less suitable:
Data anonymization: This method removes or modifies PII so that it can no longer be attributed to a specific individual. While it ensures privacy, it might alter the data to an extent that makes it less useful for testing specific functions or searches. Data encryption: Encryption protects data by converting it into a coded format that is unreadable without a decryption key. While it secures the data, it doesn't help developers who need to interact with and test the functionality of the data in its original form. Data tokenization: This process replaces sensitive data with unique identification symbols (tokens) that retain essential information without compromising security. Although it can be useful, tokenized data might not always be suitable for all types of functionality testing or specific searches needed by developers.
Therefore, data masking is the best option to meet both the privacy concerns of the CPO and the functional needs of the development team.
A company is implementing a DLP solution on the file server. The file server has PII, financial information, and health information stored on it. Depending on what type of data that is hosted on the file server, the company wants different DLP rules assigned to the data. Which of the following should the company do to help accomplish this goal?
a. Classify the data.
b. Mask the data.
c. Assign the application owner.
d. Perform a risk analysis.
a. Classify the data.
Classifying the data involves identifying and categorizing the types of data stored on the file server. This classification process allows the company to apply specific DLP rules tailored to each category of data. For example, different DLP policies can be enforced for PII, financial information, and health information once they are properly classified.
Here’s why the other options are less suitable in this context:
Mask the data: Data masking is a method of protecting sensitive information by replacing it with fictitious but realistic data. While it can enhance security, it does not help in creating and applying different DLP rules based on the data type. Assign the application owner: While assigning ownership can help with accountability and management, it does not directly address the need to apply different DLP rules to different types of data. Perform a risk analysis: Risk analysis helps identify potential threats and vulnerabilities, which is important for overall security strategy, but it does not directly assist in applying specific DLP rules based on the type of data.
A forensics investigator is examining a number of unauthorized payments that were reported on the company’s website. Some unusual log entries show users received an email for an unwanted mailing list and clicked on a link to attempt to unsubscribe. One of the users reported the email to the phishing team, and the forwarded email revealed the link to be:
<a>Click here to unsubscribe</a>
Which of the following will the forensics investigator MOST likely determine has occurred?
a. SQL injection
b. Broken authentication
c. XSS
d. XSRF
d. XSRF
The forensics investigator will most likely determine that a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack has occurred. In a CSRF attack, an attacker tricks a user into performing an unintended action on a website or application by forging a request that appears to come from a trusted source. In this case, the users were directed to a website where they unknowingly made unauthorized payments by clicking on a link in a phishing email. The link appears to be harmless, but actually contains code that instructs the user’s browser to make a payment on the company’s website. The unauthorized payments were made because the website accepted the forged request without verifying the authenticity of the request.
A report delivered to the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) shows that some user credentials could be exfiltrated. The report also indicates that users tend to choose the same credentials on different systems and applications. Which of the following policies should the CISO use to prevent someone from using the exfiltrated credentials?
a. MFA
b. Lockout
c. Time-based logins
d. Password history
a. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication)
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) significantly enhances security by requiring users to provide two or more verification factors to gain access to a resource such as an application, online account, or VPN. Even if an attacker obtains user credentials, they would still need the additional factor(s) to successfully log in, thus preventing unauthorized access.
Here’s why the other options are less suitable in this context:
Lockout: This policy locks an account after a certain number of failed login attempts, which helps to prevent brute force attacks but does not address the issue of stolen credentials being used successfully. Time-based logins: Restricting logins to specific times can add a layer of security, but it does not prevent the use of stolen credentials outside of those times. Password history: Enforcing password history prevents users from reusing recent passwords, but it does not prevent the use of current stolen credentials.
A company wants to simplify the certificate management process. The company has a single domain with several dozen subdomains, all of which are publicly accessible on the internet. Which of the following BEST describes the type of certificate the company should implement?
a. Subject alternative name
b. Wildcard
c. Self-signed
d. Domain validation
b. Wildcard
A wildcard certificate allows you to secure a single domain and all its subdomains with a single certificate. This greatly simplifies management because you don’t need a separate certificate for each subdomain. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.example.com would cover example.com, sub1.example.com, sub2.example.com, etc.
Here’s why the other options are less suitable:
Subject Alternative Name (SAN): SAN certificates can cover multiple specific domain names and subdomains, but they require each name to be listed explicitly in the certificate, which can be less efficient and more cumbersome to manage if the number of subdomains is large or if subdomains change frequently. Self-signed: Self-signed certificates are not trusted by default by users' browsers and operating systems, making them unsuitable for public-facing websites. Domain validation (DV): DV certificates indicate that the certificate authority has verified the domain ownership, but they do not simplify the management of multiple subdomains any more than any other type of certificate.
Which of the following is an effective tool to stop or prevent the exfiltration of data from a network?
a. DLP
b. NIDS
c. TPM
d. FDE
a. DLP (Data Loss Prevention)
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solutions are specifically designed to detect and prevent unauthorized data transmissions or leaks outside of the network. DLP can monitor and control data transfers, enforce encryption, and block unauthorized sharing of sensitive information such as PII, financial data, and intellectual property.
Here’s why the other options are less suitable:
NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System): NIDS can detect suspicious activities and potential intrusions on the network but doesn't specifically prevent data exfiltration. It is more about detection rather than prevention. TPM (Trusted Platform Module): TPM is a hardware-based security feature used to secure hardware through integrated cryptographic keys, but it does not directly prevent data exfiltration from a network. FDE (Full Disk Encryption): FDE protects data at rest by encrypting the entire contents of a disk. While it secures data on a device, it does not prevent data from being exfiltrated over the network.
Several attempts have been made to pick the door lock of a secure facility. As a result, the security engineer has been assigned to implement a stronger preventative access control. Which of the following would BEST complete the engineer’s assignment?
a. Replacing the traditional key with an RFID key
b. Installing and monitoring a camera facing the door
c. Setting motion-sensing lights to illuminate the door on activity
d. Surrounding the property with fencing and gates
a. Replacing the traditional key with an RFID key
To implement a stronger preventative access control for a secure facility, replacing the traditional key with an RFID key would be the best solution. This change enhances security by using a more modern and harder-to-pick locking mechanism.
Here’s why the other options are less suitable:
Installing and monitoring a camera facing the door: This is more of a detective control than a preventative control. It helps in monitoring and recording any attempts but does not prevent the attempts themselves. Setting motion-sensing lights to illuminate the door on activity: This is also a deterrent and detection measure rather than a preventative one. It may discourage attempts but does not physically prevent access. Surrounding the property with fencing and gates: While this can be part of a comprehensive security strategy, it does not directly strengthen the specific access control of the door itself. It addresses perimeter security rather than the point of entry that is being targeted.
Which of the following can be used by a monitoring tool to compare values and detect password leaks without providing the actual credentials?
a. Hashing
b. Tokenization
c. Masking
d. Encryption
a. Hashing
Hashing is a process where a cryptographic hash function is applied to data (in this case, passwords) to produce a fixed-size string of characters, which is often referred to as the hash value or hash code. This hash value is unique to the input data and is deterministic, meaning the same input will always produce the same hash output.
In the context of detecting password leaks without exposing actual credentials, a monitoring tool can hash passwords (either locally or using a secure protocol) and then compare these hashed values against known leaked hashes from breached databases. If a match is found, it indicates that a password has been compromised without the monitoring tool needing access to the actual plaintext passwords.
Here’s why the other options are not correct in this context:
Tokenization: Tokenization involves substituting sensitive data with a non-sensitive equivalent (token). It is used to protect data but does not inherently involve comparison or detection of password leaks. Masking: Masking is the process of partially or completely hiding sensitive data (like passwords) by replacing it with placeholder characters. It does not facilitate the comparison or detection of password leaks. Encryption: Encryption involves transforming data (plaintext) into a form (ciphertext) that is unreadable without the correct decryption key. While encryption secures data, it does not typically facilitate comparison for detecting password leaks unless the encrypted values are compared directly, which is less common in such monitoring scenarios.
A security engineer is building a file transfer solution to send files to a business partner. The users would like to drop off the files in a specific directory and have the server send the file to the business partner. The connection to the business partner is over the internet and needs to be secure. Which of the following can be used?
a. S/MIME
b. LDAPS
c. SSH
d. SRTP
c. SSH
SSH provides a secure, encrypted connection between two systems, typically used for remote access and file transfer. Here’s how it aligns with the requirements:
Secure connection: SSH encrypts the data transmitted between the client (where the files are dropped off) and the server (which sends the files to the business partner), ensuring confidentiality and integrity of the transferred files. File transfer capability: SSH includes utilities like SCP (Secure Copy Protocol) or SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) which allow secure file transfers over SSH connections. Users can drop off files in a specific directory on the server using SFTP or SCP commands.
Let’s briefly consider why the other options are less suitable in this context:
S/MIME: S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) is used for securing email messages, not directly for file transfer scenarios where files need to be stored in a directory and sent automatically to a business partner. LDAPS: LDAPS (LDAP over SSL/TLS) is used for securing LDAP directory communications, not for file transfer scenarios as described. SRTP: SRTP (Secure Real-time Transport Protocol) is used for securing VoIP (Voice over IP) communications, not for file transfer scenarios over the internet.
An administrator needs to protect user passwords and has been advised to hash the passwords. Which of the following BEST describes what the administrator is being advised to do?
a. Perform a mathematical operation on the passwords that will convert them into unique strings.
b. Add extra data to the passwords so their length is increased, making them harder to brute force.
c. Store all passwords in the system in a rainbow table that has a centralized location.
d. Enforce the use of one-time passwords that are changed for every login session.
a. Perform a mathematical operation on the passwords that will convert them into unique strings.
In the context of protecting user passwords, hashing is a cryptographic technique where passwords (or any other data) are converted into fixed-length strings of characters (hash values) using a mathematical algorithm. Hashing ensures that the original password cannot be easily derived from the hash value, providing a layer of security in case the hashed data is exposed or compromised.
Let’s briefly explain why the other options are not correct:
b. Add extra data to the passwords so their length is increased, making them harder to brute force: This describes password salting, not hashing. Salting involves adding a random value (salt) to each password before hashing to ensure that even identical passwords produce different hashes. While salting is an important technique, it's not the same as hashing itself. c. Store all passwords in the system in a rainbow table that has a centralized location: Rainbow tables are precomputed tables used to crack hashed passwords through reverse lookup. Storing passwords in a rainbow table would defeat the purpose of hashing for security. d. Enforce the use of one-time passwords that are changed for every login session: One-time passwords are not related to hashing passwords. They are temporary passwords that are valid for a single login session and are typically used for two-factor authentication (2FA) or multi-factor authentication (MFA).
Which of the following would be indicative of a hidden audio file found inside of a piece of source code?
a. Steganography
b. Homomorphic encryption
c. Cipher suite
d. Blockchain
a. Steganography
Steganography is the practice of concealing a file, message, image, or video within another file, message, image, or video. In the context of a hidden audio file found inside of a piece of source code, steganography would be the technique used to embed the audio file within the source code without altering the functionality or appearance of the source code itself. This allows the audio file to remain hidden unless someone knows how to extract it using specific tools or methods designed for steganographic detection.
Here’s why the other options are not correct:
b. Homomorphic encryption: Homomorphic encryption is a form of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. It is not related to embedding audio files within source code. c. Cipher suite: A cipher suite is a set of cryptographic algorithms used for securing network connections. It is not related to hiding audio files within source code. d. Blockchain: Blockchain is a decentralized digital ledger technology used for recording transactions across multiple computers. It does not relate to embedding audio files within source code.
A user enters a username and a password at the login screen for a web portal. A few seconds later the following message appears on the screen:
Please use a combination of numbers, special characters, and letters in the password field.
Which of the following concepts does this message describe?
a. Password complexity
b. Password reuse
c. Password history
d. Password age
a. Password complexity
Password complexity refers to the requirements and rules imposed on passwords to ensure they are sufficiently strong and resistant to various forms of attack. Common complexity requirements include using a combination of uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. These requirements aim to increase the difficulty of guessing or brute-forcing passwords.
Here’s a brief overview of the other options:
b. Password reuse: This concept relates to using the same password across multiple accounts or systems, which can pose security risks if one account is compromised. c. Password history: Password history refers to a security feature that prevents users from reusing previous passwords, enhancing security by ensuring passwords are not reused consecutively. d. Password age: Password age refers to the length of time a password has been in use before it needs to be changed as part of a password policy.
A company recently experienced an inside attack using a corporate machine that resulted in data compromise. Analysis indicated an unauthorized change to the software circumvented technological protection measures. The analyst was tasked with determining the best method to ensure the integrity of the systems remains intact and local and remote boot attestation can take place. Which of the following would provide the BEST solution?
a. HIPS
b. FIM
c. TPM
d. DLP
c. TPM (Trusted Platform Module)
TPM (Trusted Platform Module) is a hardware-based security feature that provides a secure area within the system for storing cryptographic keys, certificates, and measurements. It enables several security functions, including secure boot attestation, which verifies the integrity of system components during the boot process. Here’s how TPM aligns with the requirements:
Integrity of systems: TPM ensures the integrity of the system by securely storing measurements (hashes) of boot components and providing these measurements for verification during the boot process. Any unauthorized changes to the software or system configurations can be detected through these measurements. Local and remote boot attestation: TPM supports both local and remote attestation mechanisms. Local attestation verifies the integrity of the system components locally, while remote attestation allows external entities (like a remote server or security service) to verify the system's integrity before allowing access or exchanging sensitive information.
Here’s why the other options are less suitable in this context:
a. HIPS (Host-based Intrusion Prevention System): HIPS monitors and analyzes the internals of a computing system, but it does not inherently provide the cryptographic capabilities or secure storage necessary for boot attestation. b. FIM (File Integrity Monitoring): FIM detects changes to files and system configurations, but it primarily focuses on monitoring file changes rather than providing the comprehensive security features required for boot attestation and ensuring the integrity of the entire system. d. DLP (Data Loss Prevention): DLP solutions focus on protecting data from unauthorized access and exfiltration rather than ensuring the integrity of system components and supporting boot attestation.
Which of the following is a reason to publish files’ hashes?
a. To validate the integrity of the files
b. To verify if the software was digitally signed
c. To use the hash as a software activation key
d. To use the hash as a decryption passphrase
a. To validate the integrity of the files
Publishing files’ hashes allows users to verify the integrity of downloaded files by comparing the hash provided by the publisher with the hash computed from the downloaded file. If the hashes match, it indicates that the file has not been tampered with or corrupted during transmission.
Here’s why the other options are not correct:
b. To verify if the software was digitally signed: Digital signatures are used to verify the authenticity and integrity of software, not hashes. Digital signatures include a hash of the signed content, but the primary purpose of publishing a digital signature is to verify the signer's identity and ensure the software has not been tampered with since it was signed. c. To use the hash as a software activation key: Hashes are not used as activation keys for software. Activation keys typically are alphanumeric codes that are used to activate or validate software licenses. d. To use the hash as a decryption passphrase: Hashes are not used directly as decryption passphrases. Passphrases are typically longer and more complex strings used to decrypt encrypted data.
A security manager has tasked the security operations center with locating all web servers that respond to an unsecure protocol. Which of the following commands could an analyst run to find the requested servers?
a. nslookup 10.10.10.0
b. nmap -p 80 10.10.10.0/24
c. pathping 10.10.10.0 -p 80
d. ne -l -p 80
b. nmap -p 80 10.10.10.0/24
Here’s how this command works:
nmap: Nmap (Network Mapper) is a network scanning tool used for discovering hosts and services on a computer network. -p 80: This option specifies that Nmap should scan for hosts that have port 80 (HTTP) open. 10.10.10.0/24: This is the network range in CIDR notation (Classless Inter-Domain Routing), which specifies a range of IP addresses to scan. /24 indicates that it's scanning all IP addresses from 10.10.10.0 to 10.10.10.255.
Explanation of why the other options are incorrect:
a. nslookup 10.10.10.0: nslookup is used to query DNS servers for domain name information. It does not scan for open ports on servers. c. pathping 10.10.10.0 -p 80: pathping is used to trace the route packets take to a network host, not to scan for open ports. d. ne -l -p 80: There is no commonly known command ne with options -l and -p 80. It does not appear to be a valid command for the intended purpose.
Which biometric error would allow an unauthorized user to access a system?
a. False acceptance
b. False entrance
c. False rejection
d. False denial
a. False acceptance
False acceptance occurs when the biometric system incorrectly identifies an unauthorized user as an authorized one. In other words, the system mistakenly accepts an impostor’s biometric data (such as fingerprints, facial features, iris patterns, etc.) as belonging to an authorized user, granting access when it should not.
Here’s a brief explanation of the other options:
b. False entrance: This term is not commonly used in the context of biometrics. It does not describe a recognized biometric error. c. False rejection: This occurs when the biometric system incorrectly rejects an authorized user, denying access to someone who should be allowed in. It's the opposite error to false acceptance. d. False denial: This term is also not commonly used in the context of biometrics. It does not describe a recognized biometric error.
A company is auditing the manner in which its European customers’ personal information is handled. Which of the following should the company consult?
a. GDPR
b. ISO
c. NIST
d. PCI DSS
a. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)
GDPR is the European Union regulation that governs the handling of personal data of individuals within the EU and European Economic Area (EEA). It outlines specific requirements and standards for the protection and processing of personal data. Since the company is auditing the handling of personal information of its European customers, GDPR compliance is crucial to ensure that they are meeting the legal obligations regarding data protection.
Here’s a brief explanation of the other options:
b. ISO (International Organization for Standardization): ISO standards cover various aspects of business operations, including information security (e.g., ISO/IEC 27001). While ISO standards provide frameworks for best practices, they do not specifically address legal requirements for data protection like GDPR. c. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology): NIST provides cybersecurity and privacy frameworks and guidelines, primarily used in the United States. While NIST frameworks can be beneficial for enhancing security practices, they are not specific to GDPR compliance. d. PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): PCI DSS is a security standard for organizations that handle credit card information. It does not apply to the broader scope of personal data handling regulated by GDPR.
Which of the following are common VoIP-associated vulnerabilities? (Choose two.)
a. SPIM
b. Vishing
c. Hopping
d. Phishing
e. Credential harvesting
f. Tailgating
(Braindump)
a. SPIM
b. Vishing
SPIM (Spam over Internet Messaging) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves sending unsolicited or
fraudulent messages over an internet messaging service, such as Skype or WhatsApp. It can trick users into clicking on
malicious links, downloading malware, providing personal or financial information, etc., by impersonating a legitimate
entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity. Vishing (Voice Phishing) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability
that involves making unsolicited or fraudulent phone calls over an internet telephony service, such as Google Voice or
Vonage. It can trick users into disclosing personal or financial information, following malicious instructions,
transferring money, etc., by using voice spoofing, caller ID spoofing, or interactive voice response systems.
vlan hopping one was of the choices on my exam, but credential harvesting was not! IDK which one is correct besides vishing, but cred harvesting wasn’t there. This would mean SPIM was the other answer.
(Community BE 43%, AB 42%)
ChatGPT
b. Vishing
e. Credential harvesting
Explanation:
Vishing (Voice Phishing): This is a type of phishing attack that uses phone calls to trick users into revealing sensitive information. It's a common vulnerability in VoIP systems because attackers can spoof caller IDs to appear as legitimate sources, making it easier to deceive victims. Credential Harvesting: This involves the theft of login credentials, such as usernames and passwords, which can be used to gain unauthorized access to VoIP systems and services. Attackers may use various techniques, including social engineering and malware, to harvest credentials.
Why the other options are not correct:
a. SPIM (Spam over Instant Messaging): This is related to instant messaging services rather than VoIP specifically.
c. Hopping: This is not a commonly recognized term associated with VoIP vulnerabilities.
d. Phishing: While phishing is a common cybersecurity threat, it typically involves email or text messages rather than VoIP-specific methods like vishing.
f. Tailgating: This is a physical security breach where an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a secure area, not related to VoIP vulnerabilities.
Which of the following describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas?
a. Persistence
b. Buffer overflow
c. Privilege escalation
d. Pharming
c. Privilege escalation
Privilege escalation refers to the exploitation of a vulnerability or design flaw in an interactive process to gain elevated privileges that are normally not allowed for an attacker. This could involve escalating from a regular user account to an administrator or root level access, thereby gaining access to restricted areas or resources.
Here’s how the other options differ:
a. Persistence: Persistence refers to techniques used by attackers to maintain access to a system or network after initial access has been achieved, often through means like installing backdoors or modifying system configurations. b. Buffer overflow: A buffer overflow is a type of software vulnerability where an attacker overwrites memory adjacent to a buffer to execute malicious code or gain control of the program's execution flow. d. Pharming: Pharming is a cyber attack intended to redirect a website's traffic to a fake website controlled by the attacker, typically through DNS hijacking or poisoning.
An organization is planning to open other data centers to sustain operations in the event of a natural disaster. Which of the following considerations would BEST support the organization’s resiliency?
a. Geographic dispersal
b. Generator power
c. Fire suppression
d. Facility automation
a. Geographic dispersal
Geographic dispersal involves establishing data centers in different geographical locations that are not likely to be affected simultaneously by the same natural disaster. This strategy ensures that if one data center is impacted by a disaster (such as a hurricane, earthquake, or flood), operations can continue from another location without significant interruption.
Here’s how the other options compare:
b. Generator power: Generator power is important for providing backup electricity in case of power outages, but it alone does not ensure resiliency across different locations. c. Fire suppression: Fire suppression systems are crucial for protecting equipment and data from fire damage within a single data center but do not address resiliency across multiple locations. d. Facility automation: Facility automation can improve operational efficiency and response times but does not directly address the geographic dispersal needed for resiliency against natural disasters.
A security engineer is deploying a new wireless network for a company. The company shares office space with multiple tenants. Which of the following should the engineer configure on the wireless network to ensure that confidential data is not exposed to unauthorized users?
a. EAP
b. TLS
c. HTTPS
d. AES
d. AES
Explanation:
AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that provides strong encryption for data. When deploying a wireless network, configuring the wireless encryption protocol to use AES ensures that the data transmitted over the network is encrypted and protected from unauthorized access.
Why the other options are not the best choice for this scenario:
a. EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol): EAP is a framework for authentication, often used in wireless networks. While important for ensuring that only authorized users can connect to the network, it does not itself provide data encryption.
b. TLS (Transport Layer Security): TLS is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide secure communication over a computer network. While it is used in many applications, including HTTPS, it is not specifically used to secure wireless networks at the data link layer.
c. HTTPS (HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure): HTTPS is used to secure communications over the internet, specifically for web traffic. It ensures that data sent between the browser and the web server is encrypted. However, it is not directly related to securing wireless network communications.
By configuring the wireless network to use AES encryption, the security engineer ensures that all data transmitted over the wireless network is encrypted and protected from eavesdropping and unauthorized access, which is crucial in a shared office space environment.
The Chief Compliance Officer from a bank has approved a background check policy for all new hires. Which of the following is the policy MOST likely protecting against?
a. Preventing any current employees’ siblings from working at the bank to prevent nepotism
b. Hiring an employee who has been convicted of theft to adhere to industry compliance
c. Filtering applicants who have added false information to resumes so they appear better qualified
d. Ensuring no new hires have worked at other banks that may be trying to steal customer information
b. Hiring an employee who has been convicted of theft to adhere to industry compliance
Background checks are commonly implemented to screen prospective employees for criminal records, including convictions related to theft or fraud. This helps banks comply with industry regulations that require employees to be trustworthy and maintain high standards of integrity, especially when handling sensitive financial information and transactions.
Here’s a brief explanation of the other options:
a. Preventing any current employees' siblings from working at the bank to prevent nepotism: This scenario relates to nepotism policies rather than criminal background checks. c. Filtering applicants who have added false information to resumes so they appear better qualified: This relates more to verifying qualifications and honesty rather than criminal background checks. d. Ensuring no new hires have worked at other banks that may be trying to steal customer information: While it's important to prevent insider threats and ensure data security, this is not typically the primary focus of background checks. Instead, it may be addressed through other security measures and employment history checks.
An engineer recently deployed a group of 100 web servers in a cloud environment. Per the security policy, all web-server ports except 443 should be disabled.
Which of the following can be used to accomplish this task?
a. Application allow list
b. SWG
c. Host-based firewall
d. VPN
(Braindump) b. SWG
c. Host-based firewall
Explanation:
Host-based firewall: This type of firewall runs on individual servers (in this case, the 100 web servers deployed in the cloud). It allows administrators to define and enforce rules regarding which network traffic is allowed to enter or leave the server. By configuring the host-based firewall on each web server to block all ports except 443 (HTTPS), you effectively restrict access to only HTTPS traffic while blocking other ports that are not necessary according to the security policy.
Here’s why the other options are less suitable:
a. Application allow list: An application allow list typically specifies which applications are allowed to run on a system or network, rather than controlling which ports are open or closed. b. SWG (Secure Web Gateway): SWG is a security solution that provides visibility and control over web traffic, typically focusing on web content filtering, URL filtering, and malware protection. It does not directly control firewall rules on individual servers. d. VPN (Virtual Private Network): VPN provides secure access to a private network over a public network, but it does not control firewall rules on servers or restrict specific ports on individual servers.
A technician was dispatched to complete repairs on a server in a data center. While locating the server, the technician entered a restricted area without authorization. Which of the following security controls would BEST prevent this in the future?
a. Use appropriate signage to mark all areas.
b. Utilize cameras monitored by guards.
c. Implement access control vestibules.
d. Enforce escorts to monitor all visitors.
c. Implement access control vestibules
Access control vestibules are physical security measures designed to restrict access to sensitive areas. They typically consist of a small enclosed space with two sets of doors: one leading to the outside or less secure area, and another leading to the restricted area. Access is granted through electronic authentication (such as badge readers or biometric scanners) before the inner door is unlocked, ensuring only authorized individuals can proceed.
Here’s how the other options compare:
a. Use appropriate signage to mark all areas: While signage is important for indicating restricted areas, it alone may not prevent unauthorized access if someone disregards the signage. b. Utilize cameras monitored by guards: Cameras can provide surveillance and monitoring, but they are reactive and may not prevent unauthorized access in real-time. d. Enforce escorts to monitor all visitors: Escorts can accompany visitors to ensure they only access authorized areas, but this may not be practical for all situations and can be resource-intensive.
Which of the following would BEST provide a systems administrator with the ability to more efficiently identify systems and manage permissions and policies based on location, role, and service level?
a. Standard naming conventions
b. Domain services
c. Baseline configurations
d. Diagrams
b. Domain services
Explanation:
Domain services (such as Active Directory in Windows environments) provide centralized management of network resources, including user accounts, computers, groups, and policies. They allow administrators to implement and enforce security policies, manage permissions, and organize systems based on organizational units (OUs), which can reflect location, role, or service level.
Here’s how the other options compare:
a. Standard naming conventions: While important for consistency and organization, naming conventions alone do not provide the centralized management and policy enforcement capabilities that domain services offer. c. Baseline configurations: Baseline configurations help ensure that systems meet security and operational standards but do not inherently provide the ability to manage permissions and policies based on location, role, and service level. d. Diagrams: Diagrams (such as network diagrams or system architecture diagrams) provide visual representations of systems and networks but do not directly facilitate the management of permissions and policies.
Which of the following would detect intrusions at the perimeter of an airport?
a. Signage
b. Fencing
c. Motion sensors
d. Lighting
e. Bollards
c. Motion sensors
Explanation:
Motion sensors are designed to detect movement within their range. Placing motion sensors along the perimeter of an airport can help alert security personnel to any unauthorized attempts to breach the perimeter fence or other barriers.
Here’s how the other options compare:
a. Signage: While signage can indicate restricted areas and deter unauthorized access, it does not actively detect intrusions. b. Fencing: Fencing provides a physical barrier to restrict access but does not detect intrusions on its own. d. Lighting: Lighting enhances visibility and deters intrusions by making it harder for unauthorized individuals to approach undetected, but it does not detect intrusions in itself. e. Bollards: Bollards are used to restrict vehicle access and enhance security against vehicular attacks but do not detect intrusions at the perimeter.
A security analyst is concerned about critical vulnerabilities that have been detected on some applications running inside containers. Which of the following is the BEST remediation strategy?
a. Update the base container Image and redeploy the environment.
b. Include the containers in the regular patching schedule for servers.
c. Patch each running container individually and test the application.
d. Update the host in which the containers are running.
a. Update the base container image and redeploy the environment.
Explanation:
Updating the base container image: Containers are typically built from base images that include the operating system and necessary dependencies. If critical vulnerabilities are found in these base images, the first step is to update the base image to a version that includes patches for these vulnerabilities. Redeploy the environment: Once the base image is updated, the affected containers should be rebuilt using the patched base image and redeployed. This ensures that all containers running the vulnerable applications are replaced with new instances based on the updated image.
Here’s why the other options are less optimal:
b. Include the containers in the regular patching schedule for servers: While it's important to have a regular patching schedule for servers and their containers, critical vulnerabilities often require more immediate attention than waiting for the next scheduled patch cycle. c. Patch each running container individually and test the application: Patching each running container individually can be time-consuming and error-prone. It also may not address vulnerabilities in the base image or underlying dependencies. d. Update the host in which the containers are running: Updating the host is important for security but does not directly address vulnerabilities within the containers themselves.
An organization has decided to purchase an insurance policy because a risk assessment determined that the cost to remediate the risk is greater than the five- year cost of the insurance policy. The organization is enabling risk:
a. avoidance.
b. acceptance.
c. mitigation.
d. transference.
d. Transference
Explanation:
Transference: Transferring risk involves shifting the financial consequences of a risk to another party, typically through mechanisms such as insurance policies. By purchasing insurance, the organization transfers the potential costs of certain risks (such as financial losses due to specific events) to the insurance provider. This allows the organization to mitigate the financial impact of those risks while paying a predictable premium over time.
Here’s how the other options differ:
a. Avoidance: Avoidance involves taking actions to eliminate the risk entirely, such as ceasing certain activities or not pursuing certain projects to avoid potential risks. b. Acceptance: Acceptance involves acknowledging the existence of a risk and deciding not to take any proactive measures to mitigate or transfer it. The organization is willing to bear the potential consequences of the risk. c. Mitigation: Mitigation involves taking proactive measures to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. It typically involves implementing controls or safeguards to minimize the risk's effect.
A security analyst receives an alert from the company’s SIEM that anomalous activity is coming from a local source IP address of 192.168.34.26. The Chief Information Security Officer asks the analyst to block the originating source. Several days later, another employee opens an internal ticket stating that vulnerability scans are no longer being performed properly. The IP address the employee provides is 192.168.34.26. Which of the following describes this type of alert?
a. True negative
b. True positive
c. False positive
d. False negative
c. False positive
Explanation:
False positive: This occurs when a security system incorrectly identifies normal or benign activity as malicious or anomalous. In this case, the SIEM alert incorrectly flagged the legitimate vulnerability scans as anomalous activity, leading the analyst to block the IP address 192.168.34.26. This action resulted in a disruption of normal operations (vulnerability scans not being performed properly), which was an unintended consequence of responding to a false alert.
Here’s how the other options compare:
a. True negative: This would describe a situation where the security system correctly identifies normal activity as benign or not malicious. b. True positive: This would describe a situation where the security system correctly identifies malicious or anomalous activity as such. d. False negative: This would describe a situation where the security system fails to detect actual malicious activity, incorrectly identifying it as normal or benign.
A security analyst wants to reference a standard to develop a risk management program. Which of the following is the BEST source for the analyst to use?
a. SSAE SOC 2
b. ISO 31000
c. NIST CSF
d. GDPR
b. ISO 31000
ISO 31000 is an international standard that provides guidelines and principles for risk management. It offers a comprehensive framework that organizations can adapt to develop their risk management processes, including risk assessment, risk treatment, and risk communication.
Here’s why ISO 31000 is a strong choice:
Comprehensive framework: ISO 31000 provides a systematic approach to risk management that can be applied broadly across different types of risks and organizations. Internationally recognized: It is widely recognized and used globally, making it easier to communicate and align risk management practices across borders and industries. Flexibility: ISO 31000 is adaptable to various organizational contexts and can be integrated with other standards and frameworks.
While the other options also play important roles in security and privacy management, they are more specific to certain areas:
a. SSAE SOC 2: Focuses on controls relevant to security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy, primarily for service organizations. c. NIST CSF (Cybersecurity Framework): Developed by NIST, it focuses specifically on improving cybersecurity risk management for critical infrastructure sectors in the United States. d. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation): Focuses on data protection and privacy for individuals within the European Union and European Economic Area.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) requested a report on potential areas of improvement following a security incident. Which of the following incident response processes is the CISO requesting?
a. Lessons learned
b. Preparation
c. Detection
d. Containment
e. Root cause analysis
a. Lessons learned
Explanation:
Lessons learned: This process involves reviewing the incident response to identify strengths and weaknesses in the organization's response capabilities. It focuses on understanding what went well, what could have been improved, and recommendations for enhancing incident response procedures in the future.
Here’s how the other options relate to incident response processes:
b. Preparation: Refers to activities and measures taken before an incident occurs to enhance readiness, such as developing incident response plans and conducting training. c. Detection: Involves identifying and confirming that an incident has occurred or is in progress, often through monitoring and analysis of security alerts. d. Containment: Involves actions taken to limit the impact and spread of an incident once detected, aiming to prevent further damage or exposure. e. Root cause analysis: Focuses on determining the underlying cause or causes of an incident to prevent recurrence.
A company is providing security awareness training regarding the importance of not forwarding social media messages from unverified sources. Which of the following risks would this training help to prevent?
a. Hoaxes
b. SPIMs
c. Identity fraud
d. Credential harvesting
a. Hoaxes
Explanation:
Hoaxes: These are false messages or information spread with the intention to deceive or mislead recipients. They often propagate through social media platforms and messaging apps, relying on users forwarding them without verification. Hoaxes can cause confusion, panic, or unnecessary concern among users.
Here’s how the other options relate:
b. SPIMs (Spam over Instant Messaging): Refers to unsolicited messages sent over instant messaging platforms. While related to unwanted messages, SPIM typically involves spam rather than hoaxes. c. Identity fraud: Involves the theft of personal information to impersonate someone else for financial gain or other malicious purposes. While forwarding messages could potentially contribute to identity fraud indirectly (e.g., phishing attacks), it's not the primary risk addressed by avoiding forwarding hoaxes. d. Credential harvesting: Involves malicious attempts to obtain usernames, passwords, or other sensitive information from users. While forwarding messages could be a vector for spreading phishing attacks aimed at credential harvesting, it's not directly related to the act of forwarding hoaxes from unverified sources.
A security analyst is receiving numerous alerts reporting that the response time of an internet-facing application has been degraded. However, the internal network performance was not degraded. Which of the following MOST likely explains this behavior?
a. DNS poisoning
b. MAC flooding
c. DDoS attack
d. ARP poisoning
c. DDoS attack
Explanation:
DDoS attack (Distributed Denial of Service): This type of attack overwhelms a targeted system (in this case, the internet-facing application) with a flood of traffic or requests from multiple sources, aiming to exhaust its resources and make it inaccessible to legitimate users. DDoS attacks can cause significant degradation in the performance and availability of internet-facing services without necessarily impacting the internal network, which operates separately and may have different levels of resilience or protection.
Here’s how the other options compare:
a. DNS poisoning: Typically affects DNS resolution, redirecting users to malicious or incorrect IP addresses. It does not directly cause performance degradation in an application. b. MAC flooding: This attack floods the switch with packets, potentially causing it to enter into a fail-open mode, but it typically affects network devices rather than specific applications. d. ARP poisoning: Involves manipulation of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) cache entries to associate a malicious MAC address with an IP address, leading to traffic redirection. While it can cause network issues, it is not typically associated with application-specific performance degradation.
Which of the following will increase cryptographic security?
a. High data entropy
b. Algorithms that require less computing power
c. Longer key longevity
d. Hashing
a. High data entropy
Explanation:
High data entropy: Entropy in this context refers to randomness or unpredictability of data. Higher data entropy means that the data contains more randomness, making it harder for attackers to predict or analyze. Cryptographic algorithms rely on high entropy to ensure that encrypted data is secure and resistant to brute-force attacks.
Here’s how the other options relate:
b. Algorithms that require less computing power: While efficient algorithms are desirable for performance reasons, cryptographic strength is not solely determined by computational requirements. Strong cryptographic algorithms are designed to withstand attacks regardless of computational power. c. Longer key longevity: This refers to how long cryptographic keys remain valid or secure before needing to be updated or rotated. While longer key lengths are important for security, longevity itself does not directly increase cryptographic security beyond ensuring keys are not compromised over time. d. Hashing: Hashing is a cryptographic process that generates a fixed-size output (hash value) from input data. While important for data integrity and authentication, hashing alone does not provide encryption or directly increase cryptographic security in the context of encrypting data.
Which of the following statements BEST describes zero-day exploits?
a. When a zero-day exploit is discovered, the system cannot be protected by any means.
b. Zero-day exploits have their own scoring category in CVSS.
c. A zero-day exploit is initially undetectable, and no patch for it exists.
d. Discovering zero-day exploits is always performed via bug bounty programs.
c. A zero-day exploit is initially undetectable, and no patch for it exists.
Explanation:
Undetectable and no patch: A zero-day exploit refers to a vulnerability in software or hardware that is unknown to the vendor and for which no patch or fix is available. It is called "zero-day" because it occurs on the same day that the vulnerability is discovered by attackers, meaning the developers have zero days to fix it before it can potentially be exploited.
Here’s why the other options are less accurate:
a. When a zero-day exploit is discovered, the system cannot be protected by any means: While zero-day exploits are initially unknown and pose a significant risk, security measures such as intrusion detection systems and behavior analysis can sometimes mitigate their impact even before a patch is available. b. Zero-day exploits have their own scoring category in CVSS: While CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) includes metrics for assessing the severity of vulnerabilities, including those that are zero-day, the scoring itself is not specific to zero-day exploits as a category. d. Discovering zero-day exploits is always performed via bug bounty programs: Zero-day exploits can be discovered through various means, including security research, threat intelligence, and unfortunately, by malicious actors. Bug bounty programs are one method to incentivize researchers to responsibly disclose vulnerabilities, including zero-days, but they are not the sole source.
A company wants to restrict emailing of PHI documents. The company is implementing a DLP solution. In order to restrict PHI documents, which of the following should be performed FIRST?
a. Retention
b. Governance
c. Classification
d. Change management
c. Classification
Explanation:
Classification: This involves identifying and categorizing data based on its sensitivity and regulatory requirements. In the context of PHI documents, classification helps to distinguish which documents contain PHI and need to be protected. Once classified, appropriate policies and controls can be applied, including restrictions on emailing such documents.
Here’s why the other options are less suitable as the first step:
a. Retention: Refers to policies and practices related to storing and retaining data for a specified period. While retention policies are important, they come after classification and governance in the context of data protection. b. Governance: Involves establishing policies, procedures, and controls to manage and protect data. Governance frameworks help to ensure that data handling practices align with organizational goals and regulatory requirements. Governance typically builds upon classification to enforce policies effectively. d. Change management: Involves processes and procedures for managing changes to systems, processes, or policies. While important for implementing DLP solutions, change management is typically part of the broader implementation process after classification and governance are established.
A security analyst is investigating some users who are being redirected to a fake website that resembles www.comptia.org. The following output was found on the naming server of the organization:
Name Type Data
www A 192,168.1.10
server1 A 10.10.10.10
server2 A 10.10.10.11
file A 10.10.10.12
Which of the following attacks has taken place?
a. Domain reputation
b. Domain hijacking
d. Disassociation
d. DNS poisoning
d. DNS poisoning
Explanation:
DNS poisoning: Also known as DNS spoofing or DNS cache poisoning, this attack involves compromising the Domain Name System (DNS) to redirect domain name resolutions to malicious IP addresses. In this scenario:
The legitimate domain www.comptia.org has its DNS record (www) pointing to an IP address of 192.168.1.10.
However, users are being redirected to a fake website that resembles www.comptia.org, indicating that the DNS records have been maliciously altered.
This alteration could be achieved through various means, such as compromising the organization's DNS server or using techniques to inject false DNS records (poisoning) into the DNS cache of intermediate DNS servers.
Let’s address why the other options are incorrect:
a. Domain reputation: This term typically refers to the trustworthiness and reliability of a domain in the context of email deliverability and reputation management. It is not directly related to DNS attacks. b. Domain hijacking: Refers to unauthorized changes made to the registration of a domain name, often to redirect traffic or gain control over the domain. While related to DNS manipulation, it typically involves administrative control rather than DNS record alteration directly. c. Disassociation: This term does not have a specific security context related to DNS attacks. It generally means the act of disconnecting or separating something.
Which of the following describes the continuous delivery software development methodology?
a. Waterfall
b. Spiral
c. V-shaped
d. Agile
d. Agile
Explanation:
Continuous delivery: This methodology focuses on automating and streamlining the software delivery process to enable frequent and reliable releases of software into production. It emphasizes shorter development cycles, continuous integration, and continuous deployment, where software changes are delivered frequently (often daily) and reliably.
Here’s how the other options relate:
a. Waterfall: A traditional software development methodology characterized by sequential phases (requirements, design, implementation, testing, deployment) where each phase must be completed before the next begins. It does not support continuous delivery. b. Spiral: An iterative software development methodology where development cycles progress through planning, risk analysis, engineering, and evaluation. It focuses on risk management but does not inherently support continuous delivery. c. V-shaped: Also known as the V-model, it is a sequential software development model where testing is emphasized in parallel with each stage of development. It does not inherently support continuous delivery.
Which of the following is the BEST example of a cost-effective physical control to enforce a USB removable media restriction policy?
a. Putting security/antitamper tape over USB ports, logging the port numbers, and regularly inspecting the ports
b. Implementing a GPO that will restrict access to authorized USB removable media and regularly verifying that it is enforced
c. Placing systems into locked, key-controlled containers with no access to the USB ports
d. Installing an endpoint agent to detect connectivity of USB and removable media
(Community A57%, B 31%)
a. Putting security/antitamper tape over USB ports, logging the port numbers, and regularly inspecting the ports
Explanation:
This option involves a physical method that is cost-effective and straightforward to implement. It does not require additional software or complex configuration and provides a clear visual indication if someone has attempted to use a USB port. Regular inspections can ensure compliance with the USB removable media restriction policy.
Why other options may be less suitable:
Implementing a GPO that will restrict access to authorized USB removable media and regularly verifying that it is enforced: While this is an effective software-based control, it is not a physical control. Additionally, managing and verifying GPO enforcement can be time-consuming and may require more resources compared to physical methods. Placing systems into locked, key-controlled containers with no access to the USB ports: This method is a strong physical control but may not be cost-effective, especially for a large number of systems. It also reduces the accessibility and usability of the systems. Installing an endpoint agent to detect connectivity of USB and removable media: This option involves a software-based control that can be effective but might not be considered a physical control. It may also involve additional costs for software licenses and management.
Thus, putting security/antitamper tape over USB ports, logging the port numbers, and regularly inspecting the ports is the best example of a cost-effective physical control to enforce a USB removable media restriction policy.
(Braindump) b. Implementing a GPO that will restrict access to authorized USB removable media and regularly verifying that it is enforced
A company suspects that some corporate accounts were compromised. The number of suspicious logins from locations not recognized by the users is increasing.
Employees who travel need their accounts protected without the risk of blocking legitimate login requests that may be made over new sign-in properties. Which of the following security controls can be implemented?
a. Enforce MFA when an account request reaches a risk threshold.
b. Implement geofencing to only allow access from headquarters.
c. Enforce time-based login requests that align with business hours.
d. Shift the access control scheme to a discretionary access control.
a. Enforce MFA when an account request reaches a risk threshold.
Explanation:
Enforcing MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication): By implementing MFA, especially when an account request reaches a risk threshold (such as suspicious login attempts from unrecognized locations), the system adds an additional layer of security beyond just a username and password. This helps verify the identity of the user more securely, even if the credentials have been compromised. Legitimate users, including traveling employees accessing from new locations, can still authenticate using MFA, ensuring security while maintaining usability.
Here’s why the other options may not be as effective:
b. Implement geofencing to only allow access from headquarters: While geofencing restricts access based on geographic location, it can be overly restrictive for legitimate users who may need to access accounts from various locations during travel. It does not dynamically adjust to new sign-in locations and may hinder legitimate access. c. Enforce time-based login requests that align with business hours: This control limits access based on time of day, which may not be flexible enough for employees who work outside regular business hours or travel across time zones. d. Shift the access control scheme to a discretionary access control: This refers to a different access control model that grants users discretion over access permissions, which does not directly address the issue of compromised accounts and suspicious logins.
An organization wants to participate in threat intelligence information sharing with peer groups. Which of the following would MOST likely meet the organization’s requirement?
a. Perform OSINT investigations.
b. Subscribe to threat intelligence feeds.
c. Submit RFCs.
d. Implement a TAXII server.
d. Implement a TAXII server.
Explanation:
TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information): TAXII is a protocol designed to facilitate the sharing of threat intelligence. It enables organizations to exchange cyber threat information in a structured and automated manner. Organizations can publish threat intelligence data to a TAXII server and subscribe to feeds from other organizations or peer groups. This allows for real-time or near-real-time sharing of threat indicators, such as malicious IP addresses, domain names, and malware signatures.
Here’s why the other options are less likely to meet the requirement:
a. Perform OSINT (Open Source Intelligence) investigations: OSINT involves gathering information from publicly available sources. While it can provide valuable threat intelligence, it is not specifically designed for structured information sharing with peer groups. b. Subscribe to threat intelligence feeds: Subscribing to threat intelligence feeds is beneficial for receiving updated information about threats, but it is a passive approach compared to actively participating in information sharing through a dedicated protocol like TAXII. c. Submit RFCs (Request for Comments): RFCs are documents that describe new protocols or protocols that need to be updated. They are not directly related to threat intelligence sharing with peer groups.
Which of the following is the MOST effective control against zero-day vulnerabilities?
a. Network segmentation
b. Patch management
c. Intrusion prevention system
d. Multiple vulnerability scanners
b. Patch management
Explanation:
Patch management: Zero-day vulnerabilities are security flaws that are unknown to the software vendor and therefore do not have a patch available to fix them. Patch management involves regularly updating and applying patches to software and systems as soon as patches become available. While patch management cannot prevent zero-day vulnerabilities from being exploited initially, it is crucial because once a patch is released for a zero-day vulnerability, applying it promptly can mitigate the risk of exploitation.
Here’s why the other options are less effective against zero-day vulnerabilities:
a. Network segmentation: While network segmentation helps contain and mitigate the impact of security incidents, including those exploiting zero-day vulnerabilities, it does not directly address the vulnerability itself. c. Intrusion prevention system (IPS): IPS can detect and block known attacks based on signatures or behavioral anomalies but may not detect or prevent zero-day exploits until signatures or detection mechanisms are updated. d. Multiple vulnerability scanners: While using multiple vulnerability scanners can enhance visibility into potential vulnerabilities, including zero-day vulnerabilities, it relies on the scanners having updated signatures or detection capabilities to identify zero-day exploits, which may not always be the case.
Which of the following is the GREATEST security concern when outsourcing code development to third-party contractors for an internet-facing application?
a. Intellectual property theft
b. Elevated privileges
c. Unknown backdoor
d. Quality assurance
c. Unknown backdoor
Explanation:
An unknown backdoor is a significant security risk because it can provide unauthorized access to the application and potentially the entire network. If a third-party contractor inserts a backdoor into the code, it can be exploited by malicious actors to bypass authentication mechanisms, steal data, or execute further attacks. This kind of vulnerability is particularly dangerous because it can go undetected for a long time, compromising the security of the application and its users.
Other Options:
a. Intellectual property theft: While serious, this concern primarily affects the ownership and competitive advantage of the company rather than the immediate security of the application. b. Elevated privileges: This is a concern, but it can be mitigated through proper access control and monitoring. d. Quality assurance: Ensuring high-quality code is important, but security risks from poor quality can be managed through thorough testing and code review processes.
Therefore, the possibility of an unknown backdoor being inserted into the code poses the greatest security risk when outsourcing code development for an internet-facing application.
An organization has hired a red team to simulate attacks on its security posture. Which of the following will the blue team do after detecting an IoC?
a. Reimage the impacted workstations.
b. Activate runbooks for incident response.
c. Conduct forensics on the compromised system.
d. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information.
b. Activate runbooks for incident response.
Explanation:
Activate runbooks for incident response: Upon detecting an IoC, the blue team will initiate predefined procedures outlined in their incident response plan (runbooks). These procedures are designed to handle security incidents effectively, including containing the threat, investigating the scope of the compromise, mitigating further damage, and restoring affected systems.
Here’s why the other options are less likely to be the immediate response:
a. Reimage the impacted workstations: Reimaging workstations may be part of the incident response process, especially if the compromise is severe, but it typically comes after initial containment and investigation steps. c. Conduct forensics on the compromised system: Forensic analysis is important for understanding how the compromise occurred and gathering evidence for potential legal or compliance purposes. However, it is usually conducted after containing the incident to prevent further damage. d. Conduct passive reconnaissance to gather information: Passive reconnaissance is typically done as part of proactive security measures or during the initial stages of threat hunting, not immediately after detecting an IoC.
An amusement park is implementing a biometric system that validates customers’ fingerprints to ensure they are not sharing tickets. The park’s owner values customers above all and would prefer customers’ convenience over security. For this reason, which of the following features should the security team prioritize
FIRST?
a. Low FAR
b. Low efficacy
c. Low FRR
d. Low CER
c. Low FRR (False Rejection Rate)
Explanation:
False Rejection Rate (FRR): This metric indicates the rate at which the biometric system incorrectly rejects valid attempts by customers. In other words, it measures how often legitimate customers are not recognized by the system, potentially causing inconvenience and frustration. For an amusement park focusing on customer convenience, minimizing the FRR is crucial to ensure that customers can quickly and reliably access the park using their fingerprints without encountering frequent rejections.
Here’s why the other options are not as suitable in this scenario:
a. Low FAR (False Acceptance Rate): While a low FAR is important for security reasons (to prevent unauthorized access), prioritizing it over customer convenience might lead to more stringent authentication requirements, which could increase the likelihood of legitimate customers being falsely accused of sharing tickets. b. Low efficacy: Efficacy typically refers to the overall effectiveness of the biometric system in correctly identifying users. Prioritizing low efficacy would mean the system is less accurate in general, which is counterproductive for both security and convenience. d. Low CER (Crossover Error Rate): CER is the point where the FAR and FRR are equal. While CER is an important metric in biometric system evaluation, it doesn't directly address the immediate concern of customer convenience in this context.
Which of the following organizations sets frameworks and controls for optimal security configuration on systems?
a. ISO
b. GDPR
c. PCI DSS
d. NIST
d. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology)
Explanation:
NIST: NIST is a non-regulatory federal agency within the United States Department of Commerce. It develops and publishes standards, guidelines, and best practices for various areas, including cybersecurity and information security. Specifically, NIST Special Publication 800-53 provides a comprehensive set of security controls for federal information systems and organizations that need to adhere to federal regulations and guidelines.
Here’s a brief overview of the other options:
a. ISO (International Organization for Standardization): ISO publishes various standards, including those related to information security (e.g., ISO/IEC 27001), but it does not specifically focus on setting detailed frameworks and controls for optimal security configuration on systems. b. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation): GDPR is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area. It primarily focuses on personal data protection and privacy, not on security configuration standards for systems. c. PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): PCI DSS is a set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store, or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment. While it includes specific requirements for securing systems that handle payment card information, it does not cover all aspects of general security configuration for systems.
An organization discovered files with proprietary financial data have been deleted. The files have been recovered from backup, but every time the Chief Financial Officer logs in to the file server, the same files are deleted again. No other users are experiencing this issue. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this behavior?
a. Logic bomb
b. Cryptomalware
c. Spyware
d. Remote access Trojan
a. Logic bomb
Explanation:
Logic bomb: A logic bomb is a type of malware that is typically set to execute or trigger upon a specific condition or event. In this case, it appears to trigger whenever the Chief Financial Officer logs in to the file server. The logic bomb could be programmed to delete specific files each time this event occurs, which explains why the files keep getting deleted even after they are restored from backup.
Here’s why the other options are less likely:
b. Cryptomalware: Cryptomalware (or ransomware) typically encrypts files to extort money from victims, rather than simply deleting them repeatedly. It doesn't usually target specific files repeatedly after restoration. c. Spyware: Spyware is designed to gather information covertly and send it to an external entity. It is not typically associated with behavior where files are deleted upon a specific user's login. d. Remote access Trojan (RAT): RATs provide unauthorized remote access to a computer system. While they can be used to perform various malicious actions, including file manipulation, the scenario described (specific files being deleted upon the CFO's login) aligns more closely with the characteristics of a logic bomb.
A security analyst has identified malware spreading through the corporate network and has activated the CSIRT. Which of the following should the analyst do NEXT?
a. Review how the malware was introduced to the network.
b. Attempt to quarantine all infected hosts to limit further spread.
c. Create help desk tickets to get infected systems reimaged.
d. Update all endpoint antivirus solutions with the latest updates.
b. Attempt to quarantine all infected hosts to limit further spread.
Explanation:
Quarantine infected hosts: This step is crucial to prevent the malware from spreading further within the network. By isolating or quarantining infected hosts, the analyst can contain the impact and prevent the malware from infecting additional systems or accessing sensitive data.
Here’s why the other options are not the immediate next step:
a. Review how the malware was introduced to the network: While investigating the initial infection vector is important for understanding the attack's root cause and preventing future incidents, it is not the immediate action needed to mitigate the current spread of the malware. c. Create help desk tickets to get infected systems reimaged: Reimaging infected systems is part of the remediation process, but it should follow containment efforts. Reimaging typically requires coordination and verification, which may take time and should not delay containment efforts. d. Update all endpoint antivirus solutions with the latest updates: Updating antivirus solutions is important for improving detection and prevention capabilities against known threats. However, during an active malware outbreak, containing the spread takes priority over updating antivirus signatures.
During an incident response, an analyst applied rules to all inbound traffic on the border firewall and implemented ACLs on each critical server. Following an investigation, the company realizes it is still vulnerable because outbound traffic is not restricted, and the adversary is able to maintain a presence in the network.
In which of the following stages of the Cyber Kill Chain is the adversary currently operating?
a. Reconnaissance
b. Command and control
c. Actions on objective
d. Exploitation
b. Command and control
Explanation:
Command and control (C2): In the Cyber Kill Chain, the command and control phase involves the adversary establishing communication channels and maintaining control over compromised systems within the network. Even though inbound traffic rules and server ACLs were implemented to defend against initial intrusion attempts (which would typically fall under exploitation), the fact that the adversary still maintains a presence suggests they have successfully established control mechanisms to communicate outbound from compromised systems back to their command infrastructure.
Here’s why the other options are not correct in this context:
a. Reconnaissance: Reconnaissance involves gathering information about the target network and identifying potential vulnerabilities or entry points. While reconnaissance precedes exploitation, the scenario describes a situation where the adversary has already breached the network and is actively maintaining control. c. Actions on objective: Actions on objective involve the adversary achieving their goals, such as exfiltrating data or disrupting operations. While the adversary may eventually progress to this stage, the scenario indicates that they are currently focused on maintaining their presence through command and control. d. Exploitation: Exploitation involves the initial compromise of systems or networks. While this may have occurred earlier in the attack lifecycle, the current focus is on the ongoing control and persistence within the network, which aligns more closely with the command and control phase.
A recent security breach exploited software vulnerabilities in the firewall and within the network management solution. Which of the following will MOST likely be used to identify when the breach occurred through each device?
a. SIEM correlation dashboards
b. Firewall syslog event logs
c. Network management solution login audit logs
d. Bandwidth monitors and interface sensors
a. SIEM correlation dashboards
Explanation:
SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) correlation dashboards: SIEM systems collect and correlate logs from various sources, including firewalls and network management solutions. They provide a centralized platform to analyze and correlate events across the network and security infrastructure. In the context of a security breach that exploited vulnerabilities in these devices, SIEM correlation dashboards can help identify suspicious activities, anomalies, or specific events that indicate the breach.
Here’s why the other options are less likely to be used for identifying when the breach occurred:
b. Firewall syslog event logs: Firewall syslog event logs are useful for monitoring and analyzing firewall activities, such as traffic allowed or denied, but they may not provide comprehensive visibility into broader network management vulnerabilities or correlated events across different devices. c. Network management solution login audit logs: While login audit logs from the network management solution are important for tracking user access and activities within the management system, they may not directly correlate with the exploitation of vulnerabilities in the firewall or network devices themselves. d. Bandwidth monitors and interface sensors: Bandwidth monitors and interface sensors primarily monitor network traffic and performance metrics, such as bandwidth utilization and interface status. They are useful for network performance monitoring but typically do not provide the detailed event data needed to identify specific software vulnerabilities being exploited.
Which of the following is the FIRST environment in which proper, secure coding should be practiced?
a. Stage
b. Development
c. Production
d. Test
b. Development
Explanation:
Development: Secure coding practices should be integrated into the development phase of software or application lifecycle. This ensures that security considerations are addressed from the beginning of the development process. Developers should follow secure coding guidelines and practices to minimize vulnerabilities and reduce the risk of introducing security flaws into the software.
Here’s why the other options are less suitable:
a. Stage: The stage environment typically comes after development and is used for testing the application in an environment that closely mirrors production. While security testing and validation should occur in stage environments, secure coding practices should ideally be implemented earlier during development. c. Production: Production environments are where the live application or software is deployed and used by end-users. Secure coding practices should ideally prevent vulnerabilities from reaching production, as addressing security flaws at this stage can be more costly and risky. d. Test: While testing is crucial for identifying and validating software functionality and security, including security testing (e.g., penetration testing, vulnerability scanning), secure coding should ideally be applied during development to prevent vulnerabilities from being introduced in the first place.
A cloud service provider has created an environment where customers can connect existing local networks to the cloud for additional computing resources and block internal HR applications from reaching the cloud. Which of the following cloud models is being used?
a. Public
b. Community
c. Hybrid
d. Private
c. Hybrid
Explanation:
Hybrid cloud: In a hybrid cloud environment, organizations integrate their on-premises infrastructure (local networks in this case) with cloud services, allowing them to extend their capabilities and leverage cloud resources while maintaining control over sensitive data or applications that need to remain on-premises. In this scenario, the organization is selectively choosing which applications (in this case, internal HR applications) are allowed to access the cloud resources.
Here’s why the other options are not correct:
a. Public cloud: A public cloud model involves cloud services provided over the public internet, where resources are shared among multiple customers. It does not typically involve direct integration with on-premises networks or the ability to selectively block specific applications from accessing cloud resources. b. Community cloud: A community cloud is a cloud infrastructure shared by several organizations with similar computing concerns (e.g., regulatory requirements). It does not inherently involve integration with existing on-premises networks as described in the scenario. d. Private cloud: A private cloud is dedicated to a single organization and can be located on-premises or off-premises. While it offers more control and security, it does not typically involve the integration of existing local networks with external cloud resources as described in the scenario.
An organization has developed an application that needs a patch to fix a critical vulnerability. In which of the following environments should the patch be deployed LAST?
a. Test
b. Staging
c. Development
d. Production
d. Production environment.
Explanation:
Production: The production environment is where the live application or software is accessed and used by end-users. Deploying patches directly to production without adequate testing in lower environments (such as test, staging, and development) can pose significant risks. These risks include introducing new issues, disrupting service availability, or causing downtime for users.
Here’s why the other options are not correct:
a. Test: The test environment is used to conduct functional testing, integration testing, and security testing of the application. Patches are typically deployed here first to verify that they do not introduce new issues or conflicts with existing functionality. b. Staging: The staging environment closely mirrors the production environment and is used for final testing before deployment to production. Patches are deployed here to validate their effectiveness and ensure they do not cause issues when applied to the actual production environment. c. Development: The development environment is where changes to the application are initially made and tested by developers. Patches may be developed and tested here first, but they should undergo thorough testing in higher environments (test, staging) before being deployed to production.
An organization is building backup server rooms in geographically diverse locations. The Chief Information Security Officer implemented a requirement on the project that states the new hardware cannot be susceptible to the same vulnerabilities in the existing server room. Which of the following should the systems engineer consider?
a. Purchasing hardware from different vendors
b. Migrating workloads to public cloud infrastructure
c. Implementing a robust patch management solution
d. Designing new detective security controls
d. Designing new detective security controls
Explanation:
Detective security controls: These controls are designed to detect and alert on security incidents or potential vulnerabilities in real-time or near real-time. By implementing new detective controls in the backup server rooms, the organization can enhance its ability to monitor and respond to threats effectively.
Here’s why the other options may not fully address the requirement:
a. Purchasing hardware from different vendors: While diversifying vendors can reduce the risk of vulnerabilities common to specific manufacturers, it does not guarantee protection against all vulnerabilities. Moreover, vulnerabilities can exist across different vendors depending on their product design and implementation. b. Migrating workloads to public cloud infrastructure: While the public cloud can provide enhanced security features, it introduces new security considerations and may not directly address vulnerabilities in the organization's physical server rooms. c. Implementing a robust patch management solution: Patch management is crucial for mitigating vulnerabilities, but it addresses vulnerabilities that are already known and for which patches are available. It does not prevent the initial exploitation of vulnerabilities or address unknown vulnerabilities.
(Braindump) a. Purchasing hardware from different vendors
A security analyst is working on a project to implement a solution that monitors network communications and provides alerts when abnormal behavior is detected.
Which of the following is the security analyst MOST likely implementing?
a. Vulnerability scans
b. User behavior analysis
c. Security orchestration, automation, and response
d. Threat hunting
b. User behavior analysis
Explanation:
User behavior analysis: This involves monitoring and analyzing patterns of user activity across the network to detect deviations from normal behavior. The goal is to identify potential security incidents or insider threats based on unusual actions or access patterns.
Here’s why the other options are less likely:
a. Vulnerability scans: Vulnerability scans are automated processes to identify weaknesses in systems, applications, or networks. They focus on identifying known vulnerabilities rather than detecting abnormal behavior in real-time. c. Security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR): SOAR platforms integrate security tools and automate incident response workflows. While SOAR can include monitoring capabilities, it primarily focuses on automation and orchestration of response activities rather than detecting abnormal behavior. d. Threat hunting: Threat hunting involves proactive and iterative searching for threats within an environment based on indicators of compromise (IoCs) and knowledge of attacker tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs). It is more focused on actively seeking out threats rather than monitoring for abnormal behavior passively.
Data exfiltration analysis indicates that an attacker managed to download system configuration notes from a web server. The web-server logs have been deleted, but analysts have determined that the system configuration notes were stored in the database administrator’s folder on the web server. Which of the following attacks explains what occurred? (Choose two.)
a. Pass-the-hash
b. Directory traversal
c. SQL injection
d. Privilege escalation
e. Cross-site scripting
f. Request forgery
b. Directory traversal
d. Privilege escalation
Here’s the reasoning:
Directory Traversal:
This attack involves navigating through directories in a file system to access files and directories that are outside the web root directory. In this case, it explains how the attacker could access the database administrator's folder on the web server, which should not have been directly accessible through the web server.
Privilege Escalation:
This attack involves gaining elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user. In this scenario, the attacker may have used privilege escalation to gain the necessary permissions to access or download the system configuration notes from the database administrator's folder.
The other options are less likely to explain this specific incident:
Pass-the-hash: This is a network attack where an attacker captures a password hash and reuses it to authenticate as the user. It doesn't directly explain accessing specific files on a web server. SQL injection: While this could be used to manipulate a database, it doesn't directly explain accessing files stored in a directory structure on the web server. Cross-site scripting (XSS): This is a client-side attack that targets users of a web application, not the server's file system. Request forgery: This involves tricking a user into making unwanted requests. It doesn't directly explain how the attacker accessed specific files on the web server.
A junior security analyst is conducting an analysis after passwords were changed on multiple accounts without users’ interaction. The SIEM have multiple login entries with the following text:
suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks successfully authenticate on AD on abnormal time suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks failed to execute c:\weekly_checkups\amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks failed to execute c:\weekly_checkups\secureyourAD-3rdparty-compliance.sh suspicious event - user: scheduledtasks successfully executed c:\weekly_checkups\amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py
Which of the following is the MOST likely attack conducted on the environment?
a. Malicious script
b. Privilege escalation
c. Domain hijacking
d. DNS poisoning
a. Malicious script
Explanation:
The events indicate that a user named scheduledtasks successfully authenticated on Active Directory (AD) at abnormal times, which suggests unauthorized access or misuse of credentials associated with a scheduled task. There are failed attempts to execute scripts (amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py and secureyourAD-3rdparty-compliance.sh) from a directory (c:\weekly_checkups\), indicating attempts to run potentially malicious scripts on the system. Finally, there is a successful execution of the amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py script by the scheduledtasks user, which implies that a malicious script was successfully executed on the system.
Based on these indicators, the events point towards an attack where an unauthorized user or process (scheduledtasks) gained access to the system, likely through compromised credentials or a vulnerability, and executed malicious scripts (amazing-3rdparty-domain-assessment.py) as part of their attack.
A customer service representative reported an unusual text message that was sent to the help desk. The message contained an unrecognized invoice number with a large balance due and a link to click for more details. Which of the following BEST describes this technique?
a. Vishing
b. Whaling
c. Phishing
d. Smishing
d. Smishing
Explanation:
Smishing (SMS phishing) is a type of phishing attack where attackers use SMS (text messages) to deceive victims into providing sensitive information or clicking on malicious links. In this case, the text message containing an unrecognized invoice number and a link to click for more details is an attempt to trick the recipient into visiting a malicious website or downloading malware onto their device. Phishing typically refers to email-based attacks that aim to deceive users into disclosing personal information, clicking on malicious links, or downloading attachments that contain malware. Vishing (Voice phishing) involves attackers using voice communication (phone calls) to deceive individuals into revealing sensitive information. Whaling targets high-profile individuals or executives within an organization, attempting to trick them into revealing sensitive information or authorizing fraudulent transactions.
Which of the following actions would be recommended to improve an incident response process?
a. Train the team to identify the difference between events and incidents.
b. Modify access so the IT team has full access to the compromised assets.
c. Contact the authorities if a cybercrime is suspected.
d. Restrict communication surrounding the response to the IT team.
a. Train the team to identify the difference between events and incidents.
Explanation:
Incident response effectiveness often hinges on the ability of the team to quickly identify and prioritize incidents from normal events. Training team members to distinguish between events (which are regular occurrences in IT operations) and incidents (which are security breaches or potential security breaches) is crucial. This training helps in promptly identifying incidents that require immediate action, thereby reducing response times and minimizing potential damage from security breaches.
Option b, modifying access for the IT team to have full access to compromised assets, could potentially be necessary during incident response but is not a broad recommendation for improving the entire process.
Option c, contacting authorities if cybercrime is suspected, is a specific step that may be part of incident response but doesn’t encompass the whole process.
Option d, restricting communication surrounding the response to the IT team, goes against best practices of incident response, which often involve cross-functional teams and communication with various stakeholders.
A cybersecurity administrator needs to implement a Layer 7 security control on a network and block potential attacks. Which of the following can block an attack at Layer 7? (Choose two.)
a. HIDS
b. NIPS
c. HSM
d. WAF
e. NAC
f. NIDS
b. NIPS (Network-based Intrusion Prevention System)
d. WAF (Web Application Firewall)
Here’s why:
NIPS (Network-based Intrusion Prevention System):
A NIPS can analyze network traffic and block malicious activities at various layers, including Layer 7. It can detect and prevent attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other web application attacks.
WAF (Web Application Firewall):
A WAF specifically focuses on monitoring, filtering, and blocking HTTP/HTTPS traffic to and from a web application. It operates at Layer 7 and is designed to protect web applications by detecting and blocking attacks like SQL injection, XSS, and other web-based threats.
The other options do not operate at Layer 7 in a manner that allows them to block attacks:
HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System): Detects suspicious activity on a specific host but does not block Layer 7 attacks. HSM (Hardware Security Module): Manages digital keys and performs cryptographic operations, not related to blocking Layer 7 attacks. NAC (Network Access Control): Controls access to the network but does not specifically block Layer 7 attacks. NIDS (Network-based Intrusion Detection System): Monitors network traffic for suspicious activity but does not block attacks, and its focus is not specifically on Layer 7.
A business operations manager is concerned that a PC that is critical to business operations will have a costly hardware failure soon. The manager is looking for options to continue business operations without incurring large costs. Which of the following would mitigate the manager’s concerns?
a. Implement a full system upgrade.
b. Perform a physical-to-virtual migration.
c. Install uninterruptible power supplies.
d. Purchase cybersecurity insurance.
b. Perform a physical-to-virtual migration.
Here’s why:
Cost-Effective: Physical-to-virtual (P2V) migration allows the business to continue using the existing system by running it as a virtual machine (VM) on more reliable hardware, often without the need to purchase new physical hardware immediately. Business Continuity: Virtual machines can be easily backed up, replicated, and moved to different hosts, ensuring business operations can continue seamlessly even if there is a hardware failure. Scalability and Flexibility: Virtual environments can be adjusted more easily to changing business needs compared to physical hardware.
The other options are less suitable for this specific concern:
Implement a full system upgrade: This could be costly and might not be necessary if the main concern is the hardware reliability of a single PC. Install uninterruptible power supplies (UPS): This addresses power-related issues, not hardware failures. Purchase cybersecurity insurance: This would help mitigate financial losses due to cyber incidents but does not address the concern of hardware failure directly.
An organization has activated an incident response plan due to a malware outbreak on its network. The organization has brought in a forensics team that has identified an internet-facing Windows server as the likely point of initial compromise. The malware family that was detected is known to be distributed by manually logging on to servers and running the malicious code. Which of the following actions would be BEST to prevent reinfection from the infection vector?
a. Prevent connections over TFTP from the internal network.
b. Create a firewall rule that blocks a 22 from the internet to the server.
c. Disable file sharing over port 445 to the server.
d. Block port 3389 inbound from untrusted networks.
d. Block port 3389 inbound from untrusted networks.
The SMB Protocol (in all its version) doesn’t provide functionality to execute files at the remote systems. Its main objective is to support the sharing of file and print resource between machines.
The only feasible option left is logging through RDP and manually executing the file.
Which of the following uses SAML for authentication?
a. TOTP
b. Federation
c. Kerberos
d. HOTP
b. Federation
Explanation: Federation often uses Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) for authentication. SAML is an open standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, particularly between an identity provider and a service provider, which is a key aspect of federated identity management.
The SOC for a large MSSP is meeting to discuss the lessons learned from a recent incident that took much too long to resolve. This type of incident has become more common in recent weeks and is consuming large amounts of the analysts’ time due to manual tasks being performed. Which of the following solutions should the SOC consider to BEST improve its response time?
a. Configure a NIDS appliance using a Switched Port Analyzer.
b. Collect OSINT and catalog the artifacts in a central repository.
c. Implement a SOAR with customizable playbooks.
d. Install a SIEM with community-driven threat intelligence.
c. Implement a SOAR with customizable playbooks.
Here’s why SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) with customizable playbooks is the most appropriate choice:
Automation: SOAR platforms enable automation of repetitive tasks and workflows in incident response. This can significantly reduce the time analysts spend on manual tasks such as data enrichment, response coordination, and remediation actions. Customizable Playbooks: SOAR platforms allow organizations to create and customize playbooks tailored to their specific incident response processes and workflows. Analysts can define automated actions based on predefined conditions and responses, ensuring consistent and efficient handling of incidents. Integration: SOAR platforms integrate with various security tools, allowing seamless communication and automated response across the security infrastructure. This integration further enhances the efficiency of incident response operations.
In contrast, let’s briefly review why the other options are less suitable:
a. Configure a NIDS appliance using a Switched Port Analyzer: While network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are important for detecting network-based attacks, configuring them using a Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN) focuses on monitoring network traffic. This does not directly address the need for automation and response orchestration.
b. Collect OSINT and catalog the artifacts in a central repository: Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) gathering and artifact cataloging are valuable for threat intelligence and analysis, but they do not directly improve incident response time, especially in terms of automation and process efficiency.
d. Install a SIEM with community-driven threat intelligence: SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) systems are crucial for centralized logging and correlation of security events. While they provide insights into security incidents, they do not inherently automate incident response processes like a SOAR platform does.
Business partners are working on a security mechanism to validate transactions securely. The requirement is for one company to be responsible for deploying a trusted solution that will register and issue artifacts used to sign, encrypt, and decrypt transaction files. Which of the following is the BEST solution to adopt?
a. PKI
b. Blockchain
c. SAML
d. OAuth
a. PKI (Public Key Infrastructure)
Here’s why PKI is the best choice:
Secure Transaction Signing: PKI provides a robust framework for managing digital certificates and keys, which are essential for securely signing, encrypting, and decrypting transaction files. Certificate Authority (CA): PKI involves a hierarchical system where a trusted Certificate Authority (CA) issues digital certificates that validate the identity of entities (such as business partners) and bind their public keys to their identities. This ensures the authenticity and integrity of transactions. Encryption and Decryption: PKI supports asymmetric encryption, where entities have a public-private key pair. This allows for secure encryption of transaction data using the recipient's public key and decryption using their private key, ensuring confidentiality. Non-repudiation: PKI enables digital signatures, which provide non-repudiation by linking the identity of the signer to the signed data, preventing the signer from later denying involvement.
In contrast, let’s briefly discuss why the other options are less suitable:
b. Blockchain: While blockchain technology provides decentralized and tamper-resistant transaction records, it is more commonly used for distributed ledger purposes rather than issuing digital certificates and managing keys for encryption.
c. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): SAML is primarily used for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, typically in web-based single sign-on (SSO) scenarios. It is not designed for managing keys or issuing certificates for transaction signing.
d. OAuth (Open Authorization): OAuth is an authorization framework that allows third-party applications to access resources without sharing credentials. It is used for access delegation rather than transaction signing and encryption.
A security analyst has been asked by the Chief Information Security Officer to:
-develop a secure method of providing centralized management of infrastructure
-reduce the need to constantly replace aging end user machines
-provide a consistent user desktop experience
Which of the following BEST meets these requirements?
a. BYOD
b. Mobile device management
c. VDI
d. Containerization
c. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)
Here’s why VDI is the appropriate choice:
Centralized Management: VDI allows for centralized management of virtual desktops from a single location. IT administrators can manage and update virtual desktop images and applications centrally, ensuring security configurations are consistent across all virtual desktop instances. Extend the Life of End User Machines: With VDI, end user devices (like desktops or laptops) primarily serve as thin clients, meaning they require less processing power and storage since most computing occurs on the virtual desktop server. This reduces the need for frequent hardware upgrades or replacements of end user machines. Consistent User Desktop Experience: VDI provides a consistent desktop environment to users regardless of the device they are using to access their virtual desktop. Users can access their desktop and applications from any device with an internet connection, ensuring a uniform user experience.
On the other hand, let’s briefly discuss why the other options are less suitable:
a. BYOD (Bring Your Own Device): BYOD allows employees to use their personal devices for work purposes, but it does not inherently provide centralized management or reduce the need for replacing aging end user machines. It also may not ensure a consistent user desktop experience across different devices.
b. Mobile Device Management (MDM): MDM focuses on managing mobile devices (smartphones, tablets) used within an organization, primarily for security and policy enforcement. It does not directly address centralized management of infrastructure or provide a consistent desktop experience for users.
d. Containerization: While containerization provides a lightweight and isolated environment for running applications, it is more suitable for application deployment and microservices architecture rather than providing centralized management of infrastructure or virtual desktop environments.
Which of the following terms describes a broad range of information that is sensitive to a specific organization?
a. Public
b. Top secret
c. Proprietary
d. Open-source
c. Proprietary
Explanation:
Proprietary: This term refers to information that is owned by a company or organization and is considered confidential or sensitive. It encompasses a wide range of data and knowledge that is not publicly available or disclosed to the general public. Proprietary information can include trade secrets, intellectual property, business strategies, customer lists, financial data, and more.
Let’s briefly differentiate it from the other options:
Public: Information that is publicly accessible and not considered confidential or sensitive. Top secret: Typically refers to the highest level of classified information in government or military contexts. Open-source: Refers to software or information that is freely available for use, modification, and distribution under licenses that promote access and collaboration.
A Chief Security Officer (CSO) is concerned that cloud-based services are not adequately protected from advanced threats and malware. The CSO believes there is a high risk that a data breach could occur in the near future due to the lack of detective and preventive controls. Which of the following should be implemented to BEST address the CSO’s concerns? (Choose two.)
a. A WAF
b. A CASB
c. An NG-SWG
d. Segmentation
e. Encryption
f. Containerization
b. A CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)
c. An NG-SWG (Next-Generation Secure Web Gateway)
Here’s why:
CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker):
A CASB provides visibility and control over data and user activities in cloud services. It offers features such as threat detection, data loss prevention (DLP), and enforcement of security policies, which are crucial for protecting cloud-based services from advanced threats and data breaches.
NG-SWG (Next-Generation Secure Web Gateway):
An NG-SWG offers advanced web security by inspecting web traffic for malware, blocking malicious websites, and providing threat intelligence. It can prevent advanced threats from reaching cloud-based services by filtering and securing web traffic.
The other options, while important for overall security, are not as directly focused on addressing the CSO’s specific concerns about advanced threats and malware in the cloud:
WAF (Web Application Firewall): Protects web applications from attacks like SQL injection and cross-site scripting, but doesn't provide comprehensive cloud service protection. Segmentation: Enhances security by isolating network segments, but does not directly address advanced threats and malware in cloud services. Encryption: Protects data at rest and in transit, but doesn't prevent or detect advanced threats and malware. Containerization: Helps with application security and isolation, but isn't specifically focused on protecting cloud-based services from advanced threats and malware.
An organization is planning to roll out a new mobile device policy and issue each employee a new laptop. These laptops would access the users’ corporate operating system remotely and allow them to use the laptops for purposes outside of their job roles. Which of the following deployment models is being utilized?
a. MDM and application management
b. BYOD and containers
c. COPE and VDI
d. CYOD and VMs
c. COPE and VDI
COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally-Enabled): In a COPE deployment model, the organization owns the laptops provided to employees. These devices are configured with corporate policies and applications, making them suitable for corporate use. However, employees are also allowed to use these devices for personal purposes within certain boundaries set by the organization.
VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure): VDI allows employees to access their corporate desktop environment remotely from their laptops. This means that the laptops do not necessarily store sensitive corporate data locally but instead connect to virtualized desktops hosted on centralized servers or in the cloud. VDI ensures that employees can use their laptops securely from any location while accessing the corporate operating system and applications.
Certain users are reporting their accounts are being used to send unauthorized emails and conduct suspicious activities. After further investigation, a security analyst notices the following:
-All users share workstations throughout the day.
-Endpoint protection was disabled on several workstations throughout the network.
-Travel times on logins from the affected users are impossible.
-Sensitive data is being uploaded to external sites.
All user account passwords were forced to be reset and the issue continued.
Which of the following attacks is being used to compromise the user accounts?
a. Brute-force
b. Keylogger
c. Dictionary
d. Rainbow
b. Keylogger
Keylogger: A keylogger is malicious software or hardware that records keystrokes made by a user on a compromised system. If users share workstations and a keylogger is installed on those systems, it can capture all keystrokes entered by users, including usernames, passwords, and other sensitive information. This would allow an attacker to capture newly entered passwords after resets, despite the reset attempt.
Symptoms match:
Unauthorized emails and suspicious activities: Keyloggers can capture login credentials, allowing attackers to impersonate legitimate users and perform unauthorized actions. Endpoint protection disabled: Keyloggers can be sophisticated enough to evade detection by endpoint protection software or even disable it. Impossible travel times: If the attacker has gained access to user accounts, they can login from different locations, making it appear as if the user is logging in from impossible travel distances. Sensitive data uploaded to external sites: Once credentials are compromised, attackers can exfiltrate sensitive data to external locations.
A security forensics analyst is examining a virtual server. The analyst wants to preserve the present state of the virtual server, including memory contents. Which of the following backup types should be used?
a. Snapshot
b. Differential
c. Cloud
d. Full
e. Incremental
a. Snapshot
Snapshot: A snapshot captures the current state of a virtual machine (VM) at a specific point in time. This includes the contents of the VM’s memory, disk state, and configuration settings. It essentially creates a read-only copy of the VM at the time the snapshot was taken. Snapshots are useful for creating point-in-time backups and for preserving the exact state of the VM, including any volatile data in memory.
Other backup types:
Full backup: This type of backup typically copies all data from the source, but it does not specifically capture the memory state of a running virtual server. Differential backup: This captures changes made since the last full backup, but it does not capture memory contents. Incremental backup: This captures changes made since the last backup (full or incremental), but like differential backups, it does not include memory contents. Cloud backup: Refers to backups stored in a cloud-based storage service; it does not describe the type of backup method used.
After returning from a conference, a user’s laptop has been operating slower than normal and overheating, and the fans have been running constantly. During the diagnosis process, an unknown piece of hardware is found connected to the laptop’s motherboard. Which of the following attack vectors was exploited to install the hardware?
a. Removable media
b. Spear phishing
c. Supply chain
d. Direct access
(Brindump Community ) d. Direct access
c. Supply chain attack: This type of attack involves manipulating or exploiting vulnerabilities in the supply chain of hardware or software components. In this case, the user’s laptop could have been compromised when it was serviced, repaired, or accessed during the conference. An attacker might have physically inserted a malicious hardware device (such as a hardware keylogger, a malicious network adapter, or a rogue USB device) into the laptop to monitor or control its operations. This hardware can cause symptoms like overheating, increased fan activity, and degraded performance.
Other options:
Removable media: Typically refers to attacks through USB drives or external storage devices. While it's possible for malware to spread through such media, it doesn't directly explain the presence of a physically attached unknown hardware device. Spear phishing: Involves targeted email attacks to deceive users into disclosing sensitive information or downloading malware. This doesn't directly relate to the physical compromise described. Direct access: Refers to physical access to a system or device. While the attacker did gain physical access, the specific method of compromise involves the manipulation of the supply chain, not just direct physical access alone.
(Braindump)
a. Removable media
After a recent security breach, a security analyst reports that several administrative usernames and passwords are being sent via cleartext across the network to access network devices over port 23. Which of the following should be implemented so all credentials sent over the network are encrypted when remotely accessing and configuring network devices?
a. SSH
b. SNMPv3
c. SFTP
d. Telnet
e. FTP
a. SSH (Secure Shell)
Here’s why SSH is the correct choice:
SSH (Secure Shell): SSH provides a secure, encrypted method for remote login and command execution on network devices. It encrypts the entire communication session between the client and the server, including authentication credentials, commands sent, and responses received. This encryption ensures that passwords and other sensitive information are protected from eavesdropping and interception.
Other options explained:
SNMPv3: SNMPv3 provides authentication and encryption for SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) messages, but it's primarily used for monitoring and management rather than interactive command execution like SSH.
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol): SFTP is used for secure file transfers, not for interactive command-line access to network devices.
Telnet: Telnet is a legacy protocol that sends data, including passwords, in cleartext. It does not provide any encryption or security mechanisms, making it vulnerable to interception.
FTP (File Transfer Protocol): FTP also sends data, including credentials, in cleartext. It does not provide encryption for data in transit.
Which of the following provides a calculated value for known vulnerabilities so organizations can prioritize mitigation steps?
a. CVSS
b. SIEM
c. SOAR
d. CVE
a. CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System)
CVSS is a standard for assessing and scoring the severity of computer system security vulnerabilities. It provides a quantitative measure of the impact and exploitability of a vulnerability, allowing organizations to prioritize their response efforts. CVSS assigns a score based on several metrics such as exploitability, impact, and complexity, which helps organizations determine the urgency and criticality of applying patches or mitigations to vulnerabilities.
Let’s briefly explain the other options for clarity:
SIEM (Security Information and Event Management): SIEM systems aggregate and analyze security event data from various sources within an organization's IT infrastructure. They provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware, helping organizations to detect and respond to security incidents. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response): SOAR platforms integrate security technologies and automate incident response processes. They can help streamline and accelerate incident detection, response, and remediation tasks. CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures): CVE is a dictionary of publicly known information security vulnerabilities and exposures. It provides unique identifiers (CVE IDs) for known vulnerabilities, but it does not provide a calculated value or scoring system for prioritization.
Several universities are participating in a collaborative research project and need to share compute and storage resources. Which of the following cloud deployment strategies would BEST meet this need?
a. Community
b. Private
c. Public
d. Hybrid
a. Community
Explanation:
Community cloud deployment model is designed to meet the specific needs of a community of organizations with shared concerns (such as universities collaborating on research projects). It allows these organizations to share infrastructure and resources securely while maintaining some level of control over their data and applications. This model supports collaborative efforts by providing a dedicated and customizable environment that meets the shared requirements of the participating universities. It typically offers better security, compliance, and performance compared to public cloud options, while still providing the benefits of scalability and cost-efficiency.
In contrast:
Public cloud involves resources shared by multiple organizations over the internet, which may not offer the required level of control or security for sensitive research data. Private cloud is dedicated to a single organization, which may not be cost-effective or scalable for multiple universities collaborating on a project. Hybrid cloud integrates private and public cloud environments, which could add unnecessary complexity for this specific collaborative research scenario.
A forensic analyst needs to prove that data has not been tampered with since it was collected. Which of the following methods will the analyst MOST likely use?
a. Look for tampering on the evidence collection bag.
b. Encrypt the collected data using asymmetric encryption.
c. Ensure proper procedures for chain of custody are being followed.
d. Calculate the checksum using a hashing algorithm.
d. Calculate the checksum using a hashing algorithm.
Explanation:
Checksum using a hashing algorithm (option d) is commonly used in forensic analysis to verify data integrity. A hash function takes an input (in this case, the collected data) and produces a fixed-size string of bytes, known as the hash value or checksum. If the data remains unchanged, the hash value will remain the same. Even a small change to the input data will result in a significantly different hash value due to the avalanche effect of hash functions. By comparing the hash value of the collected data to the hash value calculated later, the forensic analyst can verify if the data has been tampered with. This method is efficient, reliable, and widely accepted in forensic investigations to ensure data integrity and prove the authenticity of collected evidence.
Multiple business accounts were compromised a few days after a public website had its credentials database leaked on the Internet. No business emails were identified in the breach, but the security team thinks that the list of passwords exposed was later used to compromise business accounts. Which of the following would mitigate the issue?
a. Complexity requirements
b. Password history
c. Acceptable use policy
d. Shared accounts
b. Password history
Explanation:
Implementing password history policies ensures that users cannot reuse a certain number of their previous passwords. This can help mitigate the risk of attackers using previously leaked passwords to gain access to accounts. Complexity requirements alone (option a) do not address the issue if users reuse old passwords that have already been compromised. Acceptable use policy (option c) and shared accounts (option d) are not directly relevant to preventing the reuse of compromised
A security analyst wants to fingerprint a web server. Which of the following tools will the security analyst MOST likely use to accomplish this task?
a. nmap -pl-65535 192.168.0.10
b. dig 192.168.0.10
c. curl –head http://192.168.0.10
d. ping 192.168.0.10
c. curl –head http://192.168.0.10
a. nmap -pl-65535 192.168.0.10: This command uses nmap, a network scanning tool. However, the options -pl-65535 are incorrect and would not achieve web server fingerprinting. This command is typically used for ping scanning, not for web server fingerprinting.
b. dig 192.168.0.10: The dig command is used for querying DNS (Domain Name System) servers to retrieve DNS records like A, AAAA, and others. It does not provide information about the web server itself.
c. curl –head http://192.168.0.10: This command uses curl to make an HTTP request to the specified URL (http://192.168.0.10) and retrieves the HTTP headers (–head). HTTP headers often include server information such as the server type and sometimes version number. This can help in fingerprinting the web server.
d. ping 192.168.0.10: The ping command is used to test connectivity between devices by sending ICMP echo requests. It does not provide any information about the web server software.
Conclusion: The most appropriate tool from the options provided to fingerprint a web server is c. curl –head http://192.168.0.10. This command will fetch the HTTP headers from the web server at 192.168.0.10, allowing the security analyst to gather information about the server software and version, which is crucial for fingerprinting purposes. Therefore, option c is the correct answer.
A penetration tester was able to compromise an internal server and is now trying to pivot the current session in a network lateral movement. Which of the following tools, if available on the server, will provide the MOST useful information for the next assessment step?
a. Autopsy
b. Cuckoo
c. Memdump
d. Nmap
d. Nmap
a. Autopsy: Autopsy is a digital forensics platform primarily used for analyzing disk images and other media. It is not suitable for network enumeration or scanning.
b. Cuckoo: Cuckoo is a malware analysis sandbox. While useful for analyzing malware behavior and payloads, it is not typically used for network scanning or enumeration.
c. Memdump: Memdump typically refers to dumping memory contents for analysis. While memory analysis can be useful, it’s not directly related to network enumeration or lateral movement within a network.
d. Nmap: Nmap is a powerful network scanning tool that can be used to discover hosts, services, and open ports on a network. It is highly effective for mapping out network topologies, identifying live hosts, and providing information about services running on those hosts.
Conclusion: In the context of pivoting from a compromised server for lateral movement, d. Nmap would provide the most useful information. Nmap can scan the network from the compromised server, identify other hosts and services, and potentially uncover additional vulnerabilities or targets for further exploitation. Therefore, option d. Nmap is the correct answer for the penetration tester in this scenario.
Field workers in an organization are issued mobile phones on a daily basis. All the work is performed within one city, and the mobile phones are not used for any purpose other than work. The organization does not want these phones used for personal purposes. The organization would like to issue the phones to workers as permanent devices so the phones do not need to be reissued every day. Given the conditions described, which of the following technologies would BEST meet these requirements?
a. Geofencing
b. Mobile device management
c. Containerization
d. Remote wiping
b. Mobile device management (MDM)
Here’s how MDM addresses the organization’s needs:
Issuing Permanent Devices: MDM solutions allow organizations to manage mobile devices centrally. This includes provisioning devices and configuring them with the necessary settings and applications. Once configured, the devices can be issued as permanent work devices to field workers, eliminating the need for daily reissuance. Enforcement of Policies: MDM solutions enable organizations to enforce strict policies on managed devices. This includes configuring devices so they can only be used for work purposes and preventing unauthorized use for personal activities. Policies can restrict the installation of non-work-related apps and enforce usage restrictions. Security and Compliance: MDM provides security features such as encryption, remote locking, and password policies to protect sensitive work data on the devices. It also helps ensure compliance with organizational policies and regulatory requirements. Remote Management and Monitoring: MDM allows IT administrators to remotely monitor and manage devices. This includes tracking device location (geolocation) and status, applying updates and patches, and troubleshooting issues without physical access to the devices.
While geofencing (option a) can restrict device usage based on location, it typically does not provide comprehensive management capabilities like policy enforcement and remote management, which are crucial for maintaining control over devices used by field workers. Containerization (option c) is useful for separating work and personal data on devices, but it may not prevent personal use entirely unless strictly enforced through policy. Remote wiping (option d) is a security measure to erase data from lost or stolen devices but does not address the management and usage policy requirements described.
Which of the following control types is focused primarily on reducing risk before an incident occurs?
a. Preventive
b. Deterrent
c. Corrective
d. Detective
a. Preventive
Preventive controls are designed to prevent incidents from occurring by reducing vulnerabilities or deterring potential attackers. They aim to proactively mitigate risks before they can be exploited. Examples of preventive controls include:
Access controls: Limiting access to authorized personnel only. Encryption: Protecting sensitive data from unauthorized access. Patching and updates: Keeping software and systems up to date to address known vulnerabilities. Firewalls and intrusion prevention systems (IPS): Filtering network traffic to block malicious activity. Security awareness training: Educating users about security best practices to prevent social engineering attacks.
In contrast:
Deterrent controls aim to discourage attackers from targeting a system or organization. They include measures like visible security cameras, warning signs, or security guards, which may deter potential attackers from attempting an attack. Corrective controls are implemented after an incident has occurred to mitigate its impact and restore systems to a secure state. Detective controls are designed to detect and respond to incidents after they have occurred, such as through monitoring, logging, and intrusion detection systems (IDS).
A systems administrator reports degraded performance on a virtual server. The administrator increases the virtual memory allocation, which improves conditions, but performance degrades again after a few days. The administrator runs an analysis tool and sees the following output:
==3214== timeAttend.exe analyzed
==3214== ERROR SUMMARY:
==3214== malloc/free: in use at exit: 4608 bytes in 18 blocks.
==3214== checked 82116 bytes
==3214== definitely lost: 4608 bytes in 18 blocks.
The administrator terminates the timeAttend.exe, observes system performance over the next few days, and notices that the system performance does not degrade. Which of the following issues is MOST likely occurring?
a. DLL injection
b. API attack
c. Buffer overflow
d. Memory leak
d. Memory leak
Here’s why:
Memory leak: A memory leak occurs when a program allocates memory but fails to release it back to the operating system after it is no longer needed. Over time, this can lead to the gradual depletion of available memory resources on the system. In the scenario provided:
The administrator ran an analysis tool (timeAttend.exe).
The tool reported memory usage statistics, indicating that memory allocated by the timeAttend.exe process was not properly released (definitely lost: 4608 bytes in 18 blocks).
After terminating timeAttend.exe, the system performance improved and did not degrade over the next few days, suggesting that terminating the process stopped the continuous memory consumption.
Symptoms consistent with memory leak:
Initially, the systems administrator increased virtual memory allocation to mitigate degraded performance, which temporarily improved conditions. However, performance degraded again after a few days.
Memory leaks typically lead to a gradual increase in memory consumption over time, eventually impacting system performance as available memory resources become exhausted.
An administrator is experiencing issues when trying to upload a support file to a vendor. A pop-up message reveals that a payment card number was found in the file, and the file upload was blocked. Which of the following controls is most likely causing this issue and should be checked FIRST?
a. DLP
b. Firewall rule
c. Content filter
d. MDM
e. Application allow list
a. DLP
Here’s why:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP): DLP solutions are designed to monitor and prevent unauthorized transfer or disclosure of sensitive information, such as payment card numbers, outside of the organization's network. They typically inspect file content, both at rest and in transit, to identify sensitive data patterns based on predefined policies.
Scenario analysis:
The administrator is trying to upload a support file to a vendor.
During the upload process, a pop-up message indicates that a payment card number was found in the file.
The upload is blocked, presumably to prevent the unauthorized transfer of sensitive payment card information to an external party (the vendor).
Controls involved:
Firewall rule: Firewalls typically control network traffic based on port, protocol, or IP addresses. They are not typically involved in inspecting file content for specific data patterns like payment card numbers.
Content filter: Content filters can inspect web content for malicious or inappropriate content, but they may not specifically focus on detecting sensitive data patterns like payment card numbers.
MDM (Mobile Device Management): MDM solutions manage mobile devices and may enforce security policies but are not directly involved in inspecting file content during uploads.
Application allow list: Application allow lists control which applications can run on a system but do not inspect file content during uploads.
Which of the following risk management strategies would an organization use to maintain a legacy system with known risks for operational purposes?
a. Acceptance
b. Transference
c. Avoidance
d. Mitigation
a. Acceptance
Explanation:
Acceptance in risk management refers to acknowledging the existence of a risk and deciding not to take any further action to mitigate it. This strategy is typically chosen when the cost or effort required to mitigate the risk is deemed to be greater than the impact of the risk itself.
In the context of maintaining a legacy system with known risks for operational purposes, organizations often opt for acceptance. This means they are aware of the risks associated with using the legacy system but continue to use it because:
It is critical for ongoing operations.
The organization may lack resources or alternative solutions to upgrade or replace the system.
The potential impact of the risks (such as downtime or data breaches) is deemed acceptable compared to the cost or disruption that would be caused by attempting to mitigate or avoid the risks.
Transference involves shifting the risk to another party, such as through insurance or outsourcing.
Avoidance aims to eliminate the risk altogether by not engaging in the activity that poses the risk.
Mitigation involves taking actions to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk.
Which of the following is the BEST action to foster a consistent and auditable incident response process?
a. Incent new hires to constantly update the document with external knowledge.
b. Publish the document in a central repository that is easily accessible to the organization.
c. Restrict eligibility to comment on the process to subject matter experts of each IT silo.
d. Rotate CIRT members to foster a shared responsibility model in the organization.
b. Publish the document in a central repository that is easily accessible to the organization.
Explanation:
Incident response processes need to be well-documented and accessible to all relevant stakeholders within the organization. By publishing the incident response document in a central repository that is easily accessible:
Consistency is promoted because all team members can refer to the same authoritative source for guidance on how to handle incidents.
Audibility is enhanced because auditors and stakeholders can easily review the documented process to ensure compliance and effectiveness.
It facilitates collaboration and knowledge sharing among team members, as everyone can contribute to and benefit from a centralized resource.
Incentivizing new hires to update the document with external knowledge (option a) might encourage knowledge sharing but does not ensure the document's centralization or accessibility.
Restricting eligibility to comment on the process to subject matter experts (option c) may limit input and collaboration across teams, potentially hindering the overall effectiveness of the incident response process.
Rotating CIRT members (option d) can foster a shared responsibility model and cross-training but does not directly address the need for a centralized and easily accessible documentation repository.
(Braindump)
d. Rotate CIRT members to foster a shared responsibility model in the organization.
During a recent penetration test, the tester discovers large amounts of data were exfiltrated over the course of 12 months via the internet. The penetration tester stops the test to inform the client of the findings. Which of the following should be the client’s NEXT step to mitigate the issue?
a. Conduct a full vulnerability scan to identify possible vulnerabilities.
b. Perform containment on the critical servers and resources.
c. Review the firewall and identify the source of the active connection.
d. Disconnect the entire infrastructure from the internet.
b. Perform containment on the critical servers and resources.
Explanation:
Containment is a crucial initial step in incident response. It involves isolating compromised systems or affected areas to prevent further unauthorized access or data exfiltration. By containing the critical servers and resources, the client can limit the spread of the breach and prevent ongoing data loss. Reviewing the firewall and identifying the source of the active connection (option c) is also important but typically comes after containment. It helps in understanding how the breach occurred and what steps are needed to prevent future incidents. Conducting a full vulnerability scan (option a) is necessary to identify vulnerabilities that might have been exploited but should be conducted after containment to prioritize immediate security measures. Disconnecting the entire infrastructure from the internet (option d) is an extreme measure that may disrupt business operations significantly and should be considered only if containment measures fail or if there is immediate risk of ongoing data exfiltration.
A security analyst is designing the appropriate controls to limit unauthorized access to a physical site. The analyst has a directive to utilize the lowest possible budget. Which of the following would BEST meet the requirements?
a. Preventive controls
b. Compensating controls
c. Deterrent controls
d. Detective controls
c. Deterrent controls
Deterrent controls are designed to discourage potential intruders by signaling that security measures are in place. They do not directly prevent access but aim to deter unauthorized individuals from attempting to breach security measures. Examples of deterrent controls include signage indicating the presence of security cameras or alarms, visible locks and barriers, and warning notices.
Here’s why deterrent controls are the best choice given the scenario:
Cost-effectiveness: Deterrent controls are generally more cost-effective to implement compared to preventive controls, which require physical barriers or access controls that might be more expensive. Suitability for low budgets: Since the directive is to utilize the lowest possible budget, deterrent controls such as signage and visible security measures provide an effective deterrent without significant investment. Meeting the requirement: Deterrent controls align with the objective of limiting unauthorized access by discouraging potential intruders, thus contributing to the security goal within the specified budget constraints.
A company is looking to migrate some servers to the cloud to minimize its technology footprint. The company has 100 databases that are on premises. Which of the following solutions will require the LEAST management and support from the company?
a. SaaS
b. IaaS
c. PaaS
d. SDN
a. SaaS
Here’s a breakdown of why SaaS is the most suitable option:
SaaS (Software as a Service): With SaaS, the service provider hosts the application and manages everything from the infrastructure to the middleware, application software, and data. Users access the software over the internet, typically through a web browser. In this case, if the company migrates its databases to a SaaS solution, the service provider will handle all aspects of managing and supporting the databases. This includes database maintenance, backups, scaling, security updates, and availability. The company would only need to manage its data and user access, with minimal involvement in the underlying infrastructure. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): With IaaS, the service provider offers virtualized computing resources over the internet, including virtual machines, storage, and networking. The company would be responsible for managing the operating systems, middleware, runtime, and data. While it provides flexibility and control over the infrastructure, it requires more management compared to SaaS as the company still needs to manage the databases themselves. PaaS (Platform as a Service): PaaS provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure. While it abstracts much of the underlying infrastructure management, it still requires the company to manage the databases and applications deployed on the platform. SDN (Software-Defined Networking): SDN is a network architecture approach that allows network administrators to manage network services through abstraction of lower-level functionality. It focuses on network management rather than application or database management, making it less relevant for managing databases directly.
Which of the following employee roles is responsible for protecting an organization’s collected personal information?
a. CTO
b. DPO
c. CEO
d. DBA
b. DPO (Data Protection Officer).
Here’s a brief explanation of each role:
CTO (Chief Technology Officer): Typically responsible for overseeing the organization's technological needs, which can include infrastructure, security, and development. While the CTO plays a role in implementing technology solutions, they may not specifically focus on protecting personal information unless it falls under their broader responsibilities. DPO (Data Protection Officer): The DPO is specifically designated to oversee data protection strategy and implementation to ensure compliance with data protection regulations such as GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation). They monitor internal compliance, conduct data protection impact assessments, and act as a point of contact for data subjects and supervisory authorities. CEO (Chief Executive Officer): The CEO is the highest-ranking executive in a company and is responsible for overall strategy, operations, and the organization's success. While the CEO has ultimate responsibility for everything that happens within the organization, data protection specifics are typically delegated to other roles such as the DPO. DBA (Database Administrator): Responsible for the design, implementation, maintenance, and security of databases within an organization. While DBAs play a critical role in managing data security within databases, their focus is primarily on technical aspects related to database management rather than overarching data protection responsibilities.
Against the recommendation of the IT security analyst, a company set all user passwords on a server as P@55w0rD. Upon review of the /etc/passwd file, an attacker found the following:
alice:a8df3b6c4fd75f0617431fd248f35191df8d237f bob:2d250c5b2976b03d757f324ebd59340df96aa05e chris:ea981ec3285421d014108089f3f3f997ce0f4150
Which of the following BEST explains why the encrypted passwords do not match?
a. Perfect forward secrecy
b. Key stretching
c. Salting
d. Hashing
c. Salting
The reason the encrypted passwords do not match the predictable pattern of P@55w0rD (assuming that was the password set for all users) is due to salting.
Salting is a technique used in password hashing where a random value (salt) is added to each password before hashing. This salt value ensures that even if two users have the same password, their hashed passwords will be different due to the unique salt applied to each password.
In the example provided:
If P@55w0rD was the password set for all users, the system would generate a unique salt for each user. Each user's password (P@55w0rD in this case) would be combined with their unique salt. The combination of password and salt is then hashed using a cryptographic hash function (like SHA-256 or similar). The resulting hashed password stored in /etc/passwd (a8df3b6c4fd75f0617431fd248f35191df8d237f, 2d250c5b2976b03d757f324ebd59340df96aa05e, ea981ec3285421d014108089f3f3f997ce0f4150) is unique due to the salt.
Therefore, the presence of different hashed values for apparently the same password (P@55w0rD) indicates that each password was hashed with a unique salt. This makes it significantly harder for attackers to use precomputed hash tables (rainbow tables) or other methods to reverse engineer the passwords.
After gaining access to a dual-homed (i.e., wired and wireless) multifunction device by exploiting a vulnerability in the device’s firmware, a penetration tester then gains shell access on another networked asset. This technique is an example of:
a. privilege escalation.
b. footprinting.
c. persistence.
d. pivoting.
d. pivoting.
The technique described where a penetration tester gains access to another networked asset after initially compromising a dual-homed multifunction device is an example of pivoting.
Pivoting in penetration testing refers to the technique where an attacker uses a compromised system as a stepping stone to attack other systems within the same or different networks to which the initial compromised system has access. This technique helps attackers maintain access to a network even if the original point of entry is discovered and closed off.
In the scenario described:
The penetration tester initially exploits a vulnerability in the multifunction device's firmware. This allows the penetration tester to gain a foothold on the multifunction device. The device is dual-homed (connected to both wired and wireless networks), potentially providing access to multiple network segments. Using the compromised multifunction device as a pivot, the penetration tester gains shell access to another networked asset. This involves leveraging the compromised device's position and connectivity to extend the attack to other parts of the network.
Which of the following should be monitored by threat intelligence researchers who search for leaked credentials?
a. Common Weakness Enumeration
b. OSINT
c. Dark web
d. Vulnerability databases
c. Dark web
Threat intelligence researchers who search for leaked credentials typically monitor the dark web. The dark web is a part of the internet that is not indexed by traditional search engines, and it is often used for illicit activities, including the sale and trade of stolen data such as credentials, personal information, and financial details.
Monitoring the dark web allows threat intelligence researchers to identify if any credentials associated with their organization or clients have been compromised and are being traded or sold illegally. This proactive monitoring helps organizations take swift action, such as resetting passwords or implementing additional security measures, to mitigate the risk of unauthorized access and potential data breaches.
A security analyst needs to be able to search and correlate logs from multiple sources in a single tool. Which of the following would BEST allow a security analyst to have this ability?
a. SOAR
b. SIEM
c. Log collectors
d. Network-attached storage
b. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management).
SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is designed to collect, store, analyze, and correlate logs and security events from various sources within an organization’s IT infrastructure. It provides a centralized platform where security analysts can search through logs, detect anomalies, investigate security incidents, and generate reports.
Here’s why SIEM is the best choice for the described scenario:
Centralized Logging: SIEM systems aggregate logs from diverse sources such as network devices, servers, applications, and security tools into a single repository. Correlation: SIEM tools use correlation rules and algorithms to detect patterns and relationships across different log entries and events, helping analysts identify potential security incidents. Search Capabilities: SIEM solutions provide powerful search capabilities, allowing analysts to quickly query and filter logs based on various criteria. Alerting and Reporting: SIEM platforms can generate alerts in real-time based on predefined rules or anomalies detected during log analysis. They also facilitate the creation of comprehensive reports for compliance purposes and incident response.
While log collectors (option c) are important components that feed logs into a SIEM, they do not provide the same level of functionality as a SIEM, which integrates logging, correlation, analysis, and reporting capabilities into a single platform tailored for security operations.
A security analyst is investigating suspicious traffic on the web server located at IP address 10.10.1.1. A search of the WAF logs reveals the following output:
source IP Destination IP Requested URL Action Taken
172.16.1.3 10.10.1.1 /web/cgi-bin/contact? permit and log
category=custname’–
172.16.1.3 10.10.1.1 /web/cgi-bin/contact? permit and log
category=custname+OR+1=1–
Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?
a. XSS attack
b. SQLi attack
c. Replay attack
d. XSRF attack
b. SQLi attack
Here’s the reasoning:
SQL Injection (SQLi): SQL injection is a type of attack where an attacker injects malicious SQL queries into input fields of a web application with the intention to manipulate the backend database. The presence of 1=1 in SQL queries is a common technique to bypass authentication or retrieve unintended data from the database.
In the provided logs:
The URLs /web/cgi-bin/contact?category=custname'-- and /web/cgi-bin/contact?category=custname+OR+1=1-- indicate that the attacker is modifying the category parameter in the URL to include SQL injection payloads ('-- and OR 1=1--).
Action Taken: The WAF (Web Application Firewall) logs show that the requests were permitted (permit) and logged. This means that the WAF did not block the requests, possibly because it did not recognize them as malicious due to evasion techniques used by the attacker.
Attack Type: The use of SQL injection payloads ('-- and OR 1=1--) in the URL parameters indicates an attempt to manipulate the SQL queries executed by the web server, typically targeting vulnerabilities in the backend database management system (DBMS).
Which of the following components can be used to consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments though a single firewall?
a. Transit gateway
b. Cloud hot site
c. Edge computing
d. DNS sinkhole
a. Transit gateway
Explanation:
A transit gateway is a service that allows organizations to connect multiple Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs) and on-premises networks through a central hub. It acts as a regional gateway and can consolidate and route traffic between VPCs, VPNs, and the internet. By leveraging a transit gateway, organizations can centralize the management of traffic flows, implement security controls (such as firewalls), and simplify connectivity between different cloud environments and their on-premises networks. This makes it an ideal choice for consolidating inbound internet traffic and ensuring that it is routed through a single firewall instance, thereby enhancing security and operational efficiency across multiple cloud environments.
A DBA reports that several production server hard drives were wiped over the weekend. The DBA also reports that several Linux servers were unavailable due to system files being deleted unexpectedly. A security analyst verified that software was configured to delete data deliberately from those servers. No backdoors to any servers were found. Which of the following attacks was MOST likely used to cause the data loss?
a. Logic bomb
b. Ransomware
c. Fileless virus
d. Remote access Trojans
e. Rootkit
a. Logic bomb
A logic bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met. In this case, it appears that the logic bomb was programmed to delete system files and data at a specific time (over the weekend). This explains the deliberate nature of the deletions and the unavailability of the servers without any backdoor being present.
The other options are less likely to be the cause for the following reasons:
Ransomware typically encrypts data and demands a ransom for decryption rather than simply deleting files. Fileless virus operates in memory and typically does not result in deliberate deletion of files but rather aims to exploit systems without leaving a trace on the disk. Remote access Trojans (RATs) are used for remote control of a system and typically involve data theft or surveillance rather than destruction of data without any further purpose. Rootkit hides the presence of other malicious software, such as keyloggers or viruses, but doesn't typically engage in the outright deletion of files as described.
Digital signatures use asymmetric encryption. This means the message is encrypted with:
a. the sender’s private key and decrypted with the sender’s public key.
b. the sender’s public key and decrypted with the sender’s private key.
c. the sender’s private key and decrypted with the recipient’s public key.
e. the sender’s public key and decrypted with the recipient’s private key.
a. the sender’s private key and decrypted with the sender’s public key.
Digital signatures indeed use asymmetric encryption, and the process involves the sender’s private and public keys. The correct option regarding the use of keys for creating and verifying a digital signature is:
a. the sender’s private key and decrypted with the sender’s public key.
Here’s how it works:
Creating the Signature:
The sender creates a hash of the message.
The sender encrypts this hash using their private key. This encrypted hash is the digital signature.
Verifying the Signature:
The recipient decrypts the digital signature using the sender's public key to retrieve the hash.
The recipient also creates a hash of the received message.
The recipient compares the decrypted hash with the newly created hash. If they match, the message is verified as authentic and untampered.
A security engineer was assigned to implement a solution to prevent attackers from gaining access by pretending to be authorized users. Which of the following technologies meets the requirement?
a. SSO
b. IDS
c. MFA
d. TPM
c. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication)
Explanation:
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) adds an additional layer of security beyond just username and password. It requires users to provide two or more verification factors to gain access to a system or application. MFA typically combines something the user knows (password), with something the user has (like a smartphone app generating a code or a hardware token), or something the user is (biometric data). This approach significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access because even if attackers manage to steal or guess a user's password, they would still need the additional factor to authenticate successfully. Single Sign-On (SSO) simplifies the user login process by allowing users to authenticate once to gain access to multiple systems or applications. While it improves user experience and can indirectly enhance security by reducing password fatigue, it does not inherently prevent attackers from pretending to be authorized users. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations. While it detects suspicious behavior, it doesn't directly prevent attackers from impersonating authorized users. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security solution that provides cryptographic functionality to secure hardware and authenticate devices. It does not directly prevent attackers from pretending to be authorized users.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has requested that a third-party vendor provide supporting documents that show proper controls are in place to protect customer data. Which of the following would be BEST for the third-party vendor to provide to the CISO?
a. GDPR compliance attestation
b. Cloud Security Alliance materials
c. SOC 2 Type 2 report
d. NIST RMF workbooks
c. SOC 2 Type 2 report
Explanation:
SOC 2 (Service Organization Control 2) is a widely recognized auditing standard developed by the American Institute of CPAs (AICPA). It focuses on controls relevant to the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of data processed by service providers. A SOC 2 Type 2 report provides detailed information about how a service organization (the third-party vendor in this case) achieves key security objectives based on the Trust Services Criteria (TSC). It includes detailed testing of the effectiveness of controls over a period of time (usually a minimum of six months). This report is particularly relevant when a vendor needs to demonstrate that they have adequate controls in place to protect customer data, aligning with regulatory requirements and industry best practices. GDPR compliance attestation is specific to compliance with the European Union's General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). While important for handling personal data of EU residents, it may not cover all aspects of data protection and security beyond GDPR requirements. Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) materials are valuable for understanding cloud security best practices and frameworks, but they do not provide specific independent assurance of controls implemented by the vendor. NIST RMF (Risk Management Framework) workbooks are used for managing and documenting security and privacy controls within federal information systems. However, they are less commonly used in vendor assessments compared to SOC 2 reports.
Which of the following is assured when a user signs an email using a private key?
a. Non-repudiation
b. Confidentiality
c. Availability
d. Authentication
a. Non-repudiation
Explanation:
Non-repudiation is assured when a user signs an email using a private key. This means the sender cannot deny having sent the email because the digital signature, created using the sender's private key, uniquely associates the sender with the message. Anyone with the corresponding public key can verify that the message was indeed signed by the holder of the private key. Confidentiality ensures that the content of the email is accessible only to the intended recipients. However, signing an email does not encrypt its contents; encryption for confidentiality requires using the recipient's public key. Availability refers to ensuring that the email is accessible to authorized users when needed. Signing an email does not directly impact its availability. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of the sender. While signing an email does provide some level of authentication by verifying the sender, the primary assurance provided by signing an email is non-repudiation.
A systems administrator is troubleshooting a server’s connection to an internal web server. The administrator needs to determine the correct ports to use. Which of the following tools BEST shows which ports on the web server are in a listening state?
a. ipconfig
b. ssh
c. ping
d. netstat
d. netstat
Explanation:
netstat (network statistics) is a command-line tool that provides various network-related information, including the status of network connections, routing tables, and interface statistics. It is particularly useful for showing which ports are in a listening state on a server, which can help the systems administrator determine the correct ports to use. ipconfig is a command-line tool used to display and manage the IP configuration of network interfaces on a Windows computer. It does not provide information about listening ports. ssh (Secure Shell) is a protocol used for secure remote login and other secure network services over an insecure network. It is not used to show listening ports. ping is a command-line tool used to test the reachability of a host on an IP network. It does not provide information about listening ports.
Which of the following BEST reduces the security risks introduced when running systems that have expired vendor support and lack an immediate replacement?
a. Implement proper network access restrictions.
b. Initiate a bug bounty program.
c. Classify the system as shadow IT.
d. Increase the frequency of vulnerability scans.
a. Implement proper network access restrictions.
Explanation:
Implementing proper network access restrictions is the most effective way to reduce security risks for systems with expired vendor support. This approach limits exposure to potential threats by restricting access to the vulnerable system to only those who absolutely need it. It can include measures such as segmentation, firewalls, and access control lists (ACLs). Initiating a bug bounty program is useful for identifying vulnerabilities, but it is not as immediately effective in reducing risks for unsupported systems as network access restrictions. Classifying the system as shadow IT might help in acknowledging the risk, but it does not directly mitigate the risk. Increasing the frequency of vulnerability scans can help in identifying issues more quickly, but without the ability to patch or update the system, the effectiveness of this measure is limited compared to implementing network access restrictions.
Due to unexpected circumstances, an IT company must vacate its main office, forcing all operations to alternate, off-site locations. Which of the following will the company MOST likely reference for guidance during this change?
a. The business continuity plan
b. The retention policy
c. The disaster recovery plan
d. The incident response plan
a. The business continuity plan
Explanation:
The business continuity plan (BCP) is designed to ensure that a company can continue to operate during and after a major disruption, such as having to vacate its main office. The BCP includes strategies for maintaining business operations and addressing logistical challenges, such as relocating to alternate, off-site locations. The disaster recovery plan (DRP) focuses on restoring IT systems and data after a disaster, but it is more specific to IT infrastructure rather than overall business operations. The retention policy deals with how long records and data are kept and does not address operational relocations. The incident response plan (IRP) deals with responding to specific incidents, such as security breaches, but does not typically cover broad operational changes like relocating an entire office.
While reviewing an alert that shows a malicious request on one web application, a cybersecurity analyst is alerted to a subsequent token reuse moments later on a different service using the same single sign-on method. Which of the following would BEST detect a malicious actor?
a. Utilizing SIEM correlation engines
b. Deploying Netflow at the network border
c. Disabling session tokens for all sites
d. Deploying a WAF for the web server
a. Utilizing SIEM correlation engines
Explanation:
SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) correlation engines are designed to analyze and correlate events from multiple sources across the network, including different applications and services. They can identify patterns and link related incidents, such as the reuse of a token on a different service, indicating potential malicious activity. Deploying Netflow at the network border would help monitor network traffic patterns but might not effectively correlate the specific use of tokens across different services. Disabling session tokens for all sites could disrupt user sessions and might not specifically target the detection of malicious activity. Deploying a WAF (Web Application Firewall) can protect a web server from specific web-based attacks but might not have the capability to correlate token reuse across different services using SSO.
Two organizations plan to collaborate on the evaluation of new SIEM solutions for their respective companies. A combined effort from both organizations’ SOC teams would speed up the effort. Which of the following can be written to document this agreement?
a. MOU
b. ISA
c. SLA
d. NDA
a. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding)
Explanation:
An MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that outlines the terms and details of an agreement between parties, including each party's requirements and responsibilities. It is often used to document an agreement to collaborate on projects or initiatives without the formal binding commitments of a contract. An ISA (Interconnection Security Agreement) is used to define the technical and security requirements for establishing, operating, and maintaining the interconnection of IT systems and networks. An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the level of service expected from the service provider. An NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) is a contract that establishes confidentiality between parties to protect sensitive information from being disclosed.
The Chief Information Security Officer wants to prevent exfiltration of sensitive information from employee cell phones when using public USB power charging stations. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to implement?
a. DLP
b. USB data blocker
c. USB OTG
d. Disabling USB ports
b. USB data blocker
Explanation:
A USB data blocker is designed to allow power to pass through to a device while blocking any data transfer through the USB port. This would prevent any exfiltration of sensitive information when employees use public USB power charging stations. DLP (Data Loss Prevention) solutions are typically software-based and are more suited for monitoring and controlling data within the organization's network rather than on individual cell phones in public scenarios. USB OTG (On-The-Go) is a standard that enables devices to act as a host, allowing other USB devices like keyboards or external storage to be attached, which does not address the issue of blocking data transfer in public charging stations. Disabling USB ports would prevent the use of public charging stations altogether, which is impractical for employees who need to charge their phones on the go.
The board of directors at a company contracted with an insurance firm to limit the organization’s liability. Which of the following risk management practices does this BEST describe?
a. Transference
b. Avoidance
c. Mitigation
d. Acknowledgement
a. Transference
Explanation:
Transference in risk management involves shifting the risk to a third party. By contracting with an insurance firm, the organization is transferring the financial risk associated with potential liabilities to the insurance company, thus limiting its own liability. Avoidance involves eliminating the risk entirely by not engaging in the activity that presents the risk. Mitigation involves taking steps to reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk. Acknowledgement involves recognizing the risk but choosing to accept it without transferring or mitigating it.
Which of the following is a risk that is specifically associated with hosting applications in the public cloud?
a. Unsecured root accounts
b. Zero-day
c. Shared tenancy
d. Insider threat
c. Shared tenancy
Explanation:
Shared tenancy is a risk specific to public cloud environments where multiple customers share the same physical hardware and infrastructure. This can lead to potential vulnerabilities where one tenant's security issues could potentially affect others. Unsecured root accounts and insider threats are risks that can occur in both cloud and on-premises environments. Zero-day vulnerabilities are a general security risk that can impact any environment, whether cloud-based or not.
DDoS attacks are causing an overload on the cluster of cloud servers. A security architect is researching alternatives to make the cloud environment respond to load fluctuation in a cost-effective way. Which of the following options BEST fulfills the architect’s requirements?
a. An orchestration solution that can adjust scalability of cloud assets
b. Use of multipath by adding more connections to cloud storage
c. Cloud assets replicated on geographically distributed regions
d. An on-site backup that is displayed and only used when the load increases
a. An orchestration solution that can adjust scalability of cloud assets
Explanation:
Orchestration solutions are designed to automatically manage, scale, and optimize resources in response to real-time demand. This allows the cloud environment to dynamically adjust its capacity, adding or removing resources as needed to handle load fluctuations efficiently. Multipath connections to cloud storage can enhance redundancy and performance but may not directly address the need for scalable compute resources to handle DDoS attacks. Replicating cloud assets across geographically distributed regions can provide redundancy and disaster recovery benefits but may not be as cost-effective for dynamic scalability in response to fluctuating loads. An on-site backup that is deployed only when load increases can be costly and less efficient compared to automated orchestration solutions that leverage cloud scalability features.
Which of the following documents provides expectations at a technical level for quality, availability, and responsibilities?
a. EOL
b. SLA
c. MOU
d. EOSL
b. SLA (Service Level Agreement)
Explanation:
SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that outlines the expectations between a service provider and a customer regarding the quality and availability of services. It defines metrics, responsibilities, and guarantees related to service performance, uptime, response times, and other key aspects. EOL (End of Life) and EOSL (End of Service Life) refer to the lifecycle stages of products or services, indicating when support or maintenance will end, rather than specifying operational expectations. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) outlines broader agreements between parties but may not detail technical expectations at the level of a SLA.
Which of the following is an example of transference of risk?
a. Purchasing insurance
b. Patching vulnerable servers
c. Retiring outdated applications
d. Application owner risk sign-off
a. Purchasing insurance
An employee received a word processing file that was delivered as an email attachment. The subject line and email content enticed the employee to open the attachment. Which of the following attack vectors BEST matches this malware?
a. Embedded Python code
b. Macro-enabled file
c. Bash scripting
d. Credential-harvesting website
b. Macro-enabled file
A security proposal was set up to track requests for remote access by creating a baseline of the users’ common sign-in properties. When a baseline deviation is detected, an MFA challenge will be triggered. Which of the following should be configured in order to deploy the proposal?
a. Context-aware authentication
b. Simultaneous authentication of equals
c. Extensive authentication protocol
d. Agentless network access control
a. Context-aware authentication
Explanation:
Context-aware authentication involves using various contextual factors, such as user location, time of access, device type, and typical behavior patterns, to establish a baseline of normal activity for users. When there is a deviation from this baseline (such as unusual sign-in properties), it can trigger additional security measures like Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA). In this scenario, configuring context-aware authentication allows for the detection of baseline deviations and the subsequent triggering of MFA challenges, aligning with the security proposal described.
Which of the following secure coding techniques makes compromised code more difficult for hackers to use?
a. Obfuscation
b. Normalization
c. Execution
d. Reuse
a. Obfuscation
Explanation:
Obfuscation is a technique used to make code more difficult to understand or reverse-engineer. It involves transforming code in a way that preserves its functionality but makes it harder for attackers to analyze. By obfuscating code, even if it is compromised, it becomes more challenging for hackers to quickly exploit or understand its logic, thereby increasing the complexity and effort required to use the compromised code effectively.
As part of a security compliance assessment, an auditor performs automated vulnerability scans. In addition, which of the following should the auditor do to complete the assessment?
a. User behavior analysis
b. Packet captures
c. Configuration reviews
d. Log analysis
c. Configuration reviews
Explanation:
While automated vulnerability scans are essential for identifying technical vulnerabilities, configuration reviews are necessary to assess whether systems, networks, and applications are configured securely according to best practices and compliance requirements. Configuration reviews involve examining settings, policies, access controls, and configurations against established benchmarks or standards to ensure they align with security policies and industry best practices. Together with vulnerability scans, configuration reviews provide a comprehensive view of the security posture of the organization's IT infrastructure, ensuring that both technical vulnerabilities and misconfigurations are identified and remediated.
A database administrator wants to grant access to an application that will be reading and writing data to a database. The database is shared by other applications also used by the finance department. Which of the following account types is MOST appropriate for this purpose?
a. Service
b. Shared
c. Generic
d. Admin
a. Service
Explanation:
A service account is designed for applications and services that need to access resources such as databases without human intervention. It provides controlled access to specific resources and can be configured with minimal privileges necessary for the application's functions. Unlike admin accounts, which typically have broader permissions, service accounts are restricted to specific tasks, reducing the risk of accidental or unauthorized access to sensitive data.
A security analyst generated a file named host1.pcap and shared it with a team member who is going to use it for further incident analysis. Which of the following tools will the other team member MOST likely use to open this file?
a. Autopsy
b. Memdump
c. FTK imager
d. Wireshark
d. Wireshark
Wireshark is a widely-used network protocol analyzer that allows users to capture and interactively browse the traffic running on a computer network. It supports the opening and analysis of .pcap files, making it ideal for examining network traffic for incident analysis. Autopsy and FTK Imager are forensic analysis tools primarily used for examining disk images and file systems, which are not typically used for analyzing network packet captures. Memdump refers to memory dump analysis, which is used for examining the contents of computer memory, rather than network packet captures.
An application developer accidentally uploaded a company’s code-signing certificate private key to a public web server. The company is concerned about malicious use of its certificate. Which of the following should the company do FIRST?
a. Delete the private key from the repository.
b. Verify the public key is not exposed as well.
c. Update the DLP solution to check for private keys.
d. Revoke the code-signing certificate.
d. Revoke the code-signing certificate.
Explanation:
When a company's code-signing certificate private key is compromised or exposed, the first step should be to revoke the certificate. Revocation ensures that any signatures made with the compromised key are no longer trusted. After revoking the certificate, the company should also delete the private key from any public repositories to prevent further misuse. Verifying the exposure of the public key and updating DLP solutions are important steps but revocation should be prioritized to mitigate immediate risks.
An organization implemented a process that compares the settings currently configured on systems against secure configuration guidelines in order to identify any gaps. Which of the following control types has the organization implemented?
a. Compensating
b. Corrective
c. Preventive
d. Detective
d. Detective
Explanation:
The organization has implemented a detective control. Detective controls are designed to detect and alert on deviations from established security policies, procedures, or standards. In this case, comparing the current system settings against secure configuration guidelines helps to detect any gaps or deviations that may exist, allowing the organization to take corrective actions.
The Chief Information Security Officer directed a risk reduction in shadow IT and created a policy requiring all unsanctioned high-risk SaaS applications to be blocked from user access. Which of the following is the BEST security solution to reduce this risk?
a. CASB
b. VPN concentrator
c. MFA
d. VPC endpoint
a. CASB
Explanation:
CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) is the best security solution to reduce the risk of shadow IT and unsanctioned high-risk SaaS applications. CASBs provide visibility into cloud application usage, enforce security policies, and control access to cloud services. By using CASB, organizations can monitor and block access to unsanctioned SaaS applications based on security policies, thereby reducing the risk associated with shadow IT.
VPN concentrator:
VPN concentrators are used to provide secure remote access to corporate networks. They do not specifically address the visibility and control needed over SaaS applications or shadow IT. While they can secure communications between users and the corporate network, they do not provide detailed visibility into cloud application usage or the ability to enforce policies on specific SaaS applications.
MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication):
MFA enhances security by requiring additional factors beyond just a password for authentication. While important for access security, MFA does not provide visibility or control over the use of SaaS applications. It addresses user authentication rather than the management of cloud application usage or the identification of unauthorized SaaS applications.
VPC endpoint (Virtual Private Cloud endpoint):
VPC endpoints enable private connections between a VPC and supported AWS services or other services hosted by AWS. They facilitate secure communication without exposing traffic to the public internet. However, they do not address the visibility into SaaS applications or the enforcement of policies related to shadow IT. VPC endpoints are specific to AWS services and do not provide comprehensive control over external SaaS applications used by employees.
In contrast, CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) solutions are specifically designed to monitor, manage, and secure the use of cloud applications and services, including SaaS applications. They provide visibility into which applications are being used, enforce security policies based on risk assessments, and can block access to unsanctioned applications. Therefore, CASB is the most appropriate choice for addressing the risk of shadow IT and unsanctioned SaaS applications.
A technician enables full disk encryption on a laptop that will be taken on a business trip. Which of the following does this process BEST protect?
a. Data in transit
b. Data in processing
c. Data at rest
d. Data tokenization
c. Data at rest
Explanation:
Data at rest refers to data that is stored physically in any digital form (e.g., databases, files, etc.). When full disk encryption is enabled, all data stored on the laptop's disk is encrypted. This means that if the laptop is lost or stolen, unauthorized users cannot access the data without the encryption key, thus protecting the data at rest. Data in transit refers to data actively moving from one location to another over a network. Full disk encryption does not directly protect data while it is being transmitted over a network; other encryption methods (such as SSL/TLS for web traffic) are used to protect data in transit. Data in processing refers to data being accessed and manipulated by applications or processes. Full disk encryption does not inherently protect data that is actively being used by the operating system or applications; it focuses on protecting data when it is stored on the disk. Data tokenization is a method used to protect sensitive data by replacing it with unique identification symbols (tokens) that retain essential information about the data without compromising its security. It is different from encryption, which secures data by transforming it into a ciphertext that can be reversed only with a decryption key.
A security analyst was called to investigate a file received directly from a hardware manufacturer. The analyst is trying to determine whether the file was modified in transit before installation on the user’s computer. Which of the following can be used to safely assess the file?
a. Check the hash of the installation file.
b. Match the file names.
c. Verify the URL download location.
d. Verify the code signing certificate.
a. Check the hash of the installation file.
Explanation:
Hash Verification: This involves calculating and comparing the hash value (like MD5, SHA-256, etc.) of the downloaded file with the hash value provided by the hardware manufacturer. If the hash values match, it indicates that the file has not been altered during transit.
Why this is the best option:
Checking the hash ensures the integrity of the file. Even if the file is intercepted and modified during transit, the hash value would change, alerting the analyst to potential tampering.
Matching file names and verifying the URL download location do not provide the same level of assurance against tampering as hash verification.
Verifying the code signing certificate is useful for ensuring the authenticity of the software publisher, but it does not directly confirm whether the file was modified during transit.
A help desk technician receives a phone call from someone claiming to be a part of the organization’s cybersecurity incident response team. The caller asks the technician to verify the network’s internal firewall IP Address. Which of the following is the technician’s BEST course of action?
a. Direct the caller to stop by the help desk in person and hang up declining any further requests from the caller.
b. Ask for the caller’s name, verify the person’s identity in the email directory, and provide the requested information over the phone.
c. Write down the phone number of the caller if possible, the name of the person requesting the information, hang up, and notify the organization’s cybersecurity officer.
d. Request the caller send an email for identity verification and provide the requested information via email to the caller.
c. Write down the phone number of the caller if possible, the name of the person requesting the information, hang up, and notify the organization’s cybersecurity officer.
Explanation:
Verify Identity: Asking for the caller's name and verifying it against the email directory is a good first step, but it's not foolproof. Attackers can sometimes spoof identities or use social engineering to gain information. Notification: Writing down the caller's phone number and name and then notifying the organization's cybersecurity officer ensures that a higher authority can verify the legitimacy of the request. This is crucial in cases where sensitive information like firewall IP addresses is involved. Declining Further Requests: Hanging up and declining further requests from the caller is important to prevent potential manipulation or unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information.
Options a, b, and d either involve potentially providing information to an unverified caller or do not prioritize verification and escalation to a higher authority, which could lead to security risks.
Therefore, option c is the most appropriate response to ensure security protocols are followed and the organization’s information remains protected.
(Braindump : d. Request the caller send an email for identity verification and provide the requested information via email to the caller)
Which of the following would BEST provide detective and corrective controls for thermal regulation?
a. A smoke detector
b. A fire alarm
c. An HVAC system
d. A fire suppression system
e. Guards
c. An HVAC system
Explanation:
An HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning) system is designed not only to regulate temperature but also to monitor and control environmental conditions such as humidity and air quality. HVAC systems typically have sensors that can detect anomalies in temperature and automatically adjust heating or cooling to maintain optimal conditions. In the context of providing detective controls, HVAC systems can generate alerts or notifications when temperature thresholds are exceeded, indicating potential issues. For corrective controls, HVAC systems can autonomously adjust settings or activate alarms to alert personnel to take action, such as maintenance or repairs, to prevent overheating or other thermal-related problems.
While options like smoke detectors (a), fire alarms (b), and fire suppression systems (d) are important for fire detection and prevention, they do not directly address thermal regulation concerns as comprehensively as an HVAC system. Guards (e) are physical security measures and do not provide environmental monitoring or regulation capabilities like an HVAC system does.
Which of the following is a benefit of including a risk management framework into an organization’s security approach?
a. It defines expected service levels from participating supply chain partners to ensure system outages are remediated in a timely manner.
b. It identifies specific vendor products that have been tested and approved for use in a secure environment.
c. It provides legal assurances and remedies in the event a data breach occurs.
d. It incorporates control, development, policy, and management activities into IT operations.
d. It incorporates control, development, policy, and management activities into IT operations.
Explanation:
A risk management framework (RMF) provides several benefits to an organization’s security approach:
Incorporates control, development, policy, and management activities: RMF integrates various aspects of IT operations, including identifying risks, implementing controls, developing policies, and managing security across the organization. This integration helps ensure that security considerations are embedded throughout the organization's processes and activities. Option a: This describes more about service level agreements (SLAs) and supply chain management, not directly related to the core benefits of a risk management framework. Option b: This pertains to product testing and approval, which is part of security assessments but not the primary benefit of an RMF. Option c: Legal assurances and remedies typically come from compliance frameworks and regulations rather than directly from an RMF.
Therefore, option d is the best answer as it highlights how an RMF helps organizations structure and integrate their security efforts comprehensively.
An organization maintains several environments in which patches are developed and tested before being deployed to an operational status. Which of the following is the environment in which patches will be deployed just prior to being put into an operational status?
a. Development
b. Test
c. Production
d. Staging
d. Staging
The environment in which patches will be deployed just prior to being put into an operational status is typically referred to as the Staging environment.
Explanation:
Development: This environment is where patches and new software are initially developed and coded. Test: After development, patches are tested in this environment to ensure they function correctly and do not introduce new issues. Staging: The staging environment is used for final testing before deployment to production. It mimics the production environment closely, allowing for realistic testing of patches and updates. Production: This is the live environment where applications and systems are used by end-users.
During a trial, a judge determined evidence gathered from a hard drive was not admissible. Which of the following BEST explains this reasoning?
a. The forensic investigator forgot to run a checksum on the disk image after creation.
b. The chain of custody form did not note time zone offsets between transportation regions.
c. The computer was turned off, and a RAM image could not be taken at the same time.
d. The hard drive was not properly kept in an antistatic bag when it was moved.
b, “The chain of custody form did not note time zone offsets between transportation regions.”
Explanation:
Chain of Custody: This refers to the documented trail showing the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical and electronic evidence. It ensures that evidence is handled properly and maintains its integrity. Time Zone Offsets: When evidence is moved across different time zones, it is crucial to document any changes in time to establish a clear timeline of events and ensure the integrity of the evidence.
If the chain of custody form did not accurately note the time zone offsets during transportation of the hard drive, it could raise doubts about the continuity and integrity of the evidence. This lack of documentation could lead to the judge ruling the evidence as inadmissible due to concerns over its handling and authenticity.
An organization wants to implement a biometric system with the highest likelihood that an unauthorized user will be denied access. Which of the following should the organization use to compare biometric solutions?
a. FRR
b. Difficulty of use
c. Cost
d. FAR
e. CER
d, FAR (False Acceptance Rate).
Explanation:
False Acceptance Rate (FAR): FAR represents the probability that the system incorrectly identifies an unauthorized user as an authorized user. A lower FAR indicates a lower likelihood of unauthorized access, as it means the system is less likely to incorrectly accept someone who should not have access.
In contrast:
False Rejection Rate (FRR): FRR represents the probability that the system incorrectly rejects an authorized user. While minimizing FRR is also important for user convenience, minimizing FAR is critical for security to ensure that unauthorized users are not granted access.
Therefore, by comparing biometric solutions based on their FAR values, the organization can select a system that provides the highest likelihood of denying access to unauthorized users.
(Braindump : e. CER)
A company recently experienced a significant data loss when proprietary information was leaked to a competitor. The company took special precautions by using proper labels; however, email filter logs do not have any record of the incident. An investigation confirmed the corporate network was not breached, but documents were downloaded from an employee’s COPE tablet and passed to the competitor via cloud storage. Which of the following is the BEST remediation for this data leak?
a. User training
b. CASB
c. MDM
d. DLP
d, DLP (Data Loss Prevention).
Explanation:
DLP (Data Loss Prevention): DLP solutions are designed to monitor and control the movement of sensitive data within and outside the organization's network. They can detect and prevent unauthorized transfers of sensitive information, such as documents being uploaded to unauthorized cloud storage services. CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker): While CASB solutions can monitor and control the use of cloud services and applications, they typically work in conjunction with DLP solutions rather than being a direct replacement. CASB focuses more on securing cloud applications and data rather than detecting data leaks from devices. MDM (Mobile Device Management): MDM solutions manage and secure mobile devices like tablets, including enforcing policies and managing access controls. However, in this case, the issue is not with device management but with preventing unauthorized data transfers. User Training: While user training is crucial for security awareness, it alone may not prevent sophisticated data leaks involving intentional data exfiltration via personal cloud storage.
(Braindump : d. CASB)
Explanation: While data loss prevention is the goal, in order to implement dlp in cloud applications you need to deploy a casb.
An attacker was eavesdropping on a user who was shopping online. The attacker was able to spoof the IP address associated with the shopping site. Later, the user received an email regarding the credit card statement with unusual purchases. Which of the following attacks took place?
a. On-path attack
b. Protocol poisoning
c. Domain hijacking
d. Bluejacking
a. On-path attack
Explanation:
On-path attack: In this type of attack, the attacker intercepts communication between two parties (in this case, the user and the shopping site) and can alter or eavesdrop on the data being transmitted. By spoofing the IP address of the shopping site, the attacker can misdirect the user’s communication, leading to potential interception of sensitive information like credit card details. This aligns with the scenario where the user later receives an email about unusual purchases, indicating that their credit card information may have been compromised during the transaction.
A company is considering transitioning to the cloud. The company employs individuals from various locations around the world. The company does not want to increase its on premises infrastructure blueprint and only wants to pay for additional compute power required. Which of the following solutions would BEST meet the needs of the company?
a. Private cloud
b. Hybrid environment
c. Managed security service provider
d. Hot backup site
b. Hybrid environment
Here’s why:
Hybrid environment combines aspects of both public and private clouds, allowing the company to leverage the benefits of both models. In this scenario:
The company can keep critical or sensitive data and applications on-premises or in a private cloud for security and compliance reasons.
It can use public cloud resources to scale compute power as needed without investing in additional on-premises infrastructure.
Employees from various locations around the world can access cloud resources easily, promoting flexibility and scalability.
Private clouds are hosted on-premises or by a third-party provider and offer dedicated resources for a single organization.
While private clouds provide more control and security, they typically require initial infrastructure investment and may not scale as flexibly as needed without additional hardware.
MSSPs offer outsourced monitoring and management of security devices and systems. While MSSPs can enhance security posture, they do not directly address the company's need for scalable compute resources without increasing on-premises infrastructure. A hot backup site is a replicated data center that mirrors the primary data center, ready to take over operations if the primary site fails. While important for disaster recovery and business continuity, it doesn't directly address the requirement for additional compute power on demand without increasing infrastructure.
After multiple on premises security solutions were migrated to the cloud, the incident response time increased. The analysts are spending a long time trying to trace information on different cloud consoles and correlating data in different formats. Which of the following can be used to optimize the incident response time?
a. CASB
b. VPC
c. SWG
d. CMS
a. CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)
Here’s why CASB is the most appropriate choice:
Centralized Visibility and Control: CASB solutions provide centralized visibility into cloud services being used across the organization, including shadow IT, and enforce security policies consistently across all cloud services. Data Correlation and Analysis: CASBs enable security teams to correlate data from various cloud services into a single console. This helps in quickly identifying and responding to security incidents without having to switch between multiple cloud consoles. Incident Response Automation: Some CASB solutions offer incident response automation capabilities, which can further streamline response times by automating routine tasks and responses to security incidents. Compliance Monitoring: CASBs assist in monitoring compliance with security policies and regulatory requirements across all cloud services, which is crucial after migrating security solutions to the cloud.
Why the Other Options are Less Suitable:
VPC (Virtual Private Cloud): VPCs provide isolated network environments within the cloud, focusing on network segmentation rather than incident response optimization. SWG (Secure Web Gateway): SWGs are typically used for web traffic security, not for optimizing incident response across various cloud services. CMS (Content Management System): CMS platforms are used for managing digital content and do not address incident response or security management in cloud environments.
Which of the following control types would be BEST to use in an accounting department to reduce losses from fraudulent transactions?
a. Recovery
b. Deterrent
c. Corrective
d. Detective
b. Deterrent
Reasoning:
Deterrent controls are designed to discourage potential perpetrators from committing fraudulent activities by emphasizing the potential consequences or highlighting the difficulty of successfully carrying out such activities. In an accounting department, deterrent controls can include policies and procedures that clearly outline the consequences of fraud, regular audits and reviews, segregation of duties to prevent collusion, and strong authentication and authorization mechanisms for financial transactions. Unlike corrective controls, which are implemented after an incident has occurred, deterrent controls aim to prevent fraudulent activities from happening in the first place by creating a strong deterrent effect.
Recovery controls:
Purpose: Recovery controls are focused on recovering from incidents after they have occurred, such as through insurance policies or backup systems. They do not directly prevent fraudulent transactions but rather aim to mitigate the impact after the fact.
Corrective controls:
Purpose: Corrective controls are implemented to correct issues that led to fraudulent transactions once they have been identified. Examples include improving internal controls or conducting forensic investigations post-incident. They do not prevent fraud proactively but rather respond to it after detection.
Detective controls:
Purpose: Detective controls are used to detect fraudulent transactions after they have occurred. Examples include monitoring and analytics tools that identify unusual or suspicious activities. While detective controls are important for detecting fraud early, they do not prevent fraud from happening in the first place.
A company is receiving emails with links to phishing sites that look very similar to the company’s own website address and content. Which of the following is the
BEST way for the company to mitigate this attack?
a. Create a honeynet to trap attackers who access the VPN with credentials obtained by phishing.
b. Generate a list of domains similar to the company’s own and implement a DNS sinkhole for each.
c. Disable POP and IMAP on all Internet-facing email servers and implement SMTPS.
d. Use an automated tool to flood the phishing websites with fake usernames and passwords.
b. Generate a list of domains similar to the company’s own and implement a DNS sinkhole for each.
Explanation:
DNS Sinkholing: This approach involves redirecting traffic from known malicious domains (or domains that resemble the company's legitimate domain) to a non-existent or controlled server. By implementing DNS sinkholing for domains similar to the company's own, the company can prevent users from accessing phishing sites that mimic its domain. This method is effective because it doesn't rely on users recognizing phishing emails but rather blocks access to malicious sites at the network level.
Let’s briefly assess why the other options are less effective or inappropriate:
a. Create a honeynet to trap attackers who access the VPN with credentials obtained by phishing: While honeynets can be useful for detecting and monitoring attackers, they are not directly mitigating the phishing attack itself. They focus more on detecting post-compromise activities rather than preventing initial phishing attempts. c. Disable POP and IMAP on all Internet-facing email servers and implement SMTPS: This would enhance email server security but does not directly address the issue of users being lured to phishing sites that resemble the company's domain. d. Use an automated tool to flood the phishing websites with fake usernames and passwords: This approach is not recommended as it can lead to legal and ethical issues (e.g., creating potential harm to innocent parties or violating laws against unauthorized access). It also does not prevent users from falling victim to phishing attacks.
A SOC operator is receiving continuous alerts from multiple Linux systems indicating that unsuccessful SSH attempts to a functional user ID have been attempted on each one of them in a short period of time. Which of the following BEST explains this behavior?
a. Rainbow table attack
b. Password spraying
c. Logic bomb
d. Malware bot
b. Password spraying
Explanation:
Password Spraying: This attack involves attempting a small number of commonly used passwords or passwords based on known information (such as the company name or season) against multiple accounts or systems. Unlike brute force attacks that target one user with many passwords, password spraying targets many users with a few common passwords. This method is effective because it can evade traditional brute force detection mechanisms and still potentially gain access if weak passwords are in use.
Let’s briefly assess why the other options are less likely:
a. Rainbow table attack: Rainbow table attacks are used to crack passwords that have been hashed and stored insecurely. They involve precomputed hashes, not repeated attempts with the same password across different accounts or systems. c. Logic bomb: A logic bomb is malicious code intentionally inserted into a system to execute a harmful action when certain conditions are met, such as a specific date or time. It is not related to repeated login attempts. d. Malware bot: While bots can be involved in many types of attacks, such as distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks or spreading malware, they typically do not engage in repeated unsuccessful login attempts unless specifically designed for that purpose.
A tax organization is working on a solution to validate the online submission of documents. The solution should be carried on a portable USB device that should be inserted on any computer that is transmitting a transaction securely. Which of the following is the BEST certificate for these requirements?
a. User certificate
b. Self-signed certificate
c. Computer certificate
d. Root certificate
(Braindump : a. User certificate)
(Community : A 68%, C 24%)
User Certificate: User certificates specify which resources a given user can have access to. They are sometimes used on devices that several users share. When different users log in, their profile and certificate are automatically loaded, granting them access to their required information.
Self-signed certificate: A self-signed certificate is one that is not signed by a CA at all – neither private nor public. In this case, the certificate is signed with its own private key, instead of requesting it from a public or a private CA (Certificate Authority).
Root Certificate: Root certificates are the cornerstone of authentication and security in software and on the Internet. They’re issued by a certified authority (CA) and, essentially, verify that the software/website owner is who they say they are.
So for this verification I’m completely 100% sure is A: User certificate
ChatGPT:
a. User certificate
Explanation:
A user certificate is best suited for validating the online submission of documents in this scenario. Here’s why:
User certificate: This type of certificate is typically issued to individual users and can be used for authentication, email encryption, and digital signatures. It ensures that the user submitting the document is authenticated and that the submission is secure. This fits well with the requirement to validate online submissions securely. Self-signed certificate: These are certificates that are not issued by a trusted certificate authority (CA). They are generally not suitable for secure transactions over the internet because they cannot be independently verified by a third-party CA. Computer certificate: This type of certificate is issued to devices to authenticate them on a network. While useful for ensuring that a device is trusted, it is not the best fit for validating user-submitted documents. Root certificate: This is a top-level certificate in a certificate hierarchy, used to sign other certificates. While crucial for the overall PKI infrastructure, a root certificate itself is not used directly for end-user authentication or document submission.
Thus, a user certificate is the best option for securely validating the online submission of documents using a portable USB device.
A routine audit of medical billing claims revealed that several claims were submitted without the subscriber’s knowledge. A review of the audit logs for the medical billing company’s system indicated a company employee downloaded customer records and adjusted the direct deposit information to a personal bank account.
Which of the following does this action describe?
a. Insider threat
b. Social engineering
c. Third-party risk
d. Data breach
a. Insider threat.
Explanation:
Insider threat: This refers to a threat posed to an organization's security and data by individuals within the organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners, who have authorized access. In this scenario, the employee has misused their authorized access to download customer records and manipulate direct deposit information for personal gain. Social engineering: Involves manipulating individuals to divulge confidential information or perform actions that compromise security. While social engineering can be involved in some aspects of an insider threat (such as convincing someone to provide access), the primary issue here is the misuse of authorized access rather than external manipulation. Third-party risk: Refers to risks associated with vendors, suppliers, or partners who have access to an organization's systems or data. There's no indication in the scenario that a third-party entity was directly involved in this incident. Data breach: Involves unauthorized access to sensitive data. While the employee's actions could lead to data breaches, the core issue here is the misuse of access rather than an external breach.
A recent audit cited a risk involving numerous low-criticality vulnerabilities created by a web application using a third-party library. The development staff state there are still customers using the application even though it is end of life and it would be a substantial burden to update the application for compatibility with more secure libraries. Which of the following would be the MOST prudent course of action?
a. Accept the risk if there is a clear road map for timely decommission.
b. Deny the risk due to the end-of-life status of the application.
d. Use containerization to segment the application from other applications to eliminate the risk.
d. Outsource the application to a third-party developer group.
a. Accept the risk if there is a clear road map for timely decommission.
Explanation:
Accept the risk if there is a clear road map for timely decommission: This option acknowledges the existence of low-criticality vulnerabilities in the web application due to the end-of-life status of the application and the burden associated with updating it. However, it proposes accepting the risk temporarily, under the condition that there is a clear plan and timeline for decommissioning the application. This approach allows the organization to continue serving existing customers while working towards a planned retirement or replacement of the application. Deny the risk due to the end-of-life status of the application: Denying the risk might not be feasible as the vulnerabilities still exist regardless of the application's end-of-life status. Use containerization to segment the application: While containerization can help isolate and mitigate risks, it doesn't directly address the underlying vulnerabilities in the third-party library. Outsource the application to a third-party developer group: Outsourcing might introduce additional risks and complexities, especially if the application is already nearing its end-of-life phase.
(Braindump : d. Use containerization to segment the application from other applications to eliminate the risk.)
A security analyst is evaluating solutions to deploy an additional layer of protection for a web application. The goal is to allow only encrypted communications without relying on network devices. Which of the following can be implemented?
a. HTTP security header
b. DNSSEC implementation
c. SRTP
d. S/MIME
a. HTTP security header
Explanation:
HTTP security header: Specifically, implementing HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) header ensures that all communication between the client and server occurs over HTTPS, thereby enforcing encrypted communications for the web application. This header instructs web browsers to only interact with the server using HTTPS, even if the user attempts to access the site over HTTP initially. DNSSEC implementation: DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions) is used to authenticate DNS responses, ensuring that the domain name lookup results are not tampered with, but it does not directly enforce encrypted communications between the client and server. SRTP (Secure Real-time Transport Protocol): SRTP is used for securing voice and video communications over IP networks, not typically used for securing web applications. S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions): S/MIME is used for securing email communications, not web applications.
A company labeled some documents with the public sensitivity classification. This means the documents can be accessed by:
a. employees of other companies and the press.
b. all members of the department that created the documents.
c. only the company’s employees and those listed in the document.
d. only the individuals listed in the documents.
a. employees of other companies and the press.
Here’s why:
Public Sensitivity Classification: Typically, documents classified as "public" are intended to be accessible to anyone, including the general public, employees of other companies, and the press. This classification indicates that the information within these documents is not confidential and does not pose any risk to the company if widely distributed.
The other options are more restrictive and do not align with the “public” classification:
All members of the department that created the documents: This would imply a more restricted classification, such as "internal" or "departmental." Only the company's employees and those listed in the document: This would be a more restricted classification, like "confidential" or "internal use only." Only the individuals listed in the documents: This suggests a highly restricted classification, like "confidential" or "restricted."
Which of the following is the MOST relevant security check to be performed before embedding third-party libraries in developed code?
a. Check to see if the third party has resources to create dedicated development and staging environments.
b. Verify the number of companies that downloaded the third-party code and the number of contributions on the code repository.
c. Assess existing vulnerabilities affecting the third-party code and the remediation efficiency of the libraries’ developers.
d. Read multiple penetration-testing reports for environments running software that reused the library.
c. Assess existing vulnerabilities affecting the third-party code and the remediation efficiency of the libraries’ developers.
Explanation:
Option a (Check to see if the third party has resources to create dedicated development and staging environments): While having dedicated environments is beneficial, it is not the most relevant security check when embedding third-party libraries. The primary concern should be the security of the code itself. Option b (Verify the number of companies that downloaded the third-party code and the number of contributions on the code repository): The popularity and activity on a code repository can provide some insight into the library's reliability and community support, but they do not directly address the security aspects of the code. Option d (Read multiple penetration-testing reports for environments running software that reused the library): Penetration-testing reports can be useful, but they are specific to particular environments and configurations. They might not cover all potential vulnerabilities of the library.
Option c is the most relevant security check because it directly addresses the security concerns related to the third-party library by assessing known vulnerabilities and the effectiveness of the developers in addressing those vulnerabilities. This check ensures that the library does not introduce security risks into the developed code.
A help desk technician receives an email from the Chief Information Officer (CIO) asking for documents. The technician knows the CIO is on vacation for a few weeks. Which of the following should the technician do to validate the authenticity of the email?
a. Check the metadata in the email header of the received path in reverse order to follow the email’s path.
b. Hover the mouse over the CIO’s email address to verify the email address.
c. Look at the metadata in the email header and verify the “From:” line matches the CIO’s email address.
d. Forward the email to the CIO and ask if the CIO sent the email requesting the documents.
(Community : A 47%, D40%,)
ChatGPT & Brain Dump :
a. Check the metadata in the email header of the received path in reverse order to follow the email’s path.
Explanation:
Option a (Check the metadata in the email header of the received path in reverse order to follow the email's path): This method involves examining the email headers to trace the actual path the email took to reach the technician. It can help identify if the email originated from a legitimate source or if it was spoofed. Option b (Hover the mouse over the CIO's email address to verify the email address): While this can reveal if the displayed email address matches the actual address, it does not provide complete information about the legitimacy of the email. Spoofed emails can still display the correct address. Option c (Look at the metadata in the email header and verify the "From:" line matches the CIO's email address): Checking the "From:" line alone is not sufficient because it can be easily spoofed. Comprehensive analysis of the full header metadata is required. Option d (Forward the email to the CIO and ask if the CIO sent the email requesting the documents): This is not practical if the CIO is on vacation and may not respond promptly. Additionally, forwarding a potentially malicious email can introduce risks.
A company needs to validate its updated incident response plan using a real-world scenario that will test decision points and relevant incident response actions without interrupting daily operations. Which of the following would BEST meet the company’s requirements?
a. Red-team exercise
b. Capture-the-flag exercise
c. Tabletop exercise
d. Phishing exercise
c. Tabletop exercise
Explanation:
Option a (Red-team exercise): A red-team exercise involves simulating an attack to test the company's defenses. While effective, it can be disruptive to daily operations and is more about testing security defenses rather than decision-making processes in incident response. Option b (Capture-the-flag exercise): This type of exercise is typically a competitive event that focuses on problem-solving and technical skills in a controlled environment. It is not designed to test an organization's incident response plan or decision-making processes. Option c (Tabletop exercise): A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based session where team members walk through a simulated incident scenario and discuss their responses. It is an effective way to test decision points and incident response actions without interrupting daily operations, making it the best fit for the company's requirements. Option d (Phishing exercise): A phishing exercise tests the organization's susceptibility to phishing attacks and typically focuses on the security awareness of employees. It does not validate an incident response plan or decision-making processes in the same comprehensive way as a tabletop exercise.
Option c (Tabletop exercise) is the best choice because it allows the company to validate its incident response plan by walking through a real-world scenario, testing decision points, and discussing relevant actions in a controlled, non-disruptive manner.
Security analysts are conducting an investigation of an attack that occurred inside the organization’s network. An attacker was able to collect network traffic between workstations throughout the network. The analysts review the following logs:
VLAN Address
1 0007.1r5d.3213
1 002a.7d.44.8801
1 0011.aab4.344d
The Layer 2 address table has hundreds of entries similar to the ones above. Which of the following attacks has MOST likely occurred?
a. SQL injection
b. DNS spoofing
c. MAC flooding
d. ARP poisoning
c. MAC flooding
Explanation:
Option a (SQL injection): This is a type of attack that targets databases through web applications by injecting malicious SQL queries. It is unrelated to Layer 2 (data link layer) attacks and would not involve the Layer 2 address table. Option b (DNS spoofing): This attack involves corrupting the DNS cache or responses to redirect traffic to a malicious site. It affects DNS resolution rather than the Layer 2 address table. Option c (MAC flooding): This attack involves overwhelming a network switch's MAC address table with a large number of entries. Once the table is full, the switch can start broadcasting traffic to all ports, allowing an attacker to capture network traffic between other devices on the network. The provided logs with hundreds of similar entries suggest that the switch’s MAC address table has been flooded. Option d (ARP poisoning): This attack involves sending falsified ARP messages over the network to associate the attacker's MAC address with the IP address of another device. This allows the attacker to intercept, modify, or stop data intended for the target IP address. While this could lead to interception of traffic, the scenario described fits more closely with MAC flooding due to the nature of the Layer 2 address table entries provided.
Option c (MAC flooding) is the most likely scenario because the large number of similar entries in the Layer 2 address table suggests the switch has been overwhelmed, causing it to operate in a way that exposes network traffic to the attacker.
A security policy states that common words should not be used as passwords. A security auditor was able to perform a dictionary attack against corporate credentials. Which of the following controls was being violated?
a. Password complexity
b. Password history
c. Password reuse
d. Password length
a. Password complexity
A SOC operator is analyzing a log file that contains the following entries:
[06-Apr-2021-18:00:06] GET /index.php/../../../../../../etc/passwd
[06-Apr-2021-18:01:07] GET /index.php/../../../../../../etc/shadow
[06-Apr-2021-18:01:26] GET /index.php/../../../../../../../../../../etc/passwd
[06-Apr-2021-18:02:16] GET /index.php?var1=;cat /etc/passwd;$var2=7865tgydk
[06-Apr-2021-18:02:56] GET /index.php?var1=;cat /etc/shadow;$var2=7865tgydk
Which of the following explains these log entries?
a. SQL injection and improper input-handling attempts
b. Cross-site scripting and resource exhaustion attempts
c. Command injection and directory traversal attempts
d. Error handling and privilege escalation attempts
c. Command injection and directory traversal attempts
Explanation:
c. Command injection and directory traversal attempts: The log entries show attempts to access sensitive files on the server by exploiting vulnerabilities. Specifically, the attacker is trying to use directory traversal (../../../../../../etc/passwd and ../../../../../../etc/shadow) to navigate to sensitive files. Additionally, the attacker is attempting command injection (var1=;cat /etc/passwd;) to execute commands on the server.
SQL injection and improper input-handling attempts: SQL injection involves inserting or injecting SQL queries via input data, which is not indicated by the given log entries. The log entries show attempts to access files and execute commands rather than SQL queries. Cross-site scripting and resource exhaustion attempts: Cross-site scripting (XSS) involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. Resource exhaustion attempts aim to deplete system resources. The log entries do not show evidence of either type of attack. Error handling and privilege escalation attempts: Error handling involves managing errors in a system, and privilege escalation involves gaining higher-level access. The log entries do not specifically show evidence of attempts to exploit error handling or escalate privileges directly.
Command injection and directory traversal attempts accurately describe the nature of the log entries, which involve attempts to access sensitive files and execute commands on the server.
A security incident has been resolved. Which of the following BEST describes the importance of the final phase of the incident response plan?
a. It examines and documents how well the team responded, discovers what caused the incident, and determines how the incident can be avoided in the future.
b. It returns the affected systems back into production once systems have been fully patched, data restored, and vulnerabilities addressed.
c. It identifies the incident and the scope of the breach, how it affects the production environment, and the ingress point.
d. It contains the affected systems and disconnects them from the network, preventing further spread of the attack or breach.
a. It examines and documents how well the team responded, discovers what caused the incident, and determines how the incident can be avoided in the future.
Explanation:
a. It examines and documents how well the team responded, discovers what caused the incident, and determines how the incident can be avoided in the future.: This describes the lessons learned phase, which is a critical part of the final phase of the incident response plan. It involves reviewing the incident to understand the effectiveness of the response, identifying root causes, and implementing measures to prevent future incidents. b. It returns the affected systems back into production once systems have been fully patched, data restored, and vulnerabilities addressed.: This describes the recovery phase, which occurs before the final phase. The recovery phase focuses on restoring systems to normal operation after the incident has been contained and eradicated. c. It identifies the incident and the scope of the breach, how it affects the production environment, and the ingress point.: This describes the identification phase, which occurs at the beginning of the incident response process. This phase involves detecting and analyzing the incident to understand its scope and impact. d. It contains the affected systems and disconnects them from the network, preventing further spread of the attack or breach.: This describes the containment phase, which focuses on limiting the spread and impact of the incident. It is not the final phase of the incident response plan.
The final phase of the incident response plan is crucial for improving future responses and enhancing the overall security posture of the organization. It provides an opportunity to learn from the incident and implement changes to prevent recurrence.
HOTSPOT (Drag and Drop is not supported)
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Hot Area:
- Attack Description :
An attacker sends multiple SYNC packets from multiple sources
Web server : Target Web Server - Attack Description :
The attack establishes a connection, which allows remote commands to be executed
Web server : User - Attack Description :
The attack is self propagating and compromises a SQL database using well-known credentials as it moves through the network
Web Server : Database server - Attack Description :
The attacker uses hardware to remotely monitor a user’s input activity to harvest credentials
Web Server : Executive - Attack Description :
The attacker embeds hidden access in an internally developed application that bypasses account login
Web Server : Application
Attack identified Best preventative or Remediation Action
a. Botnet a. Enable DDoS protection
b. RAT b. Patch Vulnerable systems
c. Logic Bomb c. Disable vulnerable services
d. Backdoor d. Change the default system password
e. Virus e. Update cryptographic algorithms
f. Spyware f. Change the default application password
g. Worm g. Implement 2FA using push notification
h. Adware h. Conduct a code review
i. Ransomware i. Implement a application fuzzing
j. Keylogger j. Implement a host-based IPS
k. Phishing k. Disable remote access service
An attacker sends multiple SYNC packets from multiple sources
Botnet, Enable DDoS protection
The attack establishes a conneciton which allows remote commands to be executed
RAT, Disable Remote access services
The attack is self-propagating and compromises a SQL database using well-known credentials as it moves though the network
Worm, change default application password
The attacker uses hardware to remotely monitor a user’s input activity to harvest credentials
Keylogger, implement 2FA using push notification
The attacker embeds hidden access in an internally developed application that bypasses account login
Backdoor, Conduct a code review
SIMULATION
A company recently added a DR site and is redesigning the network. Users at the DR site are having issues browsing websites.
https://free-braindumps.com/comptia/free-sy0-601-braindumps.html?p=40
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on each firewall to do the following:
1. Deny cleartext web traffic.
2. Ensure secure management protocols are used.
3. Resolve issues at the DR site.
The ruleset order cannot be modified due to outside constraints.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Firewall 1:
10.0.0.1/24 - ANY - DNS - PERMIT
10.0.0.1/24 - ANY - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.0.1/24 - SSH - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.0.1/24 - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.0.1/24 - HTTP - DENY
Firewall 2:
10.0.1.1/24 - ANY - DNS - PERMIT
10.0.1.1/24 - ANY - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.1.1/24 - SSH - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.1.1/24 - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 10.0.1.1/24 - HTTP - DENY
Firewall 3:
192.168.0.1/24 - ANY - DNS - PERMIT
192.168.0.1/24 - ANY - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 192.168.0.1/24 - SSH - PERMIT
ANY - 192.168.0.1/24 - HTTPS - PERMIT
ANY - 192.168.0.1/24 - HTTP - DENY
SIMULATION
An attack has occurred against a company.
https://free-braindumps.com/comptia/free-sy0-601-braindumps.html?p=40
INSTRUCTIONS
You have been tasked to do the following:
-Identify the type of attack that is occurring on the network by clicking on the attacker’s tablet and reviewing the output.
-Identify which compensating controls a developer should implement on the assets, in order to reduce the effectiveness of future attacks by dragging them to the correct server.
All objects will be used, but not all placeholders may be filled. Objects may only be used once.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Select type of attack :
1. SQL Injection
2. Cross Site Scripting
3. XML injection
4. Session Hijacking
Drag & drop :
Input validation
Code Review
WAF
URL Filtering
Record Level Access Control
against servers :
Web Server
Database
Application Source Code withing Repository
CRM Server
- Cross Site Scripting
Web Server : WAF (Web Application Firewall), URL Filtering
Database : Input Validation
Application Source Code withing Repository : Code Review
CRM Server : Record level access control
SIMULATION
https://free-braindumps.com/comptia/free-sy0-601-braindumps.html?p=40
A systems administrator needs to install a new wireless network for authenticated guest access. The wireless network should support 802.1X using the most secure encryption and protocol available.
INSTRUCTIONS
Perform the following steps:
4. Configure the RADIUS server.
5. Configure the WiFi controller.
6. Preconfigure the client for an incoming guest. The guest AD credentials are:
User: guest01
Password: guestpass
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
WiFi Controller
SSID : CORPGUEST
Shared Key:
AAA Server IP :
PSK :
Authentication type :
Controller IP : 192.168.1.10
RADIUS server
Shared Key : SECRET
Client IP :
Authentication type :
Server IP: 192.168.1.20
Wireless Client
SSID :
Username :
User password :
PSK :
Authentication type :
WiFi Controller
SSID : CORPGUEST
Shared Key: SECRET
AAA Server IP : 192.168.1.20
PSK : Zack@123+
Authentication type : WPA2-PSK
Controller IP : 192.168.1.10
RADIUS server
Shared Key : SECRET
Client IP : 192.168.1.10
Authentication type : Active Directory
Server IP: 192.168.1.20
Wireless Client
SSID : CORPGUEST
Username : guest01
User password : guestpass
PSK : Zack@123+
Authentication type : WPA-PSK
HOTSPOT (Drag and Drop is not supported)
An incident has occurred in the production environment.
INSTRUCTIONS
Analyze the command outputs and identify the type of compromise.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Hot Area:
- Command ouput1
$ cat /var/log/www/file.sh
#!/bin/bash
user=’grep john /etc/password’
if [ $user = “”]; then
msql -u root -p mys3cr2tdbpw -e “drop database production”
fi
$crontab -l
*/5 * * * * /var/log/www/file.sh
Compromise type 1 :
a. RAT
b. Backdoor
c. Logic bomb
d. SQL injection
e. Rootkit
- Command Output 2
$ cat /var/log/www/file.sh
$!/bin/bash
date=”date +%Y-%m-%y”
echo “type in your full name : “
read loggedName
nc -l -p 31337 -e /bin/bash
wget www.eicar.org/download/eicar.com/txt
echo “Hello, $loggedInName the virus file has been downloaded”
Compromised Type 2 :
a. SQL injection
b. RAT
c. Rootkit
d. Backdoor
e. Logic bomb
- e. Rootkit
- b. RAT
After a recent security incident, a security analyst discovered that unnecessary ports were open on a firewall policy for a web server. Which of the following firewall polices would be MOST secure for a web server?
a. source Destination Port Action
Any Any TCP 53 Allow
Any Any TCP 80 Allow
Any Any TCP 443 Allow
Any Any Any Any
b. source Destination Port Action
Any Any TCP 53 Deny
Any Any TCP 80 Allow
Any Any TCP 443 Allow
Any Any Any Allow
c. source Destination Port Action
Any Any TCP 80 Deny
Any Any TCP 443 Allow
Any Any Any Allow
d. source Destination Port Action
Any Any TCP 80 Allow
Any Any TCP 443 Allow
Any Any Any Deny
d. source Destination Port Action
Any Any TCP 80 Allow
Any Any TCP 443 Allow
Any Any Any Deny
A large bank with two geographically dispersed data centers is concerned about major power disruptions at both locations. Every day each location experiences very brief outages that last for a few seconds. However, during the summer a high risk of intentional brownouts that last up to an hour exists, particularly at one of the locations near an industrial smelter. Which of the following is the BEST solution to reduce the risk of data loss?
a. Dual supply
b. Generator
c. UPS
d. POU
e. Daily backups
c. UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply)
Explanation:
A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is the best solution in this scenario for several reasons:
Brief outages: A UPS can provide immediate power during brief outages that last for a few seconds to a few minutes, ensuring that equipment stays operational without interruption. Extended outages and brownouts: While a UPS can handle brief outages on its own, it can also bridge the gap until a backup generator can be brought online during longer outages or intentional brownouts. Protection from power fluctuations: A UPS can protect against power surges and brownouts, which can damage sensitive equipment or cause data corruption.
Here’s why other options are less suitable:
Dual supply: This ensures redundancy by using two power sources, but if both sources are affected by the same disruption (e.g., a brownout), it won't fully mitigate the risk. Generator: A generator is excellent for extended outages, but it takes time to start up and does not protect against very brief outages. Combining a UPS with a generator would be ideal, but the UPS alone is necessary to handle the immediate power loss. POU (Power Outlet Unit): This is typically used for distributing power within a data center but does not provide backup power. Daily backups: While important for data recovery, they do not prevent data loss or service interruption during the power outages themselves. They address data loss after the fact, not in real-time.
Thus, a UPS is the most effective immediate solution to prevent data loss and ensure continuous operation during brief outages and while transitioning to a backup generator during extended power disruptions.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to analyze diskless malware that has infected a VDI?
a. Shut down the VDI and copy off the event logs.
b. Take a memory snapshot of the running system.
c. Use NetFlow to identify command-and-control IPs.
d. Run a full on-demand scan of the root volume.
b. Take a memory snapshot of the running system
VDI = Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
Here’s why this is the preferred option:
Preserves Current State: Taking a memory snapshot captures the current state of the running system, including any processes, network connections, and memory-resident malware. Forensic Analysis: Memory snapshots allow forensic analysts to examine the active memory of the infected VDI instance. This can reveal running processes, injected code, network connections, and potentially malicious behavior. Non-invasive: Unlike shutting down the VDI (option a), which could potentially disrupt or alter the malware's behavior, taking a memory snapshot is non-invasive and allows the VDI to continue running, potentially gathering more information about the malware's activities. Focus on Volatile Data: Diskless malware typically operates in memory and may leave minimal traces on disk, making memory analysis crucial for identifying and understanding its activities.
Options c and d (using NetFlow to identify command-and-control IPs and running a full on-demand scan of the root volume) are less effective for analyzing diskless malware in a VDI context. NetFlow analysis might not capture all relevant details of a diskless malware’s behavior, and a traditional on-demand scan may not detect malware that operates entirely in memory.
Users are presented with a banner upon each login to a workstation. The banner mentions that users are not entitled to any reasonable expectation of privacy and access is for authorized personnel only. In order to proceed past that banner, users must click the OK button. Which of the following is this an example of?
a. AUP
b. NDA
c. SLA
d. MOU
a. AUP (Acceptable Use Policy)
Here’s why:
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP): AUPs are policies that define the rules and guidelines for using an organization's IT resources, including workstations and networks. They typically inform users about their responsibilities and limitations regarding the use of these resources. A banner presented at login that users must acknowledge (by clicking OK) serves as a form of acknowledgment and agreement to comply with the AUP. Banner Warning: The banner presented to users upon login informs them that they have no reasonable expectation of privacy and that access is only for authorized personnel. By clicking OK, users acknowledge their understanding of these terms and agree to abide by them.
Options b, c, and d are not directly related to the scenario described:
NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement): An NDA is a legal contract that outlines confidential material, knowledge, or information that parties wish to share with one another for certain purposes, but wish to restrict access to or by third parties. SLA (Service Level Agreement): An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of service the customer can expect, including metrics like uptime and response times. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): An MOU is a document outlining an agreement between parties that may not be legally binding but indicates a willingness to move forward with a certain course of action.
AUP vs NDA :
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP):
AUPs govern the proper use of an organization's IT resources, defining rules and guidelines for users regarding access, behavior, and responsibilities.
Typically, AUPs are presented to users upon accessing IT systems, requiring their acknowledgment and agreement to comply with stated policies.
In the scenario described, users acknowledge their understanding and agreement to comply with the organization's IT usage policies (such as privacy expectations and authorized access) by clicking OK on a banner.
Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA):
NDAs are legal agreements between parties to protect confidential information shared during specific interactions or projects.
They outline what information is considered confidential, who can access it, and the consequences of disclosing that information to unauthorized parties.
NDAs are typically used in situations where confidential information, trade secrets, or proprietary data need protection from unauthorized disclosure.
In the scenario where users are presented with a banner upon login, the primary focus is on informing users about their responsibilities and limitations regarding IT system usage, not about protecting specific confidential information or trade secrets. Therefore, while NDAs are crucial for protecting sensitive information in certain contexts, they are not directly applicable to the situation where users are agreeing to comply with IT usage policies.
In summary, AUP is the most appropriate answer because it directly relates to the rules governing the use of IT resources and user responsibilities in the described scenario.
(Braindump : b)
The Chief Information Security Officer is concerned about employees using personal email rather than company email to communicate with clients and sending sensitive business information and PII. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to install on the employees’ workstations to prevent information from leaving the company’s network?
a. HIPS
b. DLP
c. HIDS
d. EDR
b. DLP (Data Loss Prevention)
Here’s why DLP is the most appropriate choice:
Data Loss Prevention (DLP): DLP solutions are designed to monitor, detect, and prevent the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data outside the organization's network. They can enforce policies that govern what type of data can be sent via email, including scanning email content and attachments for sensitive information like PII, financial data, or confidential business information. Functionality: DLP solutions can identify sensitive data based on predefined policies (such as keywords, regular expressions, or data classification) and enforce actions (such as blocking, encrypting, or alerting) when unauthorized transmissions occur. Application to the Scenario: In this case, deploying DLP on employees' workstations would help mitigate the risk of employees inadvertently or intentionally sending sensitive information via personal email accounts. It provides a proactive measure to enforce company policies regarding data protection and ensures that sensitive data remains within authorized channels.
In contrast, the other options are less directly focused on preventing unauthorized data transmission via personal email:
HIPS (Host-based Intrusion Prevention System): Primarily focused on detecting and blocking unauthorized network attacks and exploits targeting specific host systems. HIDS (Host-based Intrusion Detection System): Monitors and analyzes the internals of a computing system (like logs and file system changes) for signs of intrusion or unauthorized activities. EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response): Provides real-time monitoring and response to threats on endpoints, focusing more on detecting and responding to malicious activities rather than preventing data loss through unauthorized emails.
(Braindump : d. EDR)
On the way into a secure building, an unknown individual strikes up a conversation with an employee. The employee scans the required badge at the door while the unknown individual holds the door open, seemingly out of courtesy, for the employee. Which of the following social engineering techniques is being utilized?
a. Shoulder surfing
b. Watering-hole attack
c. Tailgating
d. Impersonation
c. Tailgating
Explanation:
Tailgating: This occurs when an unauthorized individual follows closely behind an authorized person to gain entry into a restricted area without proper authentication. In this case, the unknown individual is taking advantage of the employee's courtesy by holding the door open and thereby bypassing the secure access control, exploiting the trusting nature of the employee. Shoulder surfing: Involves observing someone's confidential information (like passwords or PINs) by looking over their shoulder as they enter it. Watering-hole attack: Targets a specific group by compromising websites they are likely to visit, rather than physical access scenarios. Impersonation: Involves pretending to be someone else to gain access, which is not explicitly demonstrated in the scenario provided.
Two hospitals merged into a single organization. The privacy officer requested a review of all records to ensure encryption was used during record storage, in compliance with regulations. During the review, the officer discovered that medical diagnosis codes and patient names were left unsecured. Which of the following types of data does this combination BEST represent?
a. Personal health information
b. Personally identifiable information
c. Tokenized data
d. Proprietary data
a. Personal health information (PHI)
Explanation:
Personal health information (PHI) includes any individually identifiable health information that is held or maintained by a covered entity or business associate. This includes medical diagnosis codes, patient names, and other health-related information. Personally identifiable information (PII) typically refers to any information that can be used to identify an individual, which could include personal health information but is broader in scope. Tokenized data refers to data that has been replaced with a non-sensitive equivalent (token) that has no extrinsic or exploitable meaning or value. Proprietary data refers to information that is owned or controlled by an organization and is not specifically related to personal or health information.
In the context provided, the concern about medical diagnosis codes and patient names being left unsecured directly relates to the privacy and security requirements around personal health information (PHI), making option a. Personal health information the most appropriate choice.
A company discovered that terabytes of data have been exfiltrated over the past year after an employee clicked on an email link. The threat continued to evolve and remain undetected until a security analyst noticed an abnormal amount of external connections when the employee was not working. Which of the following is the MOST likely threat actor?
a. Shadow IT
b. Script kiddies
c. APT
d. Insider threat
c. APT (Advanced Persistent Threat)
Explanation:
Advanced Persistent Threat (APT): APTs are sophisticated adversaries, often state-sponsored or well-funded, that conduct prolonged and targeted attacks on specific organizations. They are characterized by their ability to remain undetected for extended periods, exfiltrate large amounts of data, and adapt their tactics to avoid detection.
Here’s why the other options are less likely:
Shadow IT: Refers to unauthorized applications or services used within an organization without explicit approval. While it can pose security risks, it typically doesn't involve sophisticated data exfiltration over an extended period as described. Script kiddies: Usually refer to individuals with limited technical skills who use existing scripts or tools to launch simple attacks. They are unlikely to sustain a sophisticated operation over a year without detection. Insider threat: While an insider could be involved in data exfiltration, the prolonged nature and sophistication of the attack described (abnormal external connections over a long period) suggest a more organized and persistent threat actor than a typical insider threat scenario.
Therefore, considering the prolonged and stealthy nature of the attack targeting specific data, an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) is the most plausible threat actor in this case.
(Braindump : d. Insider threat)
An untrusted SSL certificate was discovered during the most recent vulnerability scan. A security analyst determines the certificate is signed properly and is a valid wildcard. This same certificate is installed on the other company servers without issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this finding?
a. The required intermediate certificate is not loaded as part of the certificate chain.
b. The certificate is on the CRL and is no longer valid.
c. The corporate CA has expired on every server, causing the certificate to fail verification.
d. The scanner is incorrectly configured to not trust this certificate when detected on the server.
a. The required intermediate certificate is not loaded as part of the certificate chain.
Explanation:
Intermediate Certificate: When an SSL/TLS certificate is issued, it often relies on an intermediate certificate (or chain of intermediate certificates) to verify its authenticity up to a trusted root certificate authority (CA). If the intermediate certificate is not properly installed on the server along with the SSL certificate, the server may not send the full certificate chain during the SSL handshake.
SSL Certificate Chain: During the SSL handshake process, the client (vulnerability scanner, in this case) needs to verify the entire chain of certificates from the server's SSL certificate up to a trusted root certificate authority. If any intermediate certificate is missing, the chain of trust is broken, and the certificate might appear as untrusted to the scanner.
Other Options Explanation:
b. The certificate is on the CRL and is no longer valid: This would typically result in the certificate being flagged as revoked, not untrusted.
c. The corporate CA has expired on every server, causing the certificate to fail verification: This would indicate an issue with the corporate CA's validity, not specifically with the SSL certificate's trust status.
d. The scanner is incorrectly configured to not trust this certificate when detected on the server: This would be a configuration issue on the scanner side and less likely the reason for the untrusted status if the certificate is valid and properly configured on other servers.
Therefore, a. The required intermediate certificate is not loaded as part of the certificate chain is the most likely reason for the vulnerability scanner to report the SSL certificate as untrusted despite its validity and installation on other servers without issue.
A company wants to improve end users’ experiences when they log in to a trusted partner website. The company does not want the users to be issued separate credentials for the partner website. Which of the following should be implemented to allow users to authenticate using their own credentials to log in to the trusted partner’s website?
a. Directory service
b. AAA server
c. Federation
d. Multifactor authentication
c. Federation
Explanation:
Federation enables a single sign-on (SSO) experience across different organizations or domains. It allows users to use their existing credentials from one organization (in this case, the company's credentials) to access services and resources in another organization (the trusted partner's website).
How Federation Works:
The company and the trusted partner establish a trust relationship.
Users authenticate once with their company's identity provider (IdP).
Upon accessing the trusted partner's website, the company's IdP securely passes authentication information to the partner's service provider (SP).
The SP trusts the authentication from the IdP and grants access without requiring the user to re-enter credentials.
Benefits of Federation:
Simplifies user experience by eliminating the need for separate credentials.
Enhances security as authentication and authorization are handled centrally by the company's IdP.
Reduces administrative overhead by managing user accounts centrally.
Other Options Explained:
a. Directory service: While directory services manage user identities and permissions within an organization, they typically do not facilitate SSO across different domains or organizations. b. AAA server (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting): AAA servers are used for managing network access and are not specifically designed for cross-organization authentication. d. Multifactor authentication (MFA): While MFA enhances security by requiring multiple factors for authentication, it does not address the requirement of using existing credentials across organizations without issuing separate credentials.
A company is under investigation for possible fraud. As part of the investigation, the authorities need to review all emails and ensure data is not deleted. Which of the following should the company implement to assist in the investigation?
a. Legal hold
b. Chain of custody
c. Data loss prevention
d. Content filter
a. Legal hold
Explanation:
Legal hold is a process in which an organization preserves all relevant information related to a legal case or investigation. It ensures that potentially relevant data, including emails, cannot be deleted, altered, or destroyed. Here’s why it's the correct choice: Preservation of Data: Legal hold mandates that all potentially relevant data, including emails, must be preserved in its original state. This prevents any tampering or deletion that could hinder the investigation. Compliance: It ensures compliance with legal and regulatory requirements by preserving data that may be subject to investigation or litigation. Process: Legal hold involves identifying and suspending the routine deletion or modification of relevant data, including emails, and keeping them intact until the hold is lifted.
Other Options Explained:
b. Chain of custody: Chain of custody refers to the chronological documentation or paper trail that records the sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of physical and electronic evidence. While important for maintaining evidence integrity, it primarily applies to physical evidence rather than digital data like emails. c. Data loss prevention (DLP): DLP systems aim to prevent unauthorized transmission of sensitive information outside the organization. While they can help prevent accidental or malicious data leaks, they do not specifically ensure that data is preserved for legal investigations. d. Content filter: Content filters are used to monitor and control the flow of data, typically to enforce acceptable use policies and protect against malware and phishing. They do not focus on preserving data for legal investigations.
Therefore, a. Legal hold is the best choice for ensuring that emails and other relevant data are preserved intact and accessible for the investigation without the risk of deletion or alteration.
A user wanted to catch up on some work over the weekend but had issues logging in to the corporate network using a VPN. On Monday, the user opened a ticket for this issue but was able to log in successfully. Which of the following BEST describes the policy that is being implemented?
a. Time-based logins
b. Geofencing
c. Network location
d. Password history
a. Time-based logins
Explanation:
Time-based logins refer to policies or configurations that restrict or allow access to systems, networks, or applications based on specific times or schedules. In this case:
The user experienced issues logging in over the weekend but was able to log in successfully on Monday.
This inconsistency suggests that access might be restricted or problematic during non-standard hours (such as weekends) due to time-based access controls.
Why the Other Options are Not Appropriate:
b. Geofencing: Geofencing policies restrict access based on the physical location of the user. However, the issue described does not involve location-based access restrictions but rather time-based access. c. Network location: Similar to geofencing, network location policies define access based on the user's network location (e.g., internal network vs. external network). This scenario does not indicate any issues related to network location restrictions. d. Password history: Password history policies dictate how frequently passwords can be reused or how often they must be changed. This is unrelated to the described issue of intermittent access during specific times.
Therefore, a. Time-based logins is the most appropriate description of the policy being implemented based on the user’s experience of successful login during standard work hours but issues during the weekend.
A major political party experienced a server breach. The hacker then publicly posted stolen internal communications concerning campaign strategies to give the opposition party an advantage. Which of the following BEST describes these threat actors?
a. Semi-authorized hackers
b. State actors
c. Script kiddies
d. Advanced persistent threats
b. State actors
Explanation:
State actors are typically government-sponsored entities or groups acting on behalf of a government. They often have significant resources, capabilities, and motivations to conduct cyber attacks for political, economic, or military purposes.
Why the Other Options are Not Appropriate:
a. Semi-authorized hackers: This term is less commonly used in cybersecurity and does not specifically denote state-sponsored activity. It might imply individuals with some level of authorization but does not fit the description of government-backed actors. c. Script kiddies: Script kiddies are individuals who use existing tools and scripts to launch attacks without deep technical knowledge. They are generally not sophisticated enough to orchestrate a breach of this scale or purpose. d. Advanced persistent threats (APTs): APTs are typically sophisticated threat actors that maintain long-term access to a target network or system for espionage or data exfiltration. While they can be state-sponsored, the scenario does not explicitly describe ongoing persistence but rather a breach and immediate public dissemination.
Therefore, b. State actors best describes the threat actors involved in breaching a major political party’s server and leaking sensitive communications for political advantage.
A company is required to continue using legacy software to support a critical service. Which of the following BEST explains a risk of this practice?
a. Default system configuration
b. Unsecure protocols
c. Lack of vendor support
d. Weak encryption
c. Lack of vendor support
Explanation:
Legacy software often ceases to receive vendor support over time, which means the vendor no longer provides updates, security patches, or technical assistance. This lack of support leaves the software vulnerable to newly discovered vulnerabilities and exploits.
Why the Other Options are Not Appropriate:
a. Default system configuration: While legacy software may retain default configurations, the primary risk lies in the absence of security updates rather than the configuration itself. b. Unsecure protocols: This could be a concern with legacy software, but it's not the most direct risk associated with continuing to use it. The lack of vendor support poses a more immediate threat. d. Weak encryption: This could also be a concern depending on the software, but again, it's not the most direct risk posed by lack of vendor support.
Therefore, c. Lack of vendor support is the best explanation because it directly addresses the risk of not receiving necessary updates and patches to secure the software against evolving threats.
A security analyst has been tasked with ensuring all programs that are deployed into the enterprise have been assessed in a runtime environment. Any critical issues found in the program must be sent back to the developer for verification and remediation. Which of the following BEST describes the type of assessment taking place?
a. Input validation
b. Dynamic code analysis
c. Fuzzing
d. Manual code review
b. Dynamic code analysis
Explanation:
Dynamic code analysis, also known as dynamic application security testing (DAST), involves assessing applications in a runtime environment to identify vulnerabilities and security issues. This process typically involves interacting with the running application to simulate how an attacker might exploit it. It focuses on identifying weaknesses that could be exploited while the application is running.
Why the Other Options are Not Appropriate:
a. Input validation: This term refers to a specific aspect of security testing related to ensuring that input data is correctly handled and validated by the application, which is different from the broader runtime assessment described. c. Fuzzing: Fuzzing involves feeding invalid, unexpected, or random data as inputs to a software application to identify vulnerabilities. While related to dynamic analysis, it specifically focuses on input handling and fault tolerance testing. d. Manual code review: This involves a manual inspection of the source code to identify potential security issues and bugs before deployment, which is not the same as assessing programs in a runtime environment.
Therefore, b. Dynamic code analysis aligns best with the scenario where runtime assessment is conducted to find critical issues in deployed programs.
Which of the following can work as an authentication method and as an alerting mechanism for unauthorized access attempts?
a. Smart card
b. Push notifications
c. Attestation service
d. HMAC-based
e. one-time password
b. Push notifications
Explanation:
Push notifications can serve a dual purpose in security:
Authentication Method: Push notifications are commonly used in two-factor authentication (2FA) setups where a user receives a push notification on their registered device (like a smartphone) to approve or deny access to an application or service. Alerting Mechanism: Push notifications can also serve as an alerting mechanism for unauthorized access attempts. If an unauthorized attempt is made and triggers a push notification (even if the user doesn't approve it), it can alert the user and possibly security operations about the attempted access.
Why the Other Options are Not as Suitable:
a. Smart card: While smart cards provide authentication, they do not typically function as alerting mechanisms for unauthorized access attempts. c. Attestation service: Attestation services verify the integrity and authenticity of software and hardware components but are not directly involved in user authentication or unauthorized access alerting. d. HMAC-based: HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication Code) is a mechanism used for message integrity and authentication but is not typically used as an authentication method for users or for alerting unauthorized access attempts. e. One-time password: One-time passwords (OTP) are used for authentication but do not directly serve as alerting mechanisms for unauthorized access attempts.
Therefore, b. Push notifications is the most appropriate choice as it integrates authentication with the ability to alert users and administrators about potential unauthorized access attempts in real-time.
A company has a flat network in the cloud. The company needs to implement a solution to segment its production and non-production servers without migrating servers to a new network. Which of the following solutions should the company implement?
a. Intranet
b. Screened subnet
c. VLAN segmentation
d. Zero Trust
c. VLAN segmentation
Explanation:
VLAN segmentation allows you to logically divide a single physical network into multiple virtual networks (VLANs). Each VLAN operates as a separate broadcast domain, enabling you to isolate traffic between different segments. This segmentation can be achieved without physically restructuring the network, making it ideal for cloud environments where servers are often provisioned within a single network segment.
Intranet: An intranet is a private network within an organization, typically accessed via a VPN or similar secure connection, but it doesn't provide segmentation within a single network. Screened subnet: This involves placing a firewall between two networks to control traffic, which may not be directly applicable to a cloud environment without additional complexity. Zero Trust: Zero Trust is a security model that assumes all access attempts are potentially malicious and verifies each request as though it originates from an open network, but it's a broader strategy rather than a specific segmentation solution.
Therefore, VLAN segmentation is the most practical solution for segmenting production and non-production servers within a flat network in the cloud, allowing for isolation of traffic and enhanced security without the need for physical network restructuring.
The president of a regional bank likes to frequently provide SOC tours to potential investors. Which of the following policies BEST reduces the risk of malicious activity occurring after a tour?
a. Password complexity
b. Acceptable use
c. Access control
d. Clean desk
(Community D 70%, C 30%)
d. Clean desk
Here’s why:
Clean Desk Policy: This policy ensures that sensitive information, documents, and equipment are not left unattended or visible when not in use. It minimizes the risk of visitors or unauthorized individuals accessing or capturing confidential information during SOC tours. By keeping workspaces clear of unnecessary items, especially when tours are being conducted, the chances of accidental exposure or intentional data theft are significantly reduced.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
Password complexity: While important for securing access to systems, this policy does not directly address the physical security risks associated with tours of the SOC. Acceptable use: This policy governs the appropriate use of organizational resources by employees. While crucial, it does not specifically mitigate the risks associated with physical tours of the SOC. Access control: Access control policies are essential for managing who can enter and interact with various systems and areas. However, this option does not directly address the issue of securing physical spaces and preventing unauthorized access to sensitive information during tours.
Therefore, implementing a Clean Desk Policy is the most effective measure to mitigate the risk of malicious activity following SOC tours by ensuring that sensitive information is not exposed to visitors.
A Chief Information Security Officer has defined resiliency requirements for a new data center architecture. The requirements are as follows:
-Critical fileshares will remain accessible during and after a natural disaster.
-Five percent of hard disks can fail at any given time without impacting the data.
-Systems will be forced to shut down gracefully when battery levels are below 20%.
Which of the following are required to BEST meet these objectives? (Choose three.)
a. Fiber switching
b. IaC
c. NAS
d. RAID
e. UPS
f. Redundant power supplies
g. Geographic dispersal
h. Snapshots
i. Load balancing
(Community DEG 79%)
d. RAID
e. UPS
g. Geographic dispersal
Here’s why:
RAID (Redundant Array of Independent Disks): This meets the requirement of allowing up to five percent of hard disks to fail without impacting the data. RAID configurations provide disk redundancy and fault tolerance. UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply): This ensures that systems will be forced to shut down gracefully when battery levels are below 20%. A UPS provides backup power and can manage safe shutdowns during power outages. Geographic dispersal: This ensures that critical fileshares will remain accessible during and after a natural disaster. By distributing data centers geographically, the risk of a single natural disaster affecting all data centers is minimized, enhancing availability and disaster recovery capabilities.
The other options are beneficial for overall infrastructure but do not directly address the specific resiliency requirements outlined:
Fiber switching: Improves network performance and redundancy but does not directly relate to the specified requirements. IaC (Infrastructure as Code): Enhances deployment and management efficiency but does not directly address the specific resiliency requirements. NAS (Network Attached Storage): Provides centralized storage but does not inherently offer the resiliency required. Redundant power supplies: Improve power redundancy but do not specifically ensure a graceful shutdown or data accessibility during a disaster. Snapshots: Provide data backups but do not ensure continuous availability during a disaster. Load balancing: Distributes workloads but does not directly address the specified resiliency requirements.
Which of the following is a security best practice that ensures the integrity of aggregated log files within a SIEM?
a. Set up hashing on the source log file servers that complies with local regulatory requirements.
b. Back up the aggregated log files at least two times a day or as stated by local regulatory requirements.
c. Write protect the aggregated log files and move them to an isolated server with limited access.
d. Back up the source log files and archive them for at least six years or in accordance with local regulatory requirements.
(Community : A 52%, C 48%)
c. Write protect the aggregated log files and move them to an isolated server with limited access.
The question asks about integrity of the AGGREGATE logs. Answer choice A only mentions hashing the source logs. Either way, hashing does not provide integrity. Rather, hashing will detect whether or not the integrity of a particular piece of data is maintained, but hashing on it’s own will not ENSURE the integrity. You need a preventative control, which would be storing on a write-protected server.
Here’s a breakdown of why option C is the best choice for ensuring the integrity of aggregated log files within a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system:
Write Protection: This prevents any modifications to the log files after they are created. Once logs are written, protecting them from changes ensures that the data remains trustworthy and tamper-proof.
Isolated Server with Limited Access: By storing the logs on an isolated server, you reduce the risk of unauthorized access and potential tampering. Limited access control ensures that only designated personnel can interact with the logs, further securing the integrity of the data.
c. Write protect the aggregated log files and move them to an isolated server with limited access.
Explanation:
Ensuring the integrity of aggregated log files within a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system is crucial for accurate incident detection, investigation, and compliance. Here’s why option (c) is the best practice:
Write protection: Prevents unauthorized modifications to the log files, ensuring that once logs are aggregated and written, they cannot be altered. This is critical for maintaining their integrity. Isolated server with limited access: By moving the log files to an isolated server, the risk of tampering or unauthorized access is significantly reduced. Limited access ensures that only authorized personnel can interact with the log files, further protecting their integrity.
Here’s why other options are less suitable:
Set up hashing on the source log file servers: While hashing can help verify integrity, it does not prevent tampering. If an attacker can modify the log files, they might also be able to update the hashes. Back up the aggregated log files: While backups are important for recovery, they do not ensure integrity on their own. If the log files are tampered with before backup, the backups will contain the tampered data. Back up the source log files: This practice is related to data retention and recovery, not specifically to ensuring the integrity of aggregated logs within a SIEM.
Therefore, write protecting the aggregated log files and moving them to an isolated server with limited access is the most effective practice for maintaining the integrity of log files within a SIEM system.
A security analyst is evaluating the risks of authorizing multiple security solutions to collect data from the company’s cloud environment. Which of the following is an immediate consequence of these integrations?
a. Non-compliance with data sovereignty rules
b. Loss of the vendors interoperability support
c. Mandatory deployment of a SIEM solution
d. Increase in the attack surface
d. Increase in the attack surface
Explanation:
Increase in the attack surface: Integrating multiple security solutions typically involves installing additional agents, connectors, or APIs to gather data from various cloud services and resources. Each integration introduces potential vulnerabilities that attackers could exploit. These vulnerabilities may arise from misconfigurations, insecure APIs, or weaknesses in the security solutions themselves. Therefore, the more integrations and agents are deployed, the broader the attack surface becomes, increasing the potential avenues for attackers to target and compromise the organization's cloud environment.
Let’s briefly discuss why the other options are not immediate consequences in this context:
Option a: Non-compliance with data sovereignty rules could occur if data is processed or stored in a manner that violates regulatory requirements, but this is not necessarily an immediate consequence of integrating security solutions. Option b: Loss of vendor interoperability support could be a risk in the long term if vendors do not support the integration or if compatibility issues arise, but it is not an immediate consequence of integration. Option c: Mandatory deployment of a SIEM solution may be a strategic decision to centralize and analyze security logs, but it is not an immediate consequence of integrating multiple security solutions.
Therefore, option d, an increase in the attack surface, is the most relevant and immediate consequence to consider when authorizing multiple security solutions to collect data from a company’s cloud environment.
Which of the following explains why RTO is included in a BIA?
a. It identifies the amount of allowable downtime for an application or system.
b. It prioritizes risks so the organization can allocate resources appropriately.
c. It monetizes the loss of an asset and determines a break-even point for risk mitigation.
d. It informs the backup approach so that the organization can recover data to a known time.
a. It identifies the amount of allowable downtime for an application or system.
Explanation:
RTO (Recovery Time Objective) is a critical metric defined in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) to determine the maximum acceptable downtime for a business process, application, or system. It helps in setting expectations regarding how quickly a system or process needs to be restored after a disruption or disaster. Business Impact Analysis (BIA) is a process used to evaluate the potential effects of an interruption to critical business operations. It helps organizations prioritize their recovery efforts and allocate resources effectively based on the impact of various scenarios. Option a correctly explains that RTO is included in a BIA because it specifies the allowable downtime, which is crucial for prioritizing recovery efforts and ensuring that the organization can resume operations within acceptable limits after a disruption.
Let’s briefly review why the other options are incorrect:
Option b: Prioritizing risks and allocating resources appropriately is more closely related to Risk Assessment and Management, not specifically to why RTO is included in a BIA. Option c: Monetizing the loss of an asset and determining a break-even point is more aligned with Cost-Benefit Analysis and Financial Risk Assessment, not directly with the purpose of RTO in a BIA. Option d: Informing the backup approach to recover data to a known time is related to Backup and Recovery Planning, but it does not specifically address why RTO is included in a BIA.
Therefore, the correct and most relevant explanation for why RTO is included in a BIA is to identify the allowable downtime for an application or system (option a).
A security analyst is reviewing web-application logs and finds the following log:
https://www.comptia.org/contact-us/%3Ffile%3D..%2F..%2F..%Fetc%2Fpasswd
Which of the following attacks is being observed?
a. Directory traversal
b. XSS
c. CSRF
d. On-path attack
a. Directory traversal
Explanation:
Directory traversal (also known as path traversal) is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to access files and directories that are stored outside the web root folder. In the provided log entry: perl
https://www.comptia.org/contact-us/%3Ffile%3D..%2F..%2F..%Fetc%2Fpasswd
%3F represents the URL encoding for ?. %2F represents the URL encoding for /. %F and %2F concatenated (%Fetc%2F) are part of the encoded attempt to traverse directories (../) to access the /etc/passwd file.
The presence of ..%2F..%2F..%Fetc%2Fpasswd in the URL indicates an attempt to go up multiple directory levels (..) from the current directory context, ultimately trying to access sensitive system files like /etc/passwd.
XSS (Cross-Site Scripting) involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users.
CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) involves tricking a user into unknowingly executing actions on a web application.
On-path attack typically involves intercepting or manipulating traffic between a user and a web application.
A security analyst is reviewing the vulnerability scan report for a web server following an incident. The vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
a. Security patches were uninstalled due to user impact.
b. An adversary altered the vulnerability scan reports
c. A zero-day vulnerability was used to exploit the web server
d. The scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability
a. Security patches were uninstalled due to user impact.
Here’s why this is the most likely cause:
Uninstalled Security Patches: It is common for organizations to uninstall or roll back security patches if they cause unexpected issues or user impact, such as application failures or performance degradation. This action could leave the system vulnerable to known exploits, even though patches were previously available and possibly installed at one point. Historical Scan Reports: The presence of the vulnerability in historical vulnerability scan reports suggests that at some point, the vulnerability was detected and possibly patched. If patches were later uninstalled, either intentionally or unintentionally, the vulnerability would reappear and potentially be exploitable. User Impact Concerns: Security patches sometimes introduce compatibility issues or unexpected behavior in applications. In response to these issues, administrators may decide to uninstall or delay applying patches until they can be tested further or until an alternative solution is found. This decision, however, leaves the system exposed to known vulnerabilities.
The other options are less likely based on the information given:
b. Adversary altering scan reports: This is less likely unless there is evidence of compromise affecting the integrity of scan reports, which is not provided in the scenario. c. Zero-day vulnerability: If it were a zero-day vulnerability, it would not be present in historical scan reports, as these vulnerabilities are unknown to the public and security vendors until they are exploited. d. False negative in scan reports: While possible, historical reports showing the vulnerability before the incident suggests the vulnerability was previously detected, making it less likely to be a false negative.
Therefore, considering the scenario and the details provided, a. Security patches were uninstalled due to user impact is the most plausible cause for the vulnerability being present and exploitable on the web server.
Which of the following is a known security risk associated with data archives that contain financial information?
a. Data can become a liability if archived longer than required by regulatory guidance.
b. Data must be archived off-site to avoid breaches and meet business requirements.
c. Companies are prohibited from providing archived data to e-discovery requests.
d. Unencrypted archives should be preserved as long as possible and encrypted.
a. Data can become a liability if archived longer than required by regulatory guidance.
Explanation:
Data archives that contain financial information pose several security risks, and among them, the most significant is the risk associated with regulatory compliance and retention requirements. Here’s why each option is correct or incorrect:
Option a: Data can become a liability if archived longer than required by regulatory guidance.
This is a known security risk because regulatory frameworks often dictate specific retention periods for financial data. Keeping data longer than necessary can lead to legal and compliance issues, as well as increased exposure to data breaches and misuse.
Option b: Data must be archived off-site to avoid breaches and meet business requirements.
While off-site storage is a common practice for disaster recovery and business continuity, it primarily addresses availability concerns rather than security risks associated with retention periods or compliance.
Option c: Companies are prohibited from providing archived data to e-discovery requests.
This statement is incorrect because archived data is often subject to e-discovery requests as part of legal proceedings. However, the manner in which data is archived and the compliance with legal hold requirements are critical factors in responding to such requests.
Option d: Unencrypted archives should be preserved as long as possible and encrypted.
This statement is incorrect because unencrypted archives pose significant security risks, especially for financial information. Archives should be encrypted to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access and breaches.
Therefore, option a is the best answer as it directly addresses the security risk associated with regulatory compliance and the potential liability of retaining financial data longer than necessary.
Which of the following BEST describes the process of documenting who has access to evidence?
a. Order of volatility
b. Chain of custody
c. Non-repudiation
d. Admissibility
b. Chain of custody
Explanation:
Chain of custody refers to the documentation and procedures used to establish the history of an item of evidence. It tracks the movement and handling of evidence from the moment it is collected until it is presented in court or used in an investigation. This process ensures that the integrity of the evidence is maintained and can be verified, including who has accessed it and when.
Let’s briefly explain why the other options are not correct:
Order of volatility (a): This refers to the principle of preserving evidence in a sequence that captures volatile data first, such as RAM, which is more transient compared to persistent storage. It does not directly address documenting who has access to evidence. Non-repudiation (c): This refers to the ability to prove that a specific party took a particular action and cannot deny having done so. It applies more to actions such as digital signatures and transactions, rather than to the documentation of physical or digital evidence access. Admissibility (d): This refers to whether evidence is considered acceptable and valid in a court of law based on legal standards. It involves ensuring that evidence collection and handling procedures, including chain of custody, have been followed correctly, but it doesn't specifically address documenting who has access to evidence.
Therefore, chain of custody (b) is the process that specifically involves documenting and maintaining records of who has access to evidence throughout its handling and storage.
A systems engineer wants to leverage a cloud-based architecture with low latency between network-connected devices that also reduces the bandwidth that is required by performing analytics directly on the endpoints. Which of the following would BEST meet the requirements? (Choose two.)
a. Private cloud
b. SaaS
c. Hybrid cloud
d. IaaS
e. DRaaS
f. Fog computing
(Community CF 66%, AF 28%)
c. Hybrid cloud
f. Fog computing
“Many people use the terms fog computing and edge computing interchangeably because both involve bringing intelligence and processing closer to where the data is created” - https://www.techtarget.com/iotagenda/definition/fog-computing-fogging
While a private cloud can provide security and control, it may not be as suitable for “low-latency” requirements in scenarios involving network-connected devices.
Hybrid cloud environments can also incorporate edge computing, which processes data closer to the source (devices) to reduce latency and improve performance.
(ChatGPT & Braindump)
c. Hybrid cloud
f. Fog computing
Explanation:
Hybrid cloud (c): A hybrid cloud architecture allows for the integration of private and public cloud services, providing flexibility to perform analytics closer to the endpoints (on-premises or in private cloud) while leveraging the scalability and resources of public cloud services for other tasks. Fog computing (f): Fog computing extends cloud computing to the edge of the network, closer to devices and endpoints. It enables data processing and analytics to be performed locally on edge devices or in nearby servers, reducing latency and conserving bandwidth by minimizing the need to transmit raw data to distant cloud data centers.
Why the other options are not the best choices:
Private cloud (a): A private cloud typically does not address the need for low latency and bandwidth reduction directly between network-connected devices or endpoints. It focuses more on providing dedicated resources within a controlled environment. SaaS (b): Software as a Service (SaaS) delivers software applications over the internet, but it does not inherently address the low latency and analytics requirements at the network level or endpoint level. IaaS (d): Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, such as virtual machines and storage, but it does not specifically address the low latency and analytics requirements at the endpoint level. DRaaS (e): Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) focuses on providing backup and recovery solutions, which is different from the requirements of low latency and endpoint analytics.
Therefore, hybrid cloud (c) and fog computing (f) are the most suitable options for meeting the specified requirements.
Which of the following is a policy that provides a greater depth and breadth of knowledge across an organization?
a. Asset management policy
b. Separation of duties policy
c. Acceptable use policy
d. Job rotation policy
d. Job rotation policy
Here’s why:
Job Rotation Policy: This policy involves periodically moving employees between different jobs or roles within the organization. It helps employees gain a broader understanding of various functions, processes, and responsibilities across the organization. This not only enhances individual skill sets but also fosters a more versatile and knowledgeable workforce, which can improve overall organizational resilience and capability.
The other options, while important, do not specifically aim to increase the depth and breadth of knowledge across the organization:
Asset management policy: Focuses on the management of the organization's assets, ensuring they are properly tracked, maintained, and utilized. It does not directly contribute to increasing employee knowledge across different areas. Separation of duties policy: Aims to reduce the risk of fraud and errors by ensuring that no single individual has control over all aspects of any critical process. While it enhances security and accountability, it does not necessarily promote broader knowledge among employees. Acceptable use policy: Outlines the proper use of organizational resources and systems by employees. It helps ensure security and appropriate behavior but does not directly contribute to increasing knowledge across different areas of the organization.
A company is moving its retail website to a public cloud provider. The company wants to tokenize credit card data but not allow the cloud provider to see the stored credit card information. Which of the following would BEST meet these objectives?
a. WAF
b. CASB
c. VPN
d. TLS
b. CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)
Here’s why CASB is the most suitable choice:
Tokenization Capability: CASB solutions can integrate with cloud environments to provide tokenization services. Tokenization replaces sensitive data (such as credit card numbers) with unique identification symbols (tokens) that retain essential information without exposing the actual data. Control Over Data Access: CASBs offer granular control over data access and visibility in cloud environments. This includes policies that can restrict or monitor access to sensitive data, ensuring that the cloud provider does not have visibility into the original credit card information. Compliance and Security: CASBs are designed to enforce security policies across cloud services, ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements (such as PCI DSS for handling credit card information). This helps in maintaining data privacy and security while using cloud services.
In contrast, the other options:
WAF (Web Application Firewall): While important for web application security, WAF primarily focuses on filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic to and from a web application. It does not directly address the tokenization or data visibility requirements mentioned. VPN (Virtual Private Network): VPNs are used to create secure, encrypted connections over a less secure network (like the internet). While they provide secure communication channels, they do not inherently tokenize data or control data visibility within a cloud environment. TLS (Transport Layer Security): TLS provides encryption for data in transit between clients and servers. While essential for securing data in transit, it does not address tokenization or control data visibility within cloud storage.
Therefore, CASB is the best option as it directly addresses the requirement to tokenize credit card data while ensuring the cloud provider does not have visibility into the sensitive information stored in the cloud environment.
A security analyst is tasked with defining the “something you are” factor of the company’s MFA settings. Which of the following is BEST to use to complete the configuration?
a. Gait analysis
b. Vein
c. Soft token
d. HMAC-based, one-time password
b. Vein
Here’s why vein is the best choice:
Biometric Authentication: Vein recognition is a form of biometric authentication that identifies individuals based on the patterns of veins in their hands or fingers. It is a highly secure method because vein patterns are unique to each individual and difficult to replicate or steal compared to other biometric features like fingerprints. Accuracy and Reliability: Vein recognition technology is known for its high accuracy and reliability. It is less susceptible to spoofing or false positives compared to other biometric methods like facial recognition or voice recognition. Non-intrusive: Unlike gait analysis, which requires observing and analyzing how a person walks, vein recognition can be done discreetly using near-infrared light to capture vein patterns beneath the skin's surface. This makes it a more practical and user-friendly choice for MFA implementations. Compliance and Security: Vein recognition meets stringent security requirements for MFA, especially in environments where high levels of security are necessary, such as accessing sensitive systems or data.
In contrast:
Gait analysis involves analyzing the way a person walks to identify them, which is more complex to implement and may not be as widely supported or accurate as vein recognition. Soft token and HMAC-based one-time password (OTP) are typically used as the "something you have" factor in MFA, where soft tokens generate OTPs and HMAC-based OTPs are cryptographic tokens generated by hardware or software.
Therefore, based on the requirement to define the “something you are” factor for MFA, b. Vein recognition offers a robust and secure biometric authentication method suitable for this purpose.
Which of the following processes will eliminate data using a method that will allow the storage device to be reused after the process is complete?
a. Pulverizing
b. Overwriting
c. Shredding
d. Degaussing
b. Overwriting
Overwriting is a process where data on a storage device (such as a hard drive or solid-state drive) is replaced with new data multiple times, effectively erasing the original data. This method allows the storage device to be reused afterward because the existing data is no longer recoverable. Overwriting typically involves writing random patterns of data over the entire storage area multiple times to ensure that the previous data cannot be reconstructed.
Here’s a brief explanation of the other options:
Pulverizing: This involves physically destroying the storage device into small pieces or powder, rendering it unusable and ensuring that data cannot be recovered. Shredding: Similar to pulverizing, shredding involves physically destroying the storage device, usually into small pieces or strips, to prevent data recovery. Degaussing: This method uses a strong magnetic field to disrupt the magnetic domains on magnetic storage devices (such as hard drives or tapes), effectively erasing the data. However, it typically renders the storage device unusable for future data storage.
Therefore, while all methods can effectively eliminate data, overwriting specifically allows the storage device to be reused after the process, making it the correct choice for scenarios where the device needs to be repurposed or reused securely.
A user’s account is constantly being locked out. Upon further review, a security analyst found the following in the SIEM:
Time Log Message
9:00:00 AM login: user password: aBG23TMV
9:00:01 AM login: user password: aBG33TMV
9:00:02 AM login: user password: aBG43TMV
9:00:03 AM login: user password: aBG53TMV
Which of the following describes what is occurring?
a. An attacker is utilizing a password-spraying attack against the account.
b. An attacker is utilizing a dictionary attack against the account.
c. An attacker is utilizing a brute-force attack against the account.
d. An attacker is utilizing a rainbow table attack against the account.
c. An attacker is utilizing a brute-force attack against the account.
A web server has been compromised due to a ransomware attack. Further investigation reveals the ransomware has been in the server for the past 72 hours. The systems administrator needs to get the services back up as soon as possible. Which of the following should the administrator use to restore services to a secure state?
a. The last incremental backup that was conducted 72 hours ago
b. The last known-good configuration
c. The last full backup that was conducted seven days ago
d. The baseline OS configuration
b. The last known-good configuration
(Community C 57%, B 22%, A 20%)
(Braindump : a. The last incremental backup that was conducted 72 hours ago)
ChatGPT
b. The last known-good configuration
Explanation :
a. The last incremental backup that was conducted 72 hours ago:
This backup might contain some data up to 72 hours ago, but it could potentially include encrypted files if the ransomware had already infiltrated the server at that time. It may not fully address the current compromised state.
b. The last known-good configuration:
This option involves restoring from a configuration backup that was known to be secure before the ransomware attack occurred. It can help in restoring the server to a state where the ransomware was not present.
c. The last full backup that was conducted seven days ago:
This backup is likely older and would result in data loss of up to seven days. It may not be ideal if frequent updates or transactions have occurred since the last backup.
d. The baseline OS configuration:
This involves restoring the server to its initial state or a standard configuration known to be secure. It ensures that all system settings are reverted to a secure state, potentially removing any residual effects of the ransomware.
Best Choice:
b. The last known-good configuration Restoring from the last known-good configuration ensures that the server is reverted to a state before the ransomware infection. It provides a higher likelihood of removing the ransomware and restoring the server to a secure and operational state without the risk of reinfection from compromised backups or data.
Therefore, option b is the most appropriate choice to restore services to a secure state promptly after a ransomware attack.
A network engineer created two subnets that will be used for production and development servers. Per security policy production and development servers must each have a dedicated network that cannot communicate with one another directly. Which of the following should be deployed so that server administrators can access these devices?
a. VLANs
b. Internet proxy servers
c. NIDS
d. Jump servers
d. Jump servers
Here’s why this solution is appropriate:
Access Control: A bastion host is a dedicated server that acts as a gateway to access other servers in separate security zones (in this case, production and development). It allows administrators to securely connect to servers in each subnet without allowing direct communication between the subnets. Security Isolation: By using a bastion host, you enforce access controls and isolate the production and development environments. Administrators must authenticate themselves to the bastion host, which then manages access to servers in each subnet based on defined security policies. Auditability: All administrative access can be logged and audited from the bastion host, providing a clear record of who accessed which servers and when, enhancing security and compliance. Simplicity and Management: Managing access through a single entry point (bastion host) simplifies network security management compared to allowing direct connectivity between subnets, which can be more complex to secure and monitor.
Therefore, deploying a bastion host or jump server is the recommended approach to enable server administrators to access devices in both the production and development subnets while maintaining the required network isolation and security.
A social media company based in North America is looking to expand into new global markets and needs to maintain compliance with international standards.
With which of the following is the company’s data protection officer MOST likely concerned?
a. NIST Framework
b. ISO 27001
c. GDPR
d. PCI-DSS
c. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation).
Here’s why:
GDPR: This regulation is focused on protecting the personal data and privacy of individuals within the European Union (EU) and the European Economic Area (EEA). It applies to organizations outside the EU/EEA that offer goods or services to, or monitor the behavior of, EU/EEA data subjects. Since the company is expanding globally, including into regions covered by GDPR, compliance with its stringent requirements regarding data privacy and security is crucial. NIST Framework: While the NIST Cybersecurity Framework is widely recognized and used for cybersecurity risk management in the United States, its adoption is not mandatory by law or regulation in international markets. It is more of a guideline and framework rather than a legal compliance requirement. ISO 27001: This standard provides requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and continually improving an information security management system (ISMS). While ISO 27001 is widely respected globally, it focuses on information security management rather than specific data privacy requirements. PCI-DSS: The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) is applicable primarily to organizations that handle credit card transactions. While important for payment security, it does not comprehensively cover data protection concerns related to global expansion and compliance with international data privacy regulations like GDPR.
Therefore, given the global expansion and the need to comply with stringent data protection laws affecting international markets, the company’s data protection officer would be most concerned with ensuring compliance with GDPR.
A security architect is required to deploy to conference rooms some workstations that will allow sensitive data to be displayed on large screens. Due to the nature of the data, it cannot be stored in the conference rooms. The file share is located in a local data center. Which of the following should the security architect recommend to BEST meet the requirement?
a. Fog computing and KVMs
b. VDI and thin clients
c. Private cloud and DLP
d. Full drive encryption and thick clients
b. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) and thin clients.
Here’s why this option is suitable:
VDI: Virtual Desktop Infrastructure allows users to access virtualized desktops hosted on servers in the data center. This means that the sensitive data remains centralized in the data center and is never stored or cached on the local workstations (thin clients) in the conference rooms. Users interact with their virtual desktop sessions over the network, and all data processing and storage occur centrally. Thin clients: These are endpoint devices (workstations in the conference rooms) that are lightweight and designed to rely on the server-hosted virtual desktops. They have minimal storage and processing capabilities of their own, ensuring that no sensitive data is stored locally.
This solution ensures that:
Sensitive data remains under centralized control in the data center, reducing the risk of data exposure in the conference rooms. Users can securely access and display sensitive data without the need for local storage or processing. It aligns with the requirement of not storing sensitive data in the conference rooms, as all data handling is done within the secure environment of the data center.
Therefore, VDI and thin clients provide a secure and efficient solution for displaying sensitive data in conference rooms while maintaining compliance with data protection requirements.
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to ensure the organization is validating and checking the integrity of zone transfers. Which of the following solutions should be implemented?
a. DNSSEC
b. LDAPS
c. NGFW
d. DLP
a. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions).
Explanation:
DNSSEC: DNSSEC is designed to protect the integrity and authenticity of DNS data. It uses cryptographic signatures to ensure that DNS responses (including zone transfers) have not been tampered with. By signing DNS data, DNSSEC provides a way to verify that the information received from a DNS server is authentic and has not been altered in transit.
Implementing DNSSEC ensures that:
DNS responses, including zone transfers, are authenticated and their integrity is validated. It mitigates the risk of DNS spoofing or cache poisoning attacks. It provides an additional layer of security for DNS infrastructure by ensuring that any changes or transfers of DNS zone data are verified and trusted.
Therefore, DNSSEC is the solution that should be implemented to validate and check the integrity of zone transfers.
LDAPS (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure):
Purpose: LDAPS is used for securing directory services, such as those provided by Active Directory. It encrypts LDAP traffic to ensure confidentiality and integrity during communication. Why Not Suitable: LDAPS does not deal with DNS or DNS zone transfers. Its primary use is for directory services, not DNS.
NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall):
Purpose: NGFWs provide advanced filtering capabilities, including application awareness, intrusion prevention, and deep packet inspection. Why Not Suitable: While NGFWs enhance network security, they do not specifically address the integrity and authentication of DNS zone transfers. They are more about protecting the network perimeter and internal network traffic.
DLP (Data Loss Prevention):
Purpose: DLP solutions are designed to prevent the unauthorized transfer of sensitive data outside the organization. They monitor, detect, and block potential data breaches. Why Not Suitable: DLP focuses on preventing data leaks and protecting sensitive information, not on DNS operations or ensuring the integrity of DNS zone transfers.
Which of the following controls is used to make an organization initially aware of a data compromise?
a. Protective
b. Preventative
c. Corrective
d. Detective
d. Detective
Explanation:
Detective Controls: These controls are designed to identify and alert on incidents or breaches as they occur. They monitor systems, networks, and activities to detect suspicious or malicious behavior. Examples include intrusion detection systems (IDS), security information and event management (SIEM) systems, and log monitoring.
Why not the others?:
Protective Controls: This is not a standard term in security controls. It seems to overlap with preventative or detective controls. Preventative Controls: These controls are designed to prevent security incidents from occurring in the first place. Examples include firewalls, anti-virus software, and access control mechanisms. They aim to block or mitigate potential threats before they can cause harm. Corrective Controls: These controls are implemented to correct or mitigate the effects of an incident after it has occurred. Examples include patch management, data recovery processes, and incident response plans.
Detective controls are specifically focused on discovering and alerting about ongoing or past security incidents, making them the correct choice for being initially aware of a data compromise.
An annual information security assessment has revealed that several OS-level configurations are not in compliance due to outdated hardening standards the company is using. Which of the following would be BEST to use to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations?
a. CIS benchmarks
b. GDPR guidance
c. Regional regulations
d. ISO 27001 standards
a. CIS benchmarks
Explanation:
CIS (Center for Internet Security) benchmarks: These are globally recognized security standards and best practices for securing IT systems and data. They provide detailed configuration guidelines for various operating systems, applications, and network devices. Using CIS benchmarks ensures that OS-level configurations are updated to the latest and most secure settings.
Why not the others?:
GDPR guidance: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is primarily focused on data protection and privacy for individuals within the European Union. It does not provide specific guidelines for OS-level configurations or security hardening. Regional regulations: These may include various legal requirements depending on the region, but they are typically not specific or detailed enough to guide the hardening of OS configurations. They often focus on broader compliance issues rather than specific technical configurations. ISO 27001 standards: ISO 27001 is a standard for information security management systems (ISMS). While it provides a framework for managing information security, it does not offer specific, detailed configuration guidelines for operating systems.
CIS benchmarks are specifically designed to provide detailed and actionable guidance on securing OS-level configurations, making them the most appropriate choice for addressing the findings of an information security assessment.
A company acquired several other small companies. The company that acquired the others is transitioning network services to the cloud. The company wants to make sure that performance and security remain intact. Which of the following BEST meets both requirements?
a. High availability
b. Application security
c. Segmentation
d. Integration and auditing
(Community : D 45%, C 43%)
(Braindump : D )
d. Integration and auditing
The company is transitioning network services to the cloud (they also just acquired several other small companies). The company’s primary focus in this scenario is to ensure performance and security REMAIN intact.
The key word: “remain intact” meaning they already have strong performance and security but they want this to continue while transitioning these additional companies and their network services to the cloud.
ChatGPT
c. Segmentation
Explanation:
Segmentation: This involves dividing a network into multiple smaller segments or subnets, each with its own set of security policies and controls. Segmentation can help improve both performance and security by isolating different parts of the network, reducing the attack surface, and limiting the spread of potential security breaches. By isolating critical services and workloads, segmentation ensures that performance issues in one segment do not affect others, and it also helps in containing and managing security incidents more effectively.
Why not the others?:
High availability: While high availability ensures that systems remain operational with minimal downtime, it primarily addresses performance and reliability, not security. Application security: This focuses on securing applications from threats and vulnerabilities. While important, it does not address the broader network-level security and performance concerns that segmentation does. Integration and auditing: These are important for ensuring that systems work well together and for maintaining logs and records for compliance and monitoring. However, they do not directly address the need to optimize both performance and security across the network.
By implementing segmentation, the company can ensure that its network remains both secure and performs efficiently as it transitions services to the cloud and integrates the newly acquired companies.
(Braindump : d. Integration and auditing)
After a recent external audit, the compliance team provided a list of several non-compliant, in-scope hosts that were not encrypting cardholder data at rest. Which of the following compliance frameworks would address the compliance team’s GREATEST concern?
a. PCI DSS
b. GDPR
c. ISO 27001
d. NIST CSF
a. PCI DSS
Explanation:
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): This framework specifically addresses the security of cardholder data. One of its core requirements is the protection of stored cardholder data, which includes encrypting cardholder data at rest to ensure its confidentiality and integrity.
Why not the others?:
GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation): While GDPR emphasizes the protection of personal data and includes provisions for data encryption, its primary focus is on the privacy and rights of individuals in the European Union. It does not specifically target cardholder data security. ISO 27001: This is an international standard for information security management systems (ISMS). While it provides a comprehensive framework for managing security risks and includes controls for data protection, it is not specifically focused on cardholder data. NIST CSF (National Institute of Standards and Technology Cybersecurity Framework): This framework provides guidelines for managing and reducing cybersecurity risks but is more general in nature. It is not specifically designed to address the requirements for protecting cardholder data.
A security analyst is receiving several alerts per user and is trying to determine if various logins are malicious. The security analyst would like to create a baseline of normal operations and reduce noise. Which of the following actions should the security analyst perform?
a. Adjust the data flow from authentication sources to the SIEM.
b. Disable email alerting and review the SIEM directly.
c. Adjust the sensitivity levels of the SIEM correlation engine.
d. Utilize behavioral analysis to enable the SIEM’s learning mode.
d. Utilize behavioral analysis to enable the SIEM’s learning mode.
Explanation:
Utilize behavioral analysis to enable the SIEM's learning mode: This approach allows the SIEM to learn what constitutes normal behavior for users and systems over time. By establishing a baseline of normal operations, the SIEM can more effectively distinguish between typical activities and potential anomalies, thus reducing false positives and noise in the alerts.
Why not the others?:
Adjust the data flow from authentication sources to the SIEM: While this could help manage the volume of data, it does not address the issue of distinguishing between normal and malicious activities. Disable email alerting and review the SIEM directly: This action only changes the method of alert notification and does not solve the problem of high alert volume or distinguishing between normal and malicious logins. Adjust the sensitivity levels of the SIEM correlation engine: This might reduce the number of alerts, but it can also lead to missing important security events. It does not help in establishing what is normal behavior versus malicious activity.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to detect security flaws present on third-party libraries embedded on software before it is released into production?
a. Employ different techniques for server- and client-side validations
b. Use a different version control system for third-party libraries
c. Implement a vulnerability scan to assess dependencies earlier on SDLC
d. Increase the number of penetration tests before software release
c. Implement a vulnerability scan to assess dependencies earlier in the SDLC
Explanation:
Implement a vulnerability scan to assess dependencies earlier in the SDLC: This approach involves scanning the third-party libraries for known vulnerabilities as part of the software development lifecycle (SDLC). By integrating vulnerability scanning tools early and throughout the development process, developers can identify and address security flaws in third-party dependencies before the software is released into production.
Why not the others?:
Employ different techniques for server- and client-side validations: While important for overall security, this practice focuses on input validation and does not specifically target security flaws in third-party libraries. Use a different version control system for third-party libraries: Changing the version control system does not inherently address the security flaws in the libraries. The key is to identify vulnerabilities in the libraries themselves, not how they are managed. Increase the number of penetration tests before software release: Penetration testing is valuable but typically occurs later in the SDLC and might not be as effective in identifying specific vulnerabilities in third-party libraries. Additionally, penetration tests are time-consuming and may miss some embedded library vulnerabilities that a dedicated vulnerability scan could catch earlier.
By implementing vulnerability scans to assess dependencies early and throughout the SDLC, you can effectively identify and mitigate security flaws in third-party libraries before they affect production environments.
Which of the following prevents an employee from seeing a colleague who is visiting an inappropriate website?
a. Job rotation policy
b. NDA
c. AUP
d. Separation of duties policy
c. AUP (Acceptable Use Policy)
Explanation:
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP): This policy outlines the acceptable and unacceptable use of an organization's IT resources. It sets clear guidelines for appropriate internet usage, which can include restrictions on accessing inappropriate websites. By enforcing an AUP, the organization can prevent employees from accessing inappropriate websites, thereby reducing the likelihood of others seeing such behavior.
Why not the others?:
Job rotation policy: This policy involves rotating employees through different jobs to reduce the risk of fraud and improve skills and knowledge. It does not directly address internet usage or prevent the visibility of inappropriate website visits. NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement): An NDA is a legal contract that prevents individuals from disclosing confidential information. It does not govern or prevent internet usage behavior within an organization. Separation of duties policy: This policy ensures that no single individual has control over all aspects of a critical process, reducing the risk of fraud or error. It does not directly prevent inappropriate internet usage or visibility of such behavior.
An Acceptable Use Policy is the most relevant and effective measure to prevent employees from accessing inappropriate websites, thereby reducing the chance of others observing such behavior.
A user reports falling for a phishing email to an analyst. Which of the following system logs would the analyst check FIRST?
a. DNS
b. Message gateway
c. Network
d. Authentication
b. message gateway logs first.
Explanation:
Message Gateway Logs: These logs would provide information about incoming and outgoing emails, including details such as sender, recipient, subject, and attachments. They are crucial for identifying the phishing email itself, tracking its source, and potentially determining if similar emails were sent to other users.
Here’s why the other options are less likely the first choice:
DNS Logs: DNS logs primarily record DNS queries and responses, which are more useful for investigating domain resolution and network traffic patterns. They might not provide direct information about the phishing email content or delivery. Network Logs: Network logs encompass a broad range of activities such as traffic flow, connections, and potentially malicious activities like command and control communications. While useful for broader network security investigations, they might not directly reveal details about the phishing email content. Authentication Logs: Authentication logs track user login attempts and activities, which are important for investigating unauthorized access but are less relevant initially when dealing with a phishing incident where the focus is on the email and its handling.
Therefore, in the context of a user falling for a phishing email, checking the message gateway logs first would provide insights into the email’s characteristics, its delivery, and potentially aid in identifying further actions or communications related to the phishing incident.
An attacker has determined the best way to impact operations is to infiltrate third-party software vendors. Which of the following vectors is being exploited?
a. Social media
b. Cloud
c. Supply chain
d. Social Engineering
c. supply chain.
Explanation:
Supply chain: This refers to the network of suppliers and vendors that provide goods and services to an organization. In the context of cybersecurity, supply chain attacks involve targeting third-party vendors or suppliers to gain unauthorized access to systems or data of the targeted organization. By compromising a vendor or supplier, attackers can infiltrate the organization's network through trusted relationships or software dependencies.
Here’s why the other options are not correct in this context:
Social media: While social media can be used in social engineering attacks to gather information or manipulate users, it's not directly related to infiltrating third-party software vendors unless specific social engineering tactics are used against individuals within those vendors. Cloud: Cloud environments can be targeted in various ways, such as through misconfigurations or vulnerabilities, but this option doesn't directly address the tactic of infiltrating third-party vendors to impact operations. Social engineering: While social engineering involves manipulating individuals to divulge confidential information, in this context, the focus is more on the organizational supply chain and not solely on manipulating individuals.
Therefore, the most appropriate answer in the given scenario where the attacker targets third-party software vendors to impact operations is supply chain.
An organization would like to give remote workers the ability to use applications hosted inside the corporate network. Users will be allowed to use their personal computers, or they will be provided organization assets. Either way, no data or applications will be installed locally on any user systems. Which of the following mobile solutions would accomplish these goals?
a. VDI
b. MDM
c. COPE
d. UTM
a. VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure).
Explanation:
VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure): VDI allows users to access virtualized desktops hosted on servers within the corporate network. Users connect to these desktops remotely from their personal devices or organization-provided assets through a client application or web browser. Applications and data remain centralized within the corporate network, and users interact with them through the virtual desktop interface. This approach ensures that no data or applications are installed locally on user systems, enhancing security and control over corporate data.
Let’s briefly review the other options to understand why they are not the best fit:
MDM (Mobile Device Management): MDM is primarily used for managing and securing mobile devices (smartphones, tablets) that access corporate resources. It involves enforcing policies, configuring settings, and securing data on mobile devices. However, it doesn't provide a mechanism for accessing applications hosted inside the corporate network without installing them locally. COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally-Enabled): COPE refers to a model where organizations provide employees with devices that are both owned and managed by the organization but can be used for personal purposes to some extent. It doesn't directly address the requirement of accessing applications without local installation on personal devices. UTM (Unified Threat Management): UTM refers to a comprehensive security solution that integrates multiple security features such as firewall, antivirus, intrusion detection/prevention, etc. It is not specifically related to providing remote access to applications without local installation.
Therefore, VDI is the most appropriate choice for allowing remote workers to use applications hosted inside the corporate network without installing data or applications locally on any user systems.
Which of the following is used to ensure that evidence is admissible in legal proceedings when it is collected and provided to the authorities?
a. Chain of custody
b. Legal hold
c. Event log
d. Artifacts
a. Chain of custody
Chain of custody refers to the documentation and processes used to establish the chronological history of evidence, from the moment it is collected to its presentation in legal proceedings. It ensures that the integrity of the evidence is preserved, showing who had custody of the evidence at any given time and what actions were performed with it. This documentation is crucial for proving the authenticity and admissibility of evidence in court or other legal proceedings.
b. Legal hold: While important for preserving potentially relevant data from being altered or destroyed, a legal hold specifically refers to preserving data that may be subject to litigation or investigation, rather than ensuring the admissibility of evidence in legal proceedings.
c. Event log: Event logs record system events and activities, which can be useful for forensic analysis and detecting security incidents. However, event logs themselves are not sufficient to ensure the admissibility of evidence in legal proceedings; they provide a record of events but do not establish the chain of custody required for legal validity.
d. Artifacts: Artifacts in cybersecurity refer to residual data left on a system after an activity has occurred. While artifacts can be valuable in investigations, they do not inherently ensure the admissibility of evidence. They are pieces of information that may corroborate findings but are not documentation of the custody of evidence.
Therefore, chain of custody is the correct answer because it specifically addresses the process of documenting and maintaining the integrity of evidence from collection through to presentation in legal contexts, ensuring its admissibility and reliability in court.
The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of a bank recently updated the incident response policy. The CISO is concerned that members of the incident response team do not understand their roles. The bank wants to test the policy but with the least amount of resources or impact. Which of the following BEST meets the requirements?
a. Warm site failover
b. Tabletop walk-through
c. Parallel path testing
d. Full outage simulation
b. Tabletop walk-through
Explanation:
Tabletop walk-through: This involves a simulated discussion of an incident scenario without actually executing any of the actions in the response plan. It allows team members to discuss their roles and responsibilities, evaluate the effectiveness of the policy, and identify any gaps or misunderstandings in a controlled environment. It requires minimal resources and does not disrupt normal operations.
The other options involve more significant resource allocation or potential disruption:
Warm site failover: This involves moving operations to a secondary site to simulate a disaster recovery scenario, which requires infrastructure and resources. Parallel path testing: This tests redundant systems simultaneously to ensure they can handle workload if one path fails, which could impact production systems. Full outage simulation: This simulates a complete outage scenario to test response and recovery procedures, which typically requires significant planning, resources, and disruption to normal operations.
Therefore, the tabletop walk-through is the most appropriate choice for testing the incident response policy in a low-impact manner while still achieving the goal of clarifying roles and responsibilities.
Which of the following control types fixes a previously identified issue and mitigates a risk?
a. Detective
b. Corrective
c. Preventative
d. Finalized
b. Corrective
Explanation:
Corrective controls are designed to fix or remediate identified issues or vulnerabilities after they have been identified through monitoring or assessments. Their primary purpose is to mitigate risks by addressing the root cause of problems that have already been identified.
Let’s briefly differentiate it from the other options:
Detective controls (option a) are used to identify and detect deviations from established security policies, procedures, or controls. They do not directly fix issues but rather alert administrators or analysts to investigate and take corrective action. Preventative controls (option c) are implemented to prevent or deter potential incidents or risks from occurring in the first place. They are proactive measures intended to reduce the likelihood or impact of security threats. Finalized (option d) is not a recognized control type in the context of security controls.
Therefore, among the options provided, the control type that specifically addresses and mitigates identified risks by fixing underlying issues is corrective control (option b).
An analyst is reviewing logs associated with an attack. The logs indicate an attacker downloaded a malicious file that was quarantined by the AV solution. The attacker utilized a local non-administrative account to restore the malicious file to a new location. The file was then used by another process to execute a payload.
Which of the following attacks did the analyst observe?
a. Privilege escalation
b. Request forgeries
c. Injection
d. Replay attack
Braindump : c. Injection
a. Privilege escalation
Explanation:
The attacker initially downloaded a malicious file, which was quarantined by the antivirus (AV) solution. This indicates the file was recognized as malicious, but the attacker managed to restore it. The attacker then used a local non-administrative account to restore the file to a new location. This action suggests the attacker gained permissions or escalated privileges to bypass restrictions on executing the file. Finally, the restored file was used by another process to execute a payload, leveraging the compromised privileges to carry out malicious actions.
In summary, this sequence of events describes an attack where the attacker escalated their privileges from a non-administrative account to restore and execute a malicious file, thereby achieving privilege escalation.
Injection: injection attacks involve inserting malicious code or commands into a system or application. This usually targets vulnerabilities in input fields or parameters. The scenario described does not involve injecting code into the system but rather manipulating and executing a quarantined file with escalated privileges.
Request forgeries (CSRF): Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) involves tricking a user into performing actions they did not intend to do, typically on another website where they are authenticated. This attack is not relevant here as the scenario describes actions within the local system, not across different web applications.
Replay attack: In a replay attack, an attacker intercepts and reuses valid data transmissions between parties. This scenario does not involve replaying intercepted data; instead, it focuses on downloading, restoring, and executing a quarantined malicious file with escalated privileges.
A security engineer must deploy two wireless routers in an office suite. Other tenants in the office building should not be able to connect to this wireless network.
Which of the following protocols should the engineer implement to ensure the STRONGEST encryption?
a. WPS
b. WPA2
c. WAP
d. HTTPS
b. WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2).
Explanation
WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2): This protocol provides strong encryption using the AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) algorithm, which is widely regarded as secure for protecting wireless networks. It offers better security than its predecessor, WPA, and should be used whenever possible to prevent unauthorized access and eavesdropping on wireless communications. WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup): While WPS can simplify the process of connecting devices to a wireless network, it has known vulnerabilities and should generally be avoided or disabled if security is a primary concern. WAP (Wireless Application Protocol): WAP is not an encryption protocol but rather a technical standard for accessing information over a wireless network. It is unrelated to securing wireless networks. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure): HTTPS is a protocol used for secure communication over a computer network and is specifically designed for secure transmission of data over the internet, not for securing local wireless networks.
Therefore, WPA2 is the correct choice to ensure the strongest encryption and security for the wireless routers in the office suite, preventing unauthorized access from other tenants in the building.
An attacker browses a company’s online job board attempting to find any relevant information regarding the technologies the company uses. Which of the following BEST describes this social engineering technique?
a. Hoax
b. Reconnaissance
c. Impersonation
d. Pretexting
b. Reconnaissance.
Explanation:
Reconnaissance in the context of social engineering involves gathering information about a target organization or individual. This phase is typically part of the initial stages of an attack where the attacker collects data to understand the target's technology infrastructure, processes, employee details, or any other relevant information that can aid in planning an attack. In this scenario, browsing the company's online job board to gather information about the technologies they use falls under reconnaissance. This information can be valuable for crafting targeted attacks or exploiting vulnerabilities related to specific technologies employed by the company.
a. Hoax: A hoax is a deceptive act intended to trick or deceive individuals or organizations into believing something false. It typically involves spreading false information or rumors with the intention of causing confusion or disruption rather than gathering information.
c. Impersonation: Impersonation involves pretending to be someone else, usually a trusted entity or individual, to deceive others into divulging sensitive information, granting access, or performing actions they wouldn’t otherwise do.
d. Pretexting: Pretexting is a social engineering technique where an attacker creates a fabricated scenario or pretext to manipulate individuals into disclosing information or performing actions they wouldn’t typically do under normal circumstances.
In contrast to reconnaissance, which focuses on gathering information about the target, the other options involve different methods of social engineering that are used at different stages of an attack. Reconnaissance is foundational for understanding the target environment before launching more specific attacks or crafting convincing social engineering scenarios.
During an incident response process involving a laptop, a host was identified as the entry point for malware. The management team would like to have the laptop restored and given back to the user. The cybersecurity analyst would like to continue investigating the intrusion on the host. Which of the following would allow the analyst to continue the investigation and also return the laptop to the user as soon as possible?
a. dd
b. memdump
c. tcpdump
d. head
a. dd
Here’s why:
dd: This command-line utility is used to create a bit-by-bit copy of an entire hard drive or a specific partition. By using dd, the cybersecurity analyst can create a full forensic image of the laptop's hard drive. This image can then be analyzed in detail without needing to keep the physical laptop. This allows the analyst to continue the investigation on the forensic image while the laptop is restored and returned to the user.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
memdump: This tool captures the contents of a computer's RAM. While useful for capturing volatile memory data, it does not provide a complete picture of the system's state and would not allow for a full investigation of the intrusion, especially if the analyst needs to examine files on the disk. tcpdump: This tool captures network traffic. It is useful for network forensics but does not help in creating a copy of the laptop's hard drive for detailed analysis of the malware and its effects on the system. head: This command is used to display the first few lines of a file. It is not relevant for creating forensic images or for detailed investigations.
Therefore, dd is the best option as it allows the analyst to create a complete forensic image of the laptop’s hard drive, enabling a thorough investigation while the laptop is restored and returned to the user.
An analyst is trying to identify insecure services that are running on the internal network. After performing a port scan, the analyst identifies that a server has some insecure services enabled on default ports. Which of the following BEST describes the services that are currently running and the secure alternatives for replacing them? (Choose three.)
a. SFTP, FTPS
b. SNMPv2, SNMPv3
c. HTTP, HTTPS
d. TFTP, FTP
e. SNMPv1, SNMPv2
f. Telnet, SSH
g. TLS, SSL
h. POP, IMAP
i. Login, rlogin
b. SNMPv2, SNMPv3
c. HTTP, HTTPS
f. Telnet, SSH
Telnet, SSH:
Current: Telnet (port 23) Secure Alternative: SSH (port 22) Reason: Telnet sends data in clear text, while SSH encrypts the communication, providing confidentiality and integrity.
HTTP, HTTPS:
Current: HTTP (port 80) Secure Alternative: HTTPS (port 443) Reason: HTTPS uses SSL/TLS to encrypt HTTP traffic, protecting data from interception and tampering.
SNMPv1, SNMPv2, SNMPv3:
Current: SNMPv1 (port 161), SNMPv2 (port 161), SNMPv3 (port 161) Secure Alternative: SNMPv3 (or SNMPv2c with strong community string management) Reason: SNMPv3 provides encryption and authentication, addressing vulnerabilities present in SNMPv1 and SNMPv2.
A security analyst needs to produce a document that details how a security incident occurred, the steps that were taken for recovery, and how future incidents can be avoided. During which of the following stages of the response process will this activity take place?
a. Recovery
b. Identification
c. Lessons learned
d. Preparation
c. Lessons learned
During the Lessons learned stage, the security team and stakeholders analyze the incident response process. They document the incident timeline, actions taken, outcomes, and identify areas for improvement to prevent similar incidents in the future. This documentation helps enhance incident response procedures, update policies, and improve security posture based on the lessons derived from the incident.
An administrator is configuring a firewall rule set for a subnet to only access DHCP, web pages, and SFTP, and to specifically block FTP. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this goal?
a. [Permission Source Destination Port]
Allow: Any Any 80
Allow: Any Any 443
Allow: Any Any 67
Allow: Any Any 68
Allow: Any Any 22
Deny: Any Any 21
Deny: Any Any
b. [Permission Source Destination Port]
Allow: Any Any 80
Allow: Any Any 443
Allow: Any Any 67
Allow: Any Any 68
Deny: Any Any 22
Allow: Any Any 21
Deny: Any Any
c. [Permission Source Destination Port]
Allow: Any Any 80
Allow: Any Any 443
Allow: Any Any 22
Deny: Any Any 67
Deny: Any Any 68
Deny: Any Any 21
Allow: Any Any
d. [Permission Source Destination Port]
Allow: Any Any 80
Allow: Any Any 443
Deny: Any Any 67
Allow: Any Any 68
Allow: Any Any 22
Allow: Any Any 21
Allow: Any Any
a.
[Permission Source Destination Port]
Allow: Any Any 80
Allow: Any Any 443
Allow: Any Any 67
Allow: Any Any 68
Deny: Any Any 22
Deny: Any Any 21
Deny: Any Any
Explanation:
Allow: Any Any 80: Allows access to web pages (HTTP). Allow: Any Any 443: Allows access to web pages over HTTPS. Allow: Any Any 67: Allows DHCP traffic (both UDP port 67 for server and 68 for client). Allow: Any Any 68: Allows DHCP traffic (both UDP port 67 for server and 68 for client). Deny: Any Any 22: Blocks SSH traffic, which is not listed as a permitted service. Deny: Any Any 21: Specifically denies FTP traffic. Deny: Any Any: Denies all other traffic implicitly that is not explicitly allowed.
This rule set ensures that only DHCP, web pages, and SFTP traffic is allowed, and FTP traffic is specifically blocked. Therefore, option b is the best choice to accomplish the stated goal.
While investigating a recent security incident, a security analyst decides to view all network connections on a particular server. Which of the following would provide the desired information?
a. arp
b. nslookup
c. netstat
d. nmap
c. netstat
Explanation:
netstat (network statistics) is a command-line tool that displays network connections (both incoming and outgoing), routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships. By running netstat on a server, a security analyst can view active connections, listening ports, and related network details, which are crucial for investigating network activity during a security incident. arp: The arp command (Address Resolution Protocol) displays and modifies entries in the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache, which maps IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local network. nslookup: The nslookup command is used to query DNS servers to obtain DNS-related information such as IP addresses corresponding to hostnames or vice versa. nmap: The nmap command (Network Mapper) is a powerful network scanning tool used to discover hosts and services on a computer network, thus providing detailed information about the network.
While all these tools are useful in different scenarios for network investigations or troubleshooting, when specifically needing to view all network connections on a server, netstat is typically the tool of choice because it directly shows active connections and related network details on the local machine.
A company recently decided to allow its employees to use their personally owned devices for tasks like checking email and messaging via mobile applications. The company would like to use MDM, but employees are concerned about the loss of personal data. Which of the following should the IT department implement to BEST protect the company against company data loss while still addressing the employees’ concerns?
a. Enable the remote-wiping option in the MDM software in case the phone is stolen.
b. Configure the MDM software to enforce the use of PINs to access the phone.
c. Configure MDM for FDE without enabling the lock screen.
d. Perform a factory reset on the phone before installing the company’s applications.
b. Configure the MDM software to enforce the use of PINs to access the phone.
Here’s why:
Enforcing PINs to access the phone: This measure ensures that the device is secured with a PIN, preventing unauthorized access to both personal and company data if the phone is lost or stolen. It addresses the security requirement without intruding into personal data or creating concerns about personal data loss.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
Enable the remote-wiping option in the MDM software in case the phone is stolen: While this is a strong security measure for protecting company data, it could lead to personal data loss, which is a primary concern for employees. Configure MDM for FDE without enabling the lock screen: Full Disk Encryption (FDE) is a good security practice, but not enabling the lock screen would leave the device vulnerable to unauthorized access. Additionally, FDE by itself doesn’t address the concern of separating personal and corporate data. Perform a factory reset on the phone before installing the company's applications: This would ensure a clean environment for corporate apps, but it would lead to the loss of all personal data on the phone, which is a significant concern for employees.
Therefore, configuring the MDM software to enforce the use of PINs to access the phone strikes a balance between securing company data and respecting employees’ concerns about their personal data.
The concept of connecting a user account across the systems of multiple enterprises is BEST known as:
a. federation.
b. a remote access policy.
c. multifactor authentication.
d. single sign-on.
a. federation.
Federation refers to the process of linking user identities and attributes across multiple identity management systems. It allows users to access multiple applications or services using a single set of credentials, which are often managed by their home organization. Federation enables seamless and secure access to resources across different domains or organizations without the need for users to have separate credentials for each system.
The other options provided are:
b. A remote access policy: Defines guidelines and rules for accessing a network or system remotely, typically focused on security and access control. c. Multifactor authentication: Refers to the use of multiple authentication factors (such as passwords and biometrics) to verify a user's identity. d. Single sign-on: Allows users to authenticate once and gain access to multiple applications or systems without re-entering credentials.
While single sign-on (SSO) is related to federation, federation specifically focuses on linking identities across different enterprises or domains, making a. federation the most appropriate answer in this context.
A user received an SMS on a mobile phone that asked for bank details. Which of the following social-engineering techniques was used in this case?
a. SPIM
b. Vishing
c. Spear phishing
d. Smishing
d. Smishing.
Explanation:
Smishing (SMS phishing) involves sending deceptive text messages to trick individuals into divulging sensitive information, clicking on malicious links, or downloading malicious attachments. In this scenario, the attacker used an SMS to impersonate a legitimate entity (such as a bank) to deceive the user into providing their bank details.
A company is working on mobile device security after a report revealed that users granted non-verified software access to corporate data. Which of the following is the MOST effective security control to mitigate this risk?
a. Block access to application stores
b. Implement OTA updates
c. Update the BYOD policy
d. Deploy a uniform firmware
c. Update the BYOD policy.
Explanation:
BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) policies govern how personal devices are used in the corporate environment, including access to corporate data and applications. Updating the BYOD policy to enforce stricter guidelines on software installation, verification, and access controls can help mitigate the risk of non-verified software accessing corporate data. This update can include requirements for using only approved applications or implementing mechanisms to prevent unauthorized software installation.
A security analyst needs to implement security features across smartphones, laptops, and tablets. Which of the following would be the MOST effective across heterogeneous platforms?
a. Enforcing encryption
b. Deploying GPOs
c. Removing administrative permissions
d. Applying MDM software
d. Applying MDM software.
Explanation:
MDM (Mobile Device Management) software provides a centralized solution to manage and secure mobile devices across different platforms, including smartphones, laptops, and tablets. MDM software allows the enforcement of security policies, application management, encryption, remote wipe capabilities, and compliance monitoring, making it the best choice for ensuring consistent security across heterogeneous devices.
Here’s a brief overview of why the other options are less suitable:
a. Enforcing encryption: While encryption is a critical security feature, it is only one aspect of device security. MDM software can enforce encryption policies along with other security settings. b. Deploying GPOs (Group Policy Objects): GPOs are primarily used in Windows environments. While they can manage Windows-based laptops and desktops, they are not effective for managing non-Windows devices like smartphones and tablets. c. Removing administrative permissions: Removing administrative permissions can enhance security, but it doesn't provide a comprehensive solution across different device types. MDM software can enforce this policy along with many other security configurations.
The new Chief Information Security Officer at a company has asked the security team to implement stronger user account policies. The new policies require:
-Users to choose a password unique to their last ten passwords
-Users to not log in from certain high-risk countries
Which of the following should the security team implement? (Choose two.)
a. Password complexity
b. Password history
c. Geolocation
d. Geofencing
e. Geotagging
f. Password reuse
b. Password history
d. Geofencing
Here’s why:
Password history: This policy ensures that users cannot reuse their last ten passwords, thereby enforcing the requirement for a unique password. Geofencing: This security control restricts or allows access based on the user's geographic location. By implementing geofencing, the company can prevent logins from high-risk countries, as required by the new policies.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
Password complexity: While important for ensuring strong passwords, this does not address the specific requirement of preventing the reuse of the last ten passwords. Geolocation: This involves determining the physical location of a user or device, which is useful but does not actively prevent logins from high-risk countries on its own. Geotagging: This is the process of adding location data to digital content. It is not relevant to restricting logins based on location. Password reuse: This term is related to the concept of password history but is not the actual policy or control used to enforce it.
Therefore, implementing password history and geofencing will effectively meet the new policies set by the Chief Information Security Officer.
(Braindump: b. Password history c. Geolocation)
Which of the following is MOST likely to outline the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data processors?
a. SSAE SOC 2
b. PCI DSS
c. GDPR
d. ISO 31000
(Community : C 59%, A 41%)
Taken from Mike Meyers Security + 601 Cert Guide (pg 51):
“The GDPR in the European Union outlines in great detail how organizations should deal with private information…Many countries have subsequently adopted similar regulations, so naturally, many multinational corporations comply with those regulations throughout their organization. The DATA CONTROLLER controls the data, which sounds silly, but means the person must ensure that data complies with the protections of PII thoroughly, according to the regulations in the GDPR.
c. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)
The GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is a comprehensive data protection law in the European Union that outlines the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data processors. It specifies requirements for how personal data should be processed, including the obligations and responsibilities of these entities in handling personal data. Therefore, GDPR is the regulation that is most likely to detail the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data processors.
a. SSAE SOC 2 (Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements No. 2): This is an auditing standard that focuses on controls relevant to the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of data processed by service providers.
b. PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): This standard applies to organizations that handle cardholder information for major debit, credit, prepaid, ATM, and POS cards. It focuses specifically on securing cardholder data to prevent fraud.
d. ISO 31000: This is an international standard for risk management that provides guidelines and principles for managing risks effectively in any organization.
Among these options, only GDPR specifically addresses the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data processors within the context of personal data protection. Therefore, while the other standards and regulations focus on different aspects of security and risk management, GDPR is the most relevant to outline the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and processors
Which of the following is MOST likely to contain ranked and ordered information on the likelihood and potential impact of catastrophic events that may affect business processes and systems, while also highlighting the residual risks that need to be managed after mitigating controls have been implemented?
a. An RTO report
b. A risk register
c. A business impact analysis
d. An asset value register
e. A disaster recovery plan
(Community : B 93%)
b. A risk register
Here’s why:
Risk Register: A risk register typically contains ranked and ordered information on various risks that may affect business processes and systems. It includes details on the likelihood and potential impact of these risks. After mitigating controls have been implemented, the risk register also highlights residual risks that need to be managed.
Let’s briefly review the other options for clarity:
RTO Report (Recovery Time Objective): This report focuses on the maximum acceptable downtime for recovering specific IT systems, applications, or business processes after a disruption. Business Impact Analysis (BIA): A BIA assesses the potential impact of disruptions to critical business operations and identifies recovery priorities. Asset Value Register: This typically lists the financial value and other attributes of organizational assets. Disaster Recovery Plan: This plan outlines procedures for recovering and restoring IT systems and data in the event of a disaster.
A worldwide manufacturing company has been experiencing email account compromises. In one incident, a user logged in from the corporate office in France, but then seconds later, the same user account attempted a login from Brazil. Which of the following account policies would BEST prevent this type of attack?
a. Network location
b. Impossible travel time
c. Geolocation
d. Geofencing
b. Impossible travel time
Here’s why:
Impossible travel time: This policy detects and blocks login attempts that occur within an implausibly short time frame between two geographically distant locations. It assumes that the user cannot physically travel between these locations in such a short period. This policy helps prevent unauthorized access attempts that indicate account compromise or fraudulent activity, such as in the described scenario where a user logs in from France and then attempts a login from Brazil within seconds.
Let’s briefly review the other options for clarity:
Network location: This policy restricts access based on the network or IP address from which the login attempt originates. It may not be effective in preventing simultaneous logins from geographically distant locations if the IP addresses are within the allowed network range. Geolocation: This policy allows or denies access based on the geographic location of the login attempt. While related, it may not detect or prevent rapid login attempts from different global locations within a short time. Geofencing: This policy sets geographical boundaries within which a user is allowed to access certain resources or services. It doesn't directly prevent rapid and implausible travel between geographically distant locations in a short time frame.
Therefore, impossible travel time is the most suitable account policy to address and prevent the type of attack where a user account is compromised and login attempts are made from widely separated locations within an unreasonably short period.
A new vulnerability in the SMB protocol on the Windows systems was recently discovered, but no patches are currently available to resolve the issue. The security administrator is concerned that servers in the company’s DMZ will be vulnerable to external attack; however, the administrator cannot disable the service on the servers, as SMB is used by a number of internal systems and applications on the LAN. Which of the following TCP ports should be blocked for all external inbound connections to the DMZ as a workaround to protect the servers? (Choose two.)
a. 135
b. 139
c. 143
d. 161
e. 443
f. 445
b. 139
f. 445
Port 139: This port is used for NetBIOS Session Service, which includes SMB over NetBIOS. Blocking this port helps mitigate external SMB-related attacks.
Port 445: This port is used for SMB over TCP. Blocking this port helps prevent external access to SMB services, which mitigates the risk of exploitation through the SMB vulnerability.
A recent phishing campaign resulted in several compromised user accounts. The security incident response team has been tasked with reducing the manual labor of filtering through all the phishing emails as they arrive and blocking the sender’s email address, along with other time-consuming mitigation actions. Which of the following can be configured to streamline those tasks?
a. SOAR playbook
b. MDM policy
c. Firewall rules
d. URL filter
e. SIEM data collection
a. SOAR playbook (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response)
SOAR platforms are designed to automate and orchestrate security operations tasks, including incident response actions like filtering and blocking emails based on predefined rules and playbooks. Here’s how a SOAR playbook can help:
Automated Response Actions: SOAR playbooks can be configured to automatically detect phishing indicators, such as suspicious email patterns or URLs, and then take predefined actions like blocking sender addresses, quarantining emails, or alerting the security team. Integration with Email Systems: They can integrate with email security solutions or mail servers to perform these actions swiftly and effectively. Reduction in Manual Effort: By automating these tasks, SOAR reduces the need for manual intervention, thereby saving time and improving response efficiency.
A user reports constant lag and performance issues with the wireless network when working at a local coffee shop. A security analyst walks the user through an installation of Wireshark and gets a five-minute pcap to analyze. The analyst observes the following output:
No. Time Source Destination Protocol Length Info
1234 9.1195665 Sagemcom_87:9f:a3 Broadcast 802.11 38 Deauthentication,
SN=655, FN=0
1235 9.1265649 Sagemcom_87:9f:a3 Broadcast 802.11 39 Deauthentication,
SN=655, FN=0
1236 9.2223212 Sagemcom_87:9f:a3 Broadcast 802.11 38 Deauthentication,
SN=655, FN=0
Which of the following attacks does the analyst MOST likely see in this packet capture?
a. Session replay
b. Evil twin
c. Bluejacking
d. ARP poisoning
b. Evil twin
The activity observed in the Wireshark capture, specifically deauthentication frames causing performance issues, aligns most closely with an evil twin attack.
a. Session replay: Involves capturing and replaying legitimate session data to impersonate a user.
b. Evil twin: Involves setting up a rogue wireless access point with the same SSID as a legitimate one to trick users into connecting to it.
c. Bluejacking: Involves sending unsolicited messages to Bluetooth-enabled devices.
d. ARP poisoning: Involves manipulating ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) cache to associate a different MAC address with an IP address.
A security analyst is reviewing the following output from a system:
TCP 192.168.10.10.80 192.168.1.2:60101 TIME_WAIT
TCP 192.168.10.10.80 192.168.1.2:60102 TIME_WAIT
TCP 192.168.10.10.80 192.168.1.2:60103 TIME_WAIT
TCP 192.168.10.10.80 192.168.1.2:60104 TIME_WAIT
TCP 192.168.10.10.80 192.168.1.2:60105 TIME_WAIT
TCP 192.168.10.10.80 192.168.1.2:60106 TIME_WAIT
TCP 192.168.10.10.80 192.168.1.2:60107 TIME_WAIT
TCP 192.168.10.10.80 192.168.1.2:60108 TIME_WAIT
TCP 192.168.10.10.80 192.168.1.2:60109 TIME_WAIT
TCP 192.168.10.10.80 192.168.1.2:60110 TIME_WAIT
Which of the following is MOST likely being observed?
a. ARP poisoning
b. Man in the middle
c. Denial of service
d. DNS poisoning
c. Denial of service
The output provided shows multiple TCP connections in the TIME_WAIT state between the IP address 192.168.10.10 on port 80 and the IP address 192.168.1.2 on sequentially increasing ports (60101 to 60110). This pattern is characteristic of a denial of service (DoS) attack where an attacker floods the target system with numerous connection requests, exhausting resources and causing legitimate clients to be unable to connect.
Let’s break down the options:
a. ARP poisoning: This involves manipulating ARP tables to redirect traffic, typically not related to the TCP TIME_WAIT state observed here.
b. Man in the middle: Involves intercepting communications between two parties, which would not typically result in numerous connections in TIME_WAIT state.
c. Denial of service: This matches the observed behavior, where multiple connections are initiated but not fully established due to the overwhelming number of requests.
d. DNS poisoning: Involves corrupting the DNS resolution process to redirect traffic, not directly related to the TCP connections in TIME_WAIT state.
Given the description of numerous TCP connections in TIME_WAIT state from the same source IP on incrementing ports, the most likely scenario being observed is a denial of service (DoS) attack.
Which of the following concepts BEST describes tracking and documenting changes to software and managing access to files and systems?
a. Version control
b. Continuous monitoring
c. Stored procedures
d. Automation
a. Version control
Version control systems (VCS) are designed to track changes to files over time, allowing developers (and administrators) to manage and collaborate on projects effectively. It provides mechanisms to:
Track modifications made to files, including who made the changes and when. Restore previous versions of files if necessary. Manage access control to ensure that only authorized individuals can make changes.
Continuous monitoring (option b) focuses more on real-time monitoring of systems and applications for security and performance issues rather than managing changes and access control.
Stored procedures (option c) are database-specific and refer to predefined sets of SQL statements stored in the database catalog. They are not directly related to managing changes to software or access to files and systems.
Automation (option d) involves using scripts or tools to perform tasks automatically, which can include version control operations but is broader in scope than just tracking changes and managing access.
A penetration tester is brought on site to conduct a full attack simulation at a hospital. The penetration tester notices a WAP that is hanging from the drop ceiling by its cabling and is reachable. Which of the following recommendations would the penetration tester MOST likely make given this observation?
a. Employ a general contractor to replace the drop-ceiling tiles.
b. Place the network cabling inside a secure conduit.
c. Secure the access point and cabling inside the drop ceiling.
d. Utilize only access points that have internal antennas
c. Secure the access point and cabling inside the drop ceiling.
Explanation:
Securing the access point and cabling inside the drop ceiling would involve properly mounting and securing the WAP and its associated cabling within the drop ceiling to prevent physical access by unauthorized individuals. Hanging WAPs can be easily tampered with or accessed, potentially allowing an attacker to gain physical access to the device, compromise it, or tamper with network traffic. This recommendation ensures that the WAP is not only functioning securely but also physically protected from tampering or unauthorized access.
The other options do not directly address the immediate security concern of the WAP being physically vulnerable:
Option a (Employ a general contractor to replace the drop-ceiling tiles) is unrelated to securing the WAP. Option b (Place the network cabling inside a secure conduit) addresses cable management but not the physical security of the WAP itself. Option d (Utilize only access points that have internal antennas) focuses on antenna types rather than physical security.
Which of the following techniques eliminates the use of rainbow tables for password cracking?
a. Hashing
b. Tokenization
c. Asymmetric encryption
d. Salting
d. Salting
Explanation:
Salting involves adding a unique, random string of characters (the salt) to each password before hashing it. This ensures that even if two users have the same password, their hashed passwords will be different due to the unique salts. Rainbow tables are precomputed tables used to crack hashed passwords efficiently. They map hashed passwords to their plaintext equivalents. However, if salts are used, each password hash will be unique, even if the passwords are the same, thereby thwarting the use of rainbow tables. Hashing (option a) itself does not prevent the use of rainbow tables unless combined with salting. Tokenization (option b) and asymmetric encryption (option c) are not directly related to preventing rainbow table attacks on password hashes.
During a security assessment, a security analyst finds a file with overly permissive permissions. Which of the following tools will allow the analyst to reduce the permissions for the existing users and groups and remove the set-user-ID bit from the file?
a. ls
b. chflags
c. chmod
d. lsof
e. setuid
c. chmod
Explanation:
chmod (change mode) is a command-line utility in Unix and Unix-like operating systems that allows users to change the permissions (read, write, execute) of files and directories.
It can be used to modify permissions for existing users and groups on a file.
Additionally, chmod can remove the set-user-ID (setuid) bit from a file if necessary, which is a security measure to prevent potential privilege escalation attacks.
The other options:
ls (option a) is used to list directory contents.
chflags (option b) is used to change file flags on BSD and macOS systems, not directly related to standard Unix file permissions.
lsof (option d) lists open files and is used for displaying information about files opened by processes.
setuid (option e) refers to the set-user-ID bit, which can be set or removed using chmod.
A network administrator is concerned about users being exposed to malicious content when accessing company cloud applications. The administrator wants to be able to block access to sites based on the AUP. The users must also be protected because many of them work from home or at remote locations, providing on-site customer support. Which of the following should the administrator employ to meet these criteria?
a. Implement NAC.
b. Implement an SWG.
c. Implement a URL filter.
d. Implement an MDM.
(Community : B 93%)
b. Implement an SWG (Secure Web Gateway).
Here’s why:
SWG (Secure Web Gateway): This solution provides comprehensive web security through functionalities such as URL filtering, content inspection, malware detection, and application controls. It allows administrators to enforce policies that block access to websites based on categories (including malicious sites and those violating the AUP). SWGs can also offer protection regardless of the user's location, whether they are working from home or remotely accessing company resources. NAC (Network Access Control): NAC is primarily used to control access to the network based on the endpoint's compliance with security policies. While it can restrict network access, it does not typically provide the granular web filtering and content inspection capabilities needed to block specific websites based on AUP or protect against malicious content directly. URL filter: A URL filter is part of an SWG and can be a component of other security solutions, but alone it does not provide the comprehensive security features of an SWG, such as deep content inspection and malware protection. MDM (Mobile Device Management): MDM focuses on managing and securing mobile devices, ensuring compliance with security policies, and enabling remote management of device configurations and applications. It does not directly address web security or enforce web access policies.
A website developer is working on a new e-commerce website and has asked an information security expert for the most appropriate way to store credit card numbers to create an easy reordering process. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal?
a. Salting the magnetic strip information
b. Encrypting the credit card information in transit
c. Hashing the credit card numbers upon entry
d. Tokenizing the credit cards in the database
d. Tokenizing the credit cards in the database.
Here’s why tokenization is the preferred approach:
Tokenization: This method replaces sensitive credit card information with a unique identifier (token) that has no exploitable value. The actual credit card data is securely stored in a separate, PCI-compliant vault maintained by a payment processor or gateway. This way, even if the database is compromised, the tokens cannot be reverse-engineered to obtain credit card details. Salting the magnetic strip information: Salting is a technique used in hashing to add randomness to data before hashing, primarily to prevent dictionary and rainbow table attacks. It's not typically used for credit card information storage because hashing alone doesn't provide the flexibility needed for reordering processes. Encrypting the credit card information in transit: Encrypting data in transit (using protocols like TLS/SSL) is crucial for securing data while it moves between the user’s browser and the web server. However, it doesn’t directly address the storage of credit card information in the database for reordering purposes. Hashing the credit card numbers upon entry: Hashing transforms data into a fixed-size string of characters, making it impractical to reverse the process to obtain the original data. However, hashing alone is irreversible, making it unsuitable for storing data that needs to be retrieved or reused (such as for reordering).
Which of the following supplies non-repudiation during a forensics investigation?
a. Dumping volatile memory contents first
b. Duplicating a drive with dd
c. Using a SHA-2 signature of a drive image
d. Logging everyone in contact with evidence
e. Encrypting sensitive data
c. Using a SHA-2 signature of a drive image
Here’s why:
Using a SHA-2 signature of a drive image: Non-repudiation ensures that the authenticity of a digital artifact can be proven and that it has not been altered since it was captured. By generating a SHA-2 hash (or any cryptographic hash) of a drive image, you create a unique digital fingerprint of the data at a specific point in time. If the hash of the image matches the hash taken later, it proves that the drive image has not been altered, providing non-repudiation.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
Dumping volatile memory contents first: This is a good practice for capturing ephemeral data that would be lost if the system were powered down, but it does not provide non-repudiation. Duplicating a drive with dd: While this is a method of creating a forensic copy of a drive, it does not, by itself, provide non-repudiation. Non-repudiation is about proving that the data has not been altered after duplication. Logging everyone in contact with evidence: This is part of maintaining the chain of custody, which helps ensure the integrity and accountability of the handling of evidence, but it does not provide non-repudiation by itself. Encrypting sensitive data: Encryption protects the confidentiality and integrity of data but does not provide non-repudiation unless combined with a method to verify that the data has not been altered, such as hashing.
Therefore, using a SHA-2 signature of a drive image is the best method for providing non-repudiation during a forensics investigation.
A security analyst is tasked with classifying data to be stored on company servers. Which of the following should be classified as proprietary?
a. Customers’ dates of birth
b. Customers’ email addresses
c. Marketing strategies
d. Employee salaries
c. Marketing strategies would be classified as proprietary because they involve confidential plans and tactics that provide a competitive edge to the company.
While the other options involve sensitive information, they are generally classified differently based on their sensitivity and potential impact, but not necessarily as proprietary unless specified otherwise by the company’s policies and practices.
a. Customers’ dates of birth: This information is sensitive and could potentially be used for identity theft or other malicious activities. While it’s sensitive, it’s not typically classified as proprietary unless the company explicitly treats it as such for business reasons.
b. Customers’ email addresses: Email addresses are usually considered personal information and are not typically classified as proprietary unless there are specific business reasons to do so.
c. Marketing strategies: Marketing strategies often involve confidential plans and tactics that provide a competitive advantage. Such information is usually classified as proprietary because it directly affects the company’s competitive position.
d. Employee salaries: Employee salaries are sensitive information and are generally classified as confidential rather than proprietary. However, in some cases where salary structures or compensation strategies are proprietary to the company, this information might be classified as proprietary.
Which of the following holds staff accountable while escorting unauthorized personnel?
a. Locks
b. Badges
c. Cameras
d. Visitor logs
d. Visitor logs
Here’s why:
Visitor logs: These logs record the details of visitors, including the time of entry, time of exit, the purpose of the visit, and the name of the escorting staff member. By maintaining accurate visitor logs, the organization can track who is responsible for escorting each visitor and hold staff accountable if there are any issues or security breaches involving unauthorized personnel.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
Locks: Locks are physical security controls that restrict access to certain areas. While they are important for securing spaces, they do not hold staff accountable for escorting visitors. Badges: Badges can identify authorized personnel and visitors, but they do not directly track or hold staff accountable for escorting unauthorized personnel. Cameras: Cameras can provide visual surveillance and record the movements of people within a facility. While they can be used to review incidents and identify who was involved, they do not inherently hold staff accountable without additional processes in place to review and act on the footage.
Therefore, visitor logs are the most effective means of holding staff accountable for escorting unauthorized personnel.
An organization’s Chief Security Officer (CSO) wants to validate the business’s involvement in the incident response plan to ensure its validity and thoroughness. Which of the following will the CSO MOST likely use?
a. An external security assessment
b. A bug bounty program
c. A tabletop exercise
d. A red-team engagement
(Community : C 68%, A 27%)
The reason why option A (an external security assessment) is not the most likely choice for the CSO to validate the business’s involvement in the incident response plan is because an external security assessment focuses on evaluating the overall security posture of an organization, rather than specifically validating the incident response plan
tabletop exercise (C) is specifically designed to test and validate the incident response plan. It allows participants to simulate and discuss their responses to various emergency scenarios, ensuring that the plan is comprehensive and that all stakeholders understand their roles and responsibilities
It’s important to note that while an external security assessment can provide valuable insights into an organization’s security posture, it may not be the most suitable method for validating the incident response plan in this specific scenario.
c. A tabletop exercise
a. An external security assessment: This involves hiring an outside firm to evaluate the organization’s security posture, which can include policies, procedures, and technical controls. While valuable, it does not specifically focus on validating business involvement in the incident response plan.
b. A bug bounty program: This program incentivizes external researchers to find and report vulnerabilities in the organization’s systems. Although it can improve overall security, it does not directly address the business’s involvement in incident response.
c. A tabletop exercise: This is a discussion-based exercise where key stakeholders from the business, including IT and security teams, simulate a security incident scenario. Participants discuss their roles, responsibilities, and actions in response to the scenario, which helps validate and refine the incident response plan. This option directly involves business stakeholders and assesses the thoroughness of their engagement.
d. A red-team engagement: This involves a team of ethical hackers simulating real-world attacks to test the organization’s security defenses. While it provides valuable insights into security weaknesses, it focuses more on technical defenses and less on validating the business’s involvement in incident response.
Conclusion:
c. A tabletop exercise is the most appropriate choice for the CSO to validate the business’s involvement in the incident response plan. It provides a controlled environment where all relevant parties can actively participate, ensuring the plan’s validity and thoroughness are assessed comprehensively.
Which of the following documents provides guidance regarding the recommended deployment of network security systems from the manufacturer?
a. Cloud control matrix
b. Reference architecture
c. NIST RMF
d. CIS Top 20
b. Reference architecture
a. Cloud control matrix: This is a framework provided by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) that helps organizations assess the risk associated with cloud computing providers. It focuses on cloud security controls rather than specific deployment guidance for network security systems from manufacturers.
b. Reference architecture: This document provides a standardized blueprint or template for the deployment of technology solutions, including network security systems. It often includes best practices and recommendations from the manufacturer on how to deploy and integrate their products within an organization’s infrastructure.
c. NIST RMF (Risk Management Framework): This framework, provided by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), focuses on managing and mitigating risks in information systems. While it provides guidelines for risk management and security controls, it does not specifically offer deployment guidance for network security systems from manufacturers.
d. CIS Top 20: The Center for Internet Security (CIS) Top 20 Controls are a set of best practices and guidelines for securing an organization’s IT systems and data. They focus on various aspects of cybersecurity but do not provide specific deployment guidance for network security systems from manufacturers.
Conclusion:
b. Reference architecture is the document that provides guidance regarding the recommended deployment of network security systems from the manufacturer. It includes best practices, templates, and recommendations for implementing these systems effectively within an organization’s infrastructure.
During a recent security assessment, a vulnerability was found in a common OS. The OS vendor was unaware of the issue and promised to release a patch within the next quarter. Which of the following BEST describes this type of vulnerability?
a. Legacy operating system
b. Weak configuration
c. Zero day
d. Supply chain
c. Zero day
A zero-day vulnerability is a security flaw that is unknown to the software vendor and, consequently, has no available patch or fix at the time of discovery. It is called “zero day” because the developers have had zero days to address and mitigate the issue.
Which of the following is a targeted attack aimed at compromising users within a specific industry or group?
a. Watering hole
b. Typosquatting
c. Hoax
d. Impersonation
a. Watering hole
A watering hole attack is a targeted attack aimed at compromising users within a specific industry or group. In this type of attack, the attacker identifies websites that are frequently visited by members of the targeted group and then compromises those sites with malware. When the target users visit the compromised site, their systems become infected, allowing the attacker to gain access to their networks and information.
b. Typosquatting: This attack involves registering domain names that are similar to legitimate websites, relying on users making typographical errors when entering URLs. While it can target specific groups, it is not inherently designed to compromise users within a specific industry or group.
c. Hoax: This is a form of deception that convinces people to believe something that is not true. Hoaxes are generally used to spread misinformation or to trick people into taking actions based on false information. They are not specifically targeted at compromising users within a specific industry or group.
d. Impersonation: This involves pretending to be someone else, often to gain unauthorized access to information or systems. While impersonation can be part of a targeted attack, it doesn’t specifically describe an attack aimed at compromising users within a specific industry or group as a watering hole attack does.
To reduce and limit software and infrastructure costs, the Chief Information Officer has requested to move email services to the cloud. The cloud provider and the organization must have security controls to protect sensitive data. Which of the following cloud services would BEST accommodate the request?
a. IaaS
b. PaaS
c. DaaS
d. SaaS
d. SaaS (Software as a Service)
Explanation:
SaaS (Software as a Service): SaaS is a cloud computing service model that delivers software applications over the internet, which are managed by a third-party provider. For email services, SaaS solutions like Microsoft 365 or Google Workspace offer robust email hosting with built-in security features, such as encryption, spam filtering, and data loss prevention. These providers also handle infrastructure and maintenance, reducing costs and complexity for the organization.
Why not the other choices?
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): IaaS provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. While IaaS offers flexibility and control over the infrastructure, it requires the organization to manage and maintain the email software and its security. This does not reduce software and infrastructure costs as effectively as SaaS. PaaS (Platform as a Service): PaaS provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without dealing with the underlying infrastructure. While PaaS can be used for email services, it typically targets application development and deployment rather than ready-to-use email solutions, making it less suitable for the described need. DaaS (Desktop as a Service): DaaS provides virtual desktops that users can access from anywhere. It is more focused on delivering a complete desktop environment rather than specific services like email. Thus, it is not the best fit for the requirement to move email services to the cloud specifically.
A security engineer is concerned that the strategy for detection on endpoints is too heavily dependent on previously defined attacks. The engineer would like a tool to monitor for changes to key files and network traffic on the device. Which of the following tools BEST addresses both detection and prevention?
a. NIDS
b. HIPS
c. AV
d. NGFW
b. HIPS (Host-based Intrusion Prevention System)
Explanation:
HIPS (Host-based Intrusion Prevention System): HIPS is designed to detect and prevent threats on individual endpoints by monitoring system behavior, including file changes, and analyzing network traffic to and from the host. HIPS can detect and block suspicious activities based on predefined rules and behavior patterns, making it effective for both detection and prevention.
Why not the other choices?
NIDS (Network-based Intrusion Detection System): NIDS monitors network traffic for suspicious activity and anomalies but does not directly monitor or prevent changes to key files on endpoints. It is primarily a detection tool rather than a prevention tool. AV (Antivirus): Antivirus software is primarily designed to detect and remove known malware based on signature-based detection. While modern AV solutions may include some heuristic and behavioral detection capabilities, they are not as comprehensive in monitoring network traffic and file changes as HIPS. NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall): NGFWs provide advanced network security features, including intrusion prevention, application awareness, and deep packet inspection. While NGFWs can monitor and block network traffic, they are not focused on endpoint-specific activities like file changes.
During a recent incident, an external attacker was able to exploit an SMB vulnerability over the internet. Which of the following action items should a security analyst perform FIRST to prevent this from occurring again?
a. Check for any recent SMB CVEs.
b. Install AV on the affected server.
c. Block unneeded TCP 445 connections.
d. Deploy a NIDS in the affected subnet.
c. Block unneeded TCP 445 connections.
Explanation:
Block unneeded TCP 445 connections: SMB (Server Message Block) uses TCP port 445. Blocking unnecessary inbound connections on this port will immediately mitigate the risk of external attacks exploiting SMB vulnerabilities. This step is crucial because it directly addresses the vector used by the attacker and prevents similar attacks in the future.
Why not the other choices?
Check for any recent SMB CVEs: While it's important to stay updated on recent vulnerabilities (CVEs), this action alone does not prevent exploitation. Blocking the relevant port is a more immediate and effective preventive measure. Install AV on the affected server: Antivirus software helps detect and remove malware but does not prevent exploitation of SMB vulnerabilities. It is more of a reactive measure rather than a preventive one. Deploy a NIDS in the affected subnet: A Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS) can help detect malicious activities and potential exploit attempts, but it does not prevent them. Blocking the port is a more direct and immediate step to prevent exploitation.
A penetration tester is fuzzing an application to identify where the EIP of the stack is located on memory. Which of the following attacks is the penetration tester planning to execute?
a. Race-condition
b. Pass-the-hash
c. Buffer overflow
d. XSS
c. buffer overflow attack.
Explanation:
Buffer overflow: In this type of attack, the penetration tester aims to inject more data than a buffer was designed to handle. This overflow can overwrite adjacent memory locations, including critical program control data such as the EIP (Extended Instruction Pointer) on the stack. By carefully crafting the input data (fuzzing), the tester attempts to determine the exact memory location (such as EIP) that can be manipulated to execute arbitrary code or gain control of the application. Race-condition: This type of attack involves exploiting a flaw in the timing or sequence of events within a system to gain unintended access or privileges, typically by manipulating the order of operations or events. Pass-the-hash: This is a method used to authenticate to a remote system by using the hash of the user's password instead of the plaintext password. XSS (Cross-Site Scripting): This attack injects malicious scripts into web applications that are executed in the browsers of other users who visit the affected site.
Server administrators want to configure a cloud solution so that computing memory and processor usage is maximized most efficiently across a number of virtual servers. They also need to avoid potential denial-of-service situations caused by availability. Which of the following should administrators configure to maximize system availability while efficiently utilizing available computing power?
a. Dynamic resource allocation
b. High availability
c. Segmentation
d. Container security
a. Dynamic resource allocation
Here’s why:
Dynamic resource allocation: This approach involves automatically distributing computing resources (such as memory and CPU) among virtual servers based on current demand. It ensures that resources are used efficiently, preventing any one server from being overwhelmed while others remain underutilized. This helps to maximize system performance and availability, reducing the risk of denial-of-service situations caused by resource shortages.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
High availability: High availability focuses on ensuring that systems and services are available with minimal downtime, often through redundancy and failover mechanisms. While important for maintaining service availability, it does not directly address the efficient use of computing resources. Segmentation: Segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller, isolated segments to improve security and manageability. It does not directly impact the efficient use of computing resources or prevent denial-of-service situations related to resource allocation. Container security: Container security focuses on securing containerized applications and their environments. While important for protecting applications, it does not address the efficient use of memory and processor resources across virtual servers.
Therefore, dynamic resource allocation is the best solution for maximizing system availability and efficiently utilizing available computing power.
While reviewing the wireless router, a systems administrator of a small business determines someone is spoofing the MAC address of an authorized device. Given the table below:
Hostname IP address MAC MAC filter
PC1 192.168.1.20 00:1E:1B;43:21:B2 On
PC2 192.168.1.23 31:1C:3C;13:25:C4 Off
PC3 192.168.1.25 20:A2:22;45:11:D2 On
Unknown 192.168.1.21 12:44:B2;FF:A1:22 Off
Which of the following should be the administrator’s NEXT step to detect if there is a rogue system without impacting availability?
a. Conduct a ping sweep,
b. Physically check each system.
c. Deny internet access to the “UNKNOWN” hostname.
d. Apply MAC filtering.
(Community : B 47%, A 45%)
B. Physically check each system
Running a ping sweep isn’t actually going to help you resolve the problem. But if you verify the MAC address of each authorized device you can then apply Mac filtering to allow only the authorized devices. But in order to identify the MAC address for each device you need to physically check each device.
(Brain dump : a. Conduct a ping sweep,)
a: Conduct a ping sweep would be the most practical next step to identify active devices on the network. However, to specifically detect the rogue system with potentially spoofed MAC addresses, the administrator should also consider:
Implementing ARP inspection: This helps to detect and block ARP spoofing, which is often associated with MAC address spoofing. Using network monitoring tools: Tools that can monitor and analyze network traffic and device behavior for anomalies.
Conduct a ping sweep (option a): This could help identify active devices on the network, but it won’t specifically detect MAC address spoofing unless coupled with ARP inspection or other network monitoring tools.
Physically check each system (option b): While effective, physically checking each system can be time-consuming and may not be feasible if the network is large or remote. It’s not the most efficient immediate step.
Deny internet access to the “UNKNOWN” hostname (option c): This could prevent the potential rogue system from accessing the internet, but it doesn’t address the core issue of identifying and verifying the rogue system.
Apply MAC filtering (option d): This is a viable option because enabling MAC filtering on the router can enforce restrictions based on MAC addresses. However, it’s important to ensure that MAC addresses are correctly identified and updated, as MAC filtering alone won’t detect spoofed MAC addresses.
A security analyst in a SOC has been tasked with onboarding a new network into the SIEM. Which of the following BEST describes the information that should feed into a SIEM solution in order to adequately support an investigation?
a. Logs from each device type and security layer to provide correlation of events
b. Only firewall logs since that is where attackers will most likely try to breach the network
c. Email and web-browsing logs because user behavior is often the cause of security breaches
d. NetFlow because it is much more reliable to analyze than syslog and will be exportable from every device
a: Logs from each device type and security layer to provide correlation of events.
Here’s why option a is correct:
Logs from each device type: This includes logs from firewalls, routers, switches, servers, endpoints, and other network infrastructure. Each device type generates logs that capture different aspects of network and system activity. Security layers: Logs should encompass various security layers such as intrusion detection/prevention systems (IDS/IPS), antivirus solutions, authentication systems, and more. This provides a comprehensive view of security events across different layers of the network. Correlation of events: SIEM systems excel at correlating events from different sources to detect patterns and anomalies indicative of security incidents. By ingesting logs from diverse device types and security layers, the SIEM can perform effective correlation and alerting, enhancing the SOC's ability to detect and respond to threats.
Option b, c, and d are not as comprehensive or accurate:
Option b: Only focusing on firewall logs would miss potential threats and incidents that occur elsewhere in the network or on endpoints. Option c: While email and web-browsing logs are important for detecting user-related threats, they do not cover the full spectrum of network activity and security incidents. Option d: NetFlow is useful for network traffic analysis but is not a replacement for syslog logs, which provide detailed event information crucial for security monitoring and incident response.
An organization just implemented a new security system. Local laws state that citizens must be notified prior to encountering the detection mechanism to deter malicious activities. Which of the following is being implemented?
a. Proximity cards with guards
b. Fence with electricity
c. Drones with alarms
d. Motion sensors with signage
d. Motion sensors with signage
Explanation:
The implementation of motion sensors with signage aligns with the requirement to notify citizens prior to encountering the detection mechanism. Motion sensors are commonly used in security systems to detect movement and trigger alarms or alerts. By placing signage indicating the presence of motion sensors, individuals are made aware of their presence before potentially triggering them. This practice not only complies with legal requirements but also serves as a deterrent to malicious activities by notifying individuals of surveillance or monitoring in the area.
An IT security manager requests a report on company information that is publicly available. The manager’s concern is that malicious actors will be able to access the data without engaging in active reconnaissance. Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to perform the analysis?
a. Provide a domain parameter to theHarvester tool.
b. Check public DNS entries using dnsenum.
c. Perform a Nessus vulnerability scan targeting a public company’s IP.
d. Execute nmap using the options: scan all ports and sneaky mode.
a. Provide a domain parameter to the Harvester tool.
Explanation:
TheHarvester is a popular tool used for gathering information from public sources like search engines, PGP key servers, and SHODAN computer databases. By providing a domain parameter to theHarvester, the tool can be directed to search for and gather various types of information associated with the company’s domain name. This could include email addresses, subdomains, hostnames, and open ports, all of which could potentially expose information that malicious actors might use for reconnaissance purposes.
Options b, c, and d involve specific activities like checking DNS entries, performing vulnerability scans on IP addresses, and conducting comprehensive port scans. While these activities are valuable for security assessments, they are not as directly focused on gathering publicly available company information as providing a domain parameter to theHarvester tool would be.
Which of the following environments utilizes dummy data and is MOST likely to be installed locally on a system that allows code to be assessed directly and modified easily with each build?
a. Production
b. Test
c. Staging
d. Development
d. Development
Explanation:
Development environment is typically where software developers work on code and applications. It is localized on individual developer systems or a dedicated development server. In this environment, dummy data (synthetic or placeholder data) is commonly used for testing and debugging purposes. Developers have the flexibility to assess and modify code easily during the development process, often using version control systems to manage changes. Unlike production, test, and staging environments, the development environment is less formal and is focused on iterative development and debugging, making it suitable for direct code assessment and frequent modifications.
An analyst receives multiple alerts for beaconing activity for a host on the network. After analyzing the activity, the analyst observes the following activity:
-A user enters comptia.org into a web browser.
-The website that appears is not the comptia.org site.
-The website is a malicious site from the attacker.
-Users in a different office are not having this issue.
Which of the following types of attacks was observed?
a. On-path attack
b. DNS poisoning
c. Locator (URL) redirection
d. Domain hijacking
(Braindump: c. Locator (URL) redirection)
DNS Poisoning would affect ALL users in the office. C: is the Only Correct Answer, here.
“Domain Name System (DNS) poisoning happens when fake information is entered into the cache of a domain name server, resulting in DNS queries producing an incorrect reply, sending users to the wrong website. DNS poisoning also goes by the terms “DNS spoofing” and “DNS cache poisoning.”
(Community : B 79%, C 21%)
Chat GPT :
B. DNS poisoning
Here’s why:
DNS poisoning (also known as DNS spoofing) occurs when a malicious actor alters DNS records to redirect traffic from a legitimate site to a malicious one. In this case, when the user enters "comptia.org" into the web browser, they are redirected to a malicious site instead of the legitimate CompTIA website. This redirection happens because the DNS resolution process has been compromised, resulting in the wrong IP address being returned for the legitimate domain.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
On-path attack (formerly known as man-in-the-middle attack): This involves intercepting and potentially altering communication between two parties. While it could result in redirection to a malicious site, it typically involves active interception rather than altering DNS records. Locator (URL) redirection: This involves changing the URL or using a URL shortener to redirect users to a different site. This is usually done at the URL level rather than manipulating DNS records. Domain hijacking: This involves taking control of the entire domain registration, allowing the attacker to control DNS settings and web content for that domain. This scenario specifically indicates that only some users (in a different office) are experiencing the issue, which suggests a localized DNS poisoning rather than full domain control.
Therefore, the most likely attack observed is DNS poisoning.
Which of the following in the incident response process is the BEST approach to improve the speed of the identification phase?
a. Activate verbose logging in all critical assets.
b. Tune monitoring in order to reduce false positive rates.
c. Redirect all events to multiple syslog servers.
d. Increase the number of sensors present on the environment.
b. Tune monitoring in order to reduce false positive rates.
Explanation:
Tuning monitoring to reduce false positive rates involves configuring monitoring systems to more accurately detect and alert on genuine security incidents while minimizing false alarms. False positives can slow down the identification phase by diverting attention and resources from genuine incidents. By fine-tuning monitoring rules and thresholds, security analysts can focus on relevant alerts, leading to quicker identification of potential security incidents. This approach is generally more effective than simply increasing logging verbosity, redirecting events to multiple syslog servers, or adding more sensors, as those actions may increase data volume without necessarily improving the relevance or accuracy of alerts.
A security administrator is analyzing the corporate wireless network. The network only has two access points running on channels 1 and 11. While using airodump-ng, the administrator notices other access points are running with the same corporate ESSID on all available channels and with the same BSSID of one of the legitimate access points. Which of the following attacks is happening on the corporate network?
a. On-path
b. Evil twin
c. Jamming
d. Rogue access point
e. Disassociation
b. Evil Twin attack.
Here’s why:
Evil Twin attack: In this type of attack, a malicious actor sets up a rogue wireless access point (AP) with the same SSID (network name) and often the same BSSID (MAC address) as a legitimate AP in the vicinity. The goal is to trick users and devices into connecting to the rogue AP instead of the legitimate one. Once connected, the attacker can intercept traffic, conduct man-in-the-middle attacks, or lure users into providing sensitive information.
In your case:
The presence of multiple access points with the same ESSID (corporate network name) and the same BSSID as one of the legitimate access points suggests that someone has set up rogue APs to mimic the corporate network. These rogue APs are likely broadcasting on multiple channels, trying to attract devices across different areas of the wireless spectrum (channels 1 and 11 in your case).
When implementing automation with IoT devices, which of the following should be considered FIRST to keep the network secure?
a. Z-Wave compatibility
b. Network range
c. Zigbee configuration
d. Communication protocols
d. Communication protocols
Here’s why:
IoT devices communicate using various protocols such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, Zigbee, Z-Wave, and others. The choice of communication protocol significantly impacts the security and functionality of IoT deployments:
Security Features: Different protocols offer varying levels of security features. For example, Zigbee and Z-Wave are designed with mesh networking capabilities and built-in encryption, which can enhance security compared to protocols like Bluetooth, which may require additional security measures. Interoperability: Ensuring that IoT devices can communicate securely and effectively with each other and with central management systems often depends on selecting compatible communication protocols. Network Segmentation: Understanding how these protocols operate and interact with other network components is crucial for proper network segmentation and isolation of IoT devices from critical network resources.
Considering communication protocols first allows you to establish a secure foundation for IoT deployments, addressing encryption, authentication, and interoperability requirements from the outset. Therefore, the correct answer is d. Communication protocols.
An organization is concerned that its hosted web servers are not running the most updated version of the software. Which of the following would work BEST to help identify potential vulnerabilities?
a. hping3 -S comptia-org -p 80
b. nc -l -v comptia.org -p 80
c. nmap comptia.org -p 80 -sV
d. nslookup –port=80 comptia.org
c. nmap comptia.org -p 80 -sV.
Here’s why:
nmap is a versatile network scanning tool that can scan hosts for open ports and services. -p 80 specifies that the scan should target port 80, which is commonly used for HTTP traffic. -sV enables version detection, which allows nmap to determine the versions of services running on open ports.
By running this command (nmap comptia.org -p 80 -sV), the organization can discover the versions of software running on the web servers hosted at comptia.org. This information is crucial for identifying whether the software versions are up-to-date or if there are known vulnerabilities associated with the detected versions.
Therefore, c. nmap comptia.org -p 80 -sV is the most appropriate choice to help identify potential vulnerabilities related to outdated software versions on the organization’s hosted web servers.
A news article states hackers have been selling access to IoT camera feeds. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?
a. Outdated software
b. Weak credentials
c. Lack of encryption
d. Backdoors
b. Weak credentials.
Here’s why:
IoT devices, including cameras, are often deployed with default or weak credentials (such as username/password combinations like admin/admin or no password at all). These devices are frequently targeted by attackers who scan the internet for devices with known vulnerabilities. Once they find devices with weak credentials, hackers can gain unauthorized access to them.
Selling access to IoT camera feeds implies that hackers have compromised these devices and are exploiting them for financial gain or malicious purposes. Weak credentials make it easy for attackers to brute-force their way into these devices or exploit default credentials that haven’t been changed by users.
While other factors like a. Outdated software, c. Lack of encryption, and d. Backdoors can also contribute to IoT vulnerabilities, weak credentials remain one of the most exploited weaknesses in IoT security, making it the most likely reason in this scenario. Strengthening credentials by using strong, unique passwords and implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) can significantly mitigate this risk.
A company wants to build a new website to sell products online. The website will host a storefront application that will allow visitors to add products to a shopping cart and pay for the products using a credit card. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure to implement?
a. SSL
b. SFTP
c. SNMP
d. TLS
d. TLS (Transport Layer Security).
Here’s why TLS is the best choice:
Encryption: TLS provides encryption of data in transit between the user's browser and the web server. This ensures that sensitive information such as credit card details cannot be intercepted or read by unauthorized parties. Data Integrity: TLS ensures data integrity, meaning that the data cannot be altered or tampered with while it is being transmitted over the network. Authentication: TLS supports server authentication, which allows the client (user's browser) to verify the identity of the server it is communicating with. This helps prevent man-in-the-middle attacks where an attacker might impersonate the server. Compatibility: TLS is widely supported across browsers and devices, making it suitable for ensuring secure communications between clients and servers on the web.
While SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) was its predecessor, TLS has superseded SSL due to various security vulnerabilities found in SSL over time. Therefore, TLS is the current standard for securing web communications and would be the most secure protocol to implement for the new e-commerce website.
An IT manager is estimating the mobile device budget for the upcoming year. Over the last five years, the number of devices that were replaced due to loss, damage, or theft steadily increased by 10%. Which of the following would BEST describe the estimated number of devices to be replaced next year?
a. ALE
b. ARO
c. RPO
d. SLE
b. ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence).
Here’s why:
Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) refers to the expected frequency with which a loss event (such as device replacement due to loss, damage, or theft) is anticipated to occur in a given year. It is derived from historical data and trends. In this scenario, the IT manager is using the trend of the past five years, where the number of devices replaced due to loss, damage, or theft increased by 10% annually. This percentage increase provides the ARO for the upcoming year, helping to estimate how many devices may need replacement. ALE (Annualized Loss Expectancy) is related but calculates the expected monetary loss from the occurrence of such events over a year, factoring in the cost of each incident and the ARO. RPO (Recovery Point Objective) and SLE (Single Loss Expectancy) are terms typically associated with disaster recovery and risk management, focusing on data loss scenarios rather than physical device replacement.
An organization is repairing the damage after an incident. Which of the following controls is being implemented?
a. Detective
b. Preventive
c. Corrective
d. Compensating
c. Corrective.
Corrective controls are implemented after an incident has occurred to mitigate the impact or restore affected systems and data to their normal operational state. These controls aim to fix the root cause of the incident and prevent its recurrence. Detective controls are used to detect and identify incidents or anomalies as they occur or shortly after. Preventive controls are implemented to prevent incidents from occurring in the first place. Compensating controls are alternative measures implemented when an original control cannot be applied effectively.
In the context of repairing damage after an incident, the organization is actively addressing the consequences and remedying the situation, which aligns with corrective controls.
A Chief Executive Officer’s (CEO) personal information was stolen in a social-engineering attack. Which of the following sources would reveal if the CEO’s personal information is for sale?
a. Automated information sharing
b. Open-source intelligence
c. The dark web
d. Vulnerability databases
c. The dark web.
The dark web is a part of the internet that is not indexed by traditional search engines and is often used for illicit activities, including the sale of stolen personal information. Open-source intelligence (OSINT) can also be used to gather information from publicly available sources, but it typically focuses on publicly accessible data rather than illicit activities. Automated information sharing and vulnerability databases are more related to technical information sharing and security vulnerabilities, rather than the sale of personal information.
Which of the following typically uses a combination of human and artificial intelligence to analyze event data and take action without intervention?
a. TTP
b. OSINT
c. SOAR
d. SIEM
c. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response).
SOAR platforms integrate security orchestration, automation, and response capabilities to automate incident response workflows. They utilize a combination of human and artificial intelligence (AI) to analyze event data, automate repetitive tasks, and orchestrate responses to security incidents. TTP (Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures) refer to the behavior and actions of threat actors. OSINT (Open-Source Intelligence) refers to intelligence collected from publicly available sources. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) systems collect, correlate, and analyze security event data but typically require human intervention for action.
A security analyst has been tasked with creating a new WiFi network for the company. The requirements received by the analyst are as follows:
-Must be able to differentiate between users connected to WiFi
-The encryption keys need to change routinely without interrupting the users or forcing reauthentication
-Must be able to integrate with RADIUS
-Must not have any open SSIDs
Which of the following options BEST accommodates these requirements?
a. WPA2-Enterprise
b. WPA3-PSK
c. 802.11n
d. WPS
a. WPA2-Enterprise
Here’s how WPA2-Enterprise aligns with each requirement:
Must be able to differentiate between users connected to WiFi: WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication, which allows for individual user authentication through a RADIUS server. Each user has unique credentials, enabling differentiation. The encryption keys need to change routinely without interrupting the users or forcing reauthentication: WPA2-Enterprise supports dynamic key exchange using protocols like EAP-TLS or PEAP, which allows for frequent key rotation without requiring users to reauthenticate. Must be able to integrate with RADIUS: WPA2-Enterprise is designed to work with a RADIUS server for centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting. Must not have any open SSIDs: WPA2-Enterprise does not require an open SSID; it operates with a closed (hidden) SSID by default, enhancing security.
Therefore, WPA2-Enterprise is the most suitable choice that meets all the specified requirements effectively.
A security administrator is trying to determine whether a server is vulnerable to a range of attacks. After using a tool, the administrator obtains the following output:
HTTP/1.0 200 OK
Content-Type: text/html
Server: Apache
root:s9fyf983#:0:1)System Operator:/:/bin/bash
daemon:*:1:1::/tmp:
user1:f1@su3FF:183.100:user:/home/users/user1:/bin/bash
Which of the following attacks was successfully implemented based on the output?
a. Memory leak
b. Race conditions
c. SQL injection
d. Directory traversal
d. Directory traversal
Directory traversal attacks exploit insufficient input validation in web applications to access directories and files outside the intended directory. In this scenario, sensitive information such as user credentials (root, daemon, user1) and their associated details (/bin/bash) are disclosed, indicating a potential vulnerability allowing unauthorized access to system files.
Memory leak: This involves unintended memory access that can lead to unauthorized data disclosure, but the provided output does not directly indicate a memory leak.
Race conditions: These occur when the outcome of a process depends on the timing of other uncontrollable events. The output does not indicate race conditions.
SQL injection: This attack targets databases by injecting malicious SQL code into queries, but the output does not show SQL-related errors or database content.
Directory traversal: This attack exploits insufficient input validation in web applications to access directories and files outside the intended directory.
A Chief Security Officer is looking for a solution that can reduce the occurrence of customers receiving errors from back-end infrastructure when systems go offline unexpectedly. The security architect would like the solution to help maintain session persistence. Which of the following would BEST meet the requirements?
a. Reverse proxy
b. NIC teaming
c. Load balancer
d. Forward proxy
c. Load balancer
Load balancers distribute incoming network traffic across multiple servers to ensure no single server gets overwhelmed, thereby reducing the impact of server outages. They also help maintain session persistence by ensuring that once a client establishes a session with a server, subsequent requests from that client are routed back to the same server. This prevents disruptions in user sessions even if individual servers go offline or are taken out of service temporarily.
a. Reverse proxy:
A reverse proxy is used to handle incoming client requests and distribute them to the appropriate backend servers. While it can help with load distribution and offloading certain tasks from servers, it does not inherently provide session persistence across servers during outages. It focuses more on routing and enhancing security rather than maintaining session state.
b. NIC teaming:
NIC teaming (or network interface card teaming) involves combining multiple network interfaces into a single logical interface to increase bandwidth and redundancy. However, it primarily deals with network interface redundancy and load balancing at the network level, not at the application level where session persistence is managed.
d. Forward proxy:
A forward proxy is used to retrieve data from other servers on behalf of a client. It does not provide load balancing or session persistence features for backend infrastructure. Its primary role is to enhance security and control outbound traffic from clients within a network.
(Braindump: a. Reverse proxy )
Which of the following should an organization consider implementing in the event executives need to speak to the media after a publicized data breach?
a. Incident response plan
b. Business continuity plan
c. Communication plan
d. Disaster recovery plan
c. Communication plan
Explanation:
When executives need to speak to the media after a publicized data breach, it’s crucial to have a well-defined communication plan in place. A communication plan outlines how information about the incident will be communicated both internally and externally, including to the media, customers, stakeholders, and the public. It ensures that messaging is consistent, accurate, and timely, helping to manage the organization’s reputation and maintain public trust during a crisis.
A well-known organization has been experiencing attacks from APTs. The organization is concerned that custom malware is being created and emailed into the company or installed on USB sticks that are dropped in parking lots. Which of the following is the BEST defense against this scenario?
a. Configuring signature-based antivirus to update every 30 minutes
b. Enforcing S/MIME for email and automatically encrypting USB drives upon insertion
c. Implementing application execution in a sandbox for unknown software
d. Fuzzing new files for vulnerabilities if they are not digitally signed
c. Implementing application execution in a sandbox for unknown software.
Explanation:
Sandboxing: This technique involves running potentially risky or unknown software in an isolated environment (sandbox) where its behavior can be observed without affecting the rest of the system. Sandboxing helps prevent malware from spreading or causing harm by containing its activities within a controlled environment. Email and USB Defense: While options like configuring antivirus to update frequently (option a) and using encryption (option b) are beneficial, they do not directly mitigate the risk of custom malware that may evade signature-based detection or encryption measures. Sandboxing, on the other hand, focuses on behavior analysis, which is crucial for detecting and containing new and unknown threats, such as custom malware.
A company is implementing BYOD and wants to ensure all users have access to the same cloud-based services. Which of the following would BEST allow the company to meet this requirement?
a. IaaS
b. PaaS
c. MaaS
d. SaaS
d. SaaS (Software as a Service).
Explanation:
SaaS (Software as a Service): This cloud computing model allows users to access software applications that are hosted and maintained by a third-party provider via the internet. Users can access these applications from any device with an internet connection, making it ideal for a BYOD environment where users bring their own devices. SaaS applications ensure consistency in service access across different devices and platforms, as the applications are centrally managed and accessed through a web browser or client application.
Other Options:
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): Provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, such as virtual machines and storage, but does not directly address application access consistency.
PaaS (Platform as a Service): Provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the underlying infrastructure. While it supports application development and deployment, it does not necessarily ensure uniform access to third-party SaaS applications.
MaaS (Mobile as a Service): Generally refers to mobile device management services, which focus on managing mobile devices, apps, and content, but do not directly provide uniform access to cloud-based services.
Therefore, SaaS is the most suitable option for ensuring consistent access to cloud-based services across various devices in a BYOD environment.
During a recent security incident at a multinational corporation a security analyst found the following logs for an account called user:
Account Login location Time (UTC) Message
user New York 9:00 am Login: user, successful
user Lost Angeles 9:01 am Login: user, successful
user Sao Paolo 9:05 am Login: user, successful
user Munich 9:12 am Login: user, successful
Which of the following account policies would BEST prevent attackers from logging in as user?
a. Impossible travel time
b. Geofencing
c. Time-based logins
d. Geolocation
a. Impossible travel time
Here’s why:
Impossible travel time: This policy detects and prevents logins from locations that are geographically too far apart to be possible within a given timeframe. In this case, the logins from New York, Los Angeles, Sao Paulo, and Munich all occurring within minutes of each other indicate a clear case of impossible travel time. Implementing this policy would block such suspicious login attempts based on the unrealistic travel times between the locations.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
Geofencing: Geofencing restricts access based on predefined geographic boundaries. While this can be effective for limiting logins to certain locations, it wouldn't specifically address the issue of multiple, simultaneous logins from different locations. Time-based logins: This policy restricts logins to certain times of the day. While it can enhance security, it wouldn't prevent logins from different locations in quick succession unless those times were also unrealistic for travel. Geolocation: Geolocation tracks the physical location from which a login attempt is made and can be used to enhance security by verifying if the login location is typical for the user. However, it does not specifically address the scenario of multiple rapid logins from different locations unless combined with an impossible travel time check.
Therefore, the impossible travel time policy is the most appropriate and effective in preventing the kind of suspicious login activity described in the logs.
An organization is tuning SIEM rules based off of threat intelligence reports. Which of the following phases of the incident response process does this scenario represent?
a. Lessons learned
b. Eradication
c. Recovery
d. Preparation
d. Preparation.
Explanation:
Preparation in the incident response process involves activities such as enhancing monitoring and detection capabilities, which includes tuning SIEM rules based on threat intelligence. By leveraging threat intelligence reports, organizations can proactively adjust their detection mechanisms (such as SIEM rules) to better identify and respond to potential threats. This phase focuses on readiness and involves actions taken before an incident occurs to improve the organization's ability to detect, respond to, and recover from security incidents effectively.
Other Options Explained:
Lessons learned: This phase occurs after an incident has been resolved, where the organization conducts a retrospective analysis to identify what went well and what could be improved in handling similar incidents in the future. Eradication: This phase involves the removal of threats from affected systems and networks during an active incident response process. Recovery: This phase follows eradication and involves restoring affected systems and data to normal operation after an incident.
The database administration team is requesting guidance for a secure solution that will ensure confidentiality of cardholder data at rest only in certain fields in the database schema. The requirement is to substitute a sensitive data field with a non-sensitive field that is rendered useless if a data breach occurs. Which of the following is the BEST solution to meet the requirement?
a. Tokenization
b. Masking
c. Full disk encryption
d. Mirroring
a. Tokenization
Tokenization is a data security technique that replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive placeholders called tokens. These tokens are randomly generated and are mapped to the original sensitive data through a tokenization system. If a data breach occurs and the database is compromised, the tokens alone are useless without the corresponding tokenization system to decrypt them back into meaningful data. This approach ensures that sensitive cardholder data remains protected and unusable to unauthorized parties.
Why Tokenization is the Best Choice:
Confidentiality: Tokenization maintains the confidentiality of sensitive data by replacing it with tokens that have no exploitable value. Usefulness in Breach Scenarios: In the event of a data breach, even if the database is compromised, the tokens cannot be reverse-engineered back into the original sensitive data without access to the tokenization system. Specific Field Encryption: Tokenization allows for selective substitution of sensitive fields in the database schema while maintaining the integrity and relational aspects of the data.
Other Options Explained:
Masking: While masking hides sensitive data by partially or fully replacing it with characters (such as asterisks), it does not render the data useless in a breach scenario as the original data format remains discernible through reverse engineering. Full Disk Encryption: This encrypts all data on the disk or storage device, but it does not selectively protect specific fields within a database schema. It protects against physical theft or unauthorized access to the storage device itself rather than individual data fields. Mirroring: This is a technique used for redundancy and fault tolerance, ensuring data availability and recovery but does not directly address confidentiality or substitution of sensitive data fields.
A company’s security team received notice of a critical vulnerability affecting a high-profile device within the web infrastructure. The vendor patch was just made available online but has not yet been regression tested in development environments. In the interim, firewall rules were implemented to reduce the access to the interface affected by the vulnerability. Which of the following controls does this scenario describe?
a. Deterrent
b. Compensating
c. Detective
d. Preventive
b. compensating controls.
Compensating controls are security measures put in place to compensate for the lack of or the inadequacy of other controls. In this case:
Vendor Patch Availability: A critical vulnerability has been identified, and the vendor has released a patch, but it has not yet been tested in development environments. Implementation of Firewall Rules: To mitigate the risk posed by the vulnerability while awaiting the tested patch, firewall rules are deployed. These rules restrict access to the vulnerable interface, thereby reducing the attack surface and the likelihood of exploitation.
By implementing firewall rules, the security team is applying a compensating control to temporarily mitigate the risk associated with the unpatched vulnerability. This approach helps to maintain a level of security until the proper patching process can be completed, ensuring that the organization’s systems are protected from potential exploitation. Therefore, the correct answer is:
b. Compensating
This control supplements the existing security measures until a more comprehensive solution (in this case, a properly tested vendor patch) can be safely deployed
A security analyst is reviewing the following command-line output:
Internet Address Physical Address Type
192.168.1.1 aa-bb-cc-00-11-22 dynamic
192.168.1.2 aa-bb-cc-00-11-22 dynamic
192.168.1.3 aa-bb-cc-00-11-22 dynamic
192.168.1.4 aa-bb-cc-00-11-22 dynamic
192.168.1.5 aa-bb-cc-00-11-22 dynamic
—output omittedd—
192.168.1.251 aa-bb-cc-00-11-22 dynamic
192.168.1.252 aa-bb-cc-00-11-22 dynamic
192.168.1.253 aa-bb-cc-00-11-22 dynamic
192.168.1.254 aa-bb-cc-00-11-22 dynamic
192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff static
Which of the following is the analyst observing?
a. ICMP spoofing
b. URL redirection
c. MAC address cloning
d. DNS poisoning
c. MAC address cloning.
MAC address cloning occurs when a device impersonates another by using its MAC address. In this case, all dynamically assigned IP addresses (192.168.1.1 to 192.168.1.254) are associated with the same MAC address (“aa-bb-cc-00-11-22”), suggesting that multiple devices are using the same MAC address, which is abnormal and could indicate a security issue or misconfiguration.
A company was recently breached, Part of the company’s new cybersecurity strategy is to centralize the logs from all security devices. Which of the following components forwards the logs to a central source?
a. Log enrichment
b. Log aggregation
c. Log parser
d. Log collector
(Community D 92%)
d. Log collector
A log collector gathers logs from multiple sources, such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems (IDS), servers, and other network devices. It then forwards these logs to a centralized location, typically a SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) system or a log management server. This centralized collection allows for efficient monitoring, analysis, and correlation of security events across the organization’s IT infrastructure.
a. Log enrichment: Log enrichment involves enhancing the raw log data with additional contextual information to make it more meaningful and actionable. This could include adding geolocation data, user information, or categorizing logs based on severity levels.
b. Log aggregation: Log aggregation refers to the process of collecting and consolidating log data from various sources into a centralized repository. It involves gathering logs from multiple devices or systems to facilitate centralized storage and analysis.
c. Log parser: A log parser is a tool or component that interprets and extracts relevant information from raw log data. It parses the logs to identify key fields and normalize them into a structured format that can be further processed or analyzed.
In the context of the question, while all these components are important for managing and analyzing logs, d. Log collector specifically addresses the task of gathering logs from distributed sources and forwarding them to a centralized location. This centralization is crucial for effective monitoring and management of security events across the organization.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for securing an air-gapped laboratory HVAC system?
a. To avoid data leakage
b. To protect surveillance logs
c. To ensure availability
d. To facilitate third-party access
a. To avoid data leakage
Air-gapping a system means physically isolating it from other networks that could potentially be accessed by unauthorized parties. In the context of a laboratory HVAC system, securing it with an air gap helps prevent sensitive data, such as environmental control settings or operational data, from leaking to unauthorized individuals or systems. This isolation reduces the risk of data breaches or unauthorized access attempts.
A user forwarded a suspicious email to the security team. Upon investigation, a malicious URL was discovered. Which of the following should be done FIRST to prevent other users from accessing the malicious URL?
a. Configure the web content filter for the web address.
b. Report the website to threat intelligence partners.
c. Set the SIEM to alert for any activity to the web address.
d. Send out a corporate communication to warn all users of the malicious email.
a. Configure the web content filter for the web address.
Configuring the web content filter to block access to the malicious URL ensures that users within the organization are protected immediately. By adding the URL to the web content filter’s blacklist, access attempts to the malicious site can be intercepted and blocked at the network level, thereby preventing potential infections or further compromise.
The other options are also important actions but would typically follow after the immediate mitigation of blocking the URL:
b. Report the website to threat intelligence partners: This is important for broader industry awareness and potential mitigation efforts but doesn't directly prevent access for internal users. c. Set the SIEM to alert for any activity to the web address: This helps in monitoring and detecting if any user attempts to access the URL after it has been blocked. d. Send out a corporate communication to warn all users of the malicious email: This is crucial for awareness and educating users about the threat, but it doesn't immediately prevent access to the URL.
A systems analyst is responsible for generating a new digital forensics chain-of-custody form. Which of the following should the analyst include in this documentation? (Choose two.)
a. The order of volatility
b. A CRC32 checksum
c. The provenance of the artifacts
d. The vendor’s name
e. The date and time
f. A warning banner
(Community CE 86%)
c. The provenance of the artifacts
e. The date and time
These elements are essential for ensuring a clear and traceable record of the evidence handling process.
c. The provenance of the artifacts: This includes details on where the evidence was collected, who collected it, and how it has been handled. This information is crucial for establishing the authenticity and integrity of the evidence. e. The date and time: This provides a timestamp for when the evidence was collected or transferred, which is critical for establishing a timeline of events and maintaining the integrity of the chain-of-custody.
An organization is migrating several SaaS applications that support SSO. The security manager wants to ensure the migration is completed securely. Which of the following application integration aspects should the organization consider before focusing into underlying implementation details? (Choose two.)
a. The back-end directory source
b. The identity federation protocol
c. The hashing method
d. The encryption method
e. The registration authority
f. The certificate authority
a. The back-end directory source
b. The identity federation protocol
These aspects are critical for ensuring secure and seamless integration of the applications with the SSO infrastructure.
a. The back-end directory source: This is important to determine how user identities and credentials are managed and stored. It ensures compatibility and secure communication between the SSO system and the SaaS applications. b. The identity federation protocol: This defines how authentication and authorization data are exchanged between the SSO system and the SaaS applications. Common protocols include SAML, OAuth, and OpenID Connect, and choosing the right protocol is essential for secure and efficient integration.
By focusing on these two aspects, the organization can ensure a secure and interoperable SSO implementation for the migrated SaaS applications.
A security analyst has been tasked with finding the maximum amount of data loss that can occur before ongoing business operations would be impacted. Which of the following terms BEST defines this metric?
a. MTTR
b. RTO
c. RPO
d. MTBF
c. RPO (Recovery Point Objective)
RPO (Recovery Point Objective): This metric specifies the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It represents the point in time to which data must be recovered to resume normal business operations after a disruption. The RPO determines how often backups should be made to ensure that data can be restored to an acceptable state in the event of a data loss incident.
MTTR (Mean Time to Repair):
Definition: The average time required to repair a system or component and restore it to normal operation after a failure. Usage: MTTR focuses on the efficiency and speed of the repair process, not on the amount of data loss or backup frequency.
RTO (Recovery Time Objective):
Definition: The maximum acceptable amount of time that a system, application, or function can be down after a failure or disaster before there is an unacceptable impact on business operations. Usage: RTO is about the duration of downtime that can be tolerated, not about data loss or how recent the data needs to be.
MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures):
Definition: The average time between failures of a system or component. Usage: MTBF is used to predict the reliability and lifespan of systems, indicating how frequently failures might occur, but it does not directly relate to data loss or recovery objectives.
In summary:
RPO focuses on the maximum acceptable data loss. RTO focuses on the maximum acceptable downtime. MTTR focuses on the average time to repair and restore. MTBF focuses on the average time between failures.
The IT department’s on-site developer has been with the team for many years. Each time an application is released, the security team is able to identify multiple vulnerabilities. Which of the following would BEST help the team ensure the application is ready to be released to production?
a. Limit the use of third-party libraries.
b. Prevent data exposure queries.
c. Obfuscate the source code.
d. Submit the application to QA before releasing it.
d. Submit the application to QA before releasing it.
Explanation:
Quality Assurance (QA):
Purpose: QA teams are responsible for systematically testing the application to identify and fix bugs, vulnerabilities, and other issues before the application is released to production. This includes performing various types of testing such as functional testing, performance testing, and security testing. Benefit: Submitting the application to QA ensures that it undergoes a thorough review process, which can catch issues that the development team might have missed. This step is crucial for improving the overall quality and security of the application.
Why Other Options Are Less Effective:
a. Limit the use of third-party libraries:
While limiting third-party libraries can reduce the attack surface and dependencies, it doesn't directly address the specific vulnerabilities in the application code written by the developer.
b. Prevent data exposure queries:
Preventing data exposure queries is a good practice to protect sensitive data, but it is just one aspect of security and doesn't cover all possible vulnerabilities in the application.
c. Obfuscate the source code:
Obfuscation can make it harder for attackers to understand the code, but it doesn't eliminate vulnerabilities. It is more of a deterrent than a solution for improving the quality or security of the code.
Summary:
Submitting the application to a dedicated QA team for thorough testing is the most effective way to ensure that it is ready for production. QA teams can perform comprehensive testing, including security testing, which will help identify and resolve vulnerabilities before the application is released.
During a security incident investigation, an analyst consults the company’s SIEM and sees an event concerning high traffic to a known, malicious command-and-control server. The analyst would like to determine the number of company workstations that may be impacted by this issue. Which of the following can provide this information?
a. WAF logs
b. DNS logs
c. System logs
d. Application logs
(Community B 80%, C 20%)
DNS logs can contain a record for every query and response. It can show the IP addresses and domain names that your system should/shouldn’t be communicating with, it can reveal malware calling out to its command-and-control server, or data transfers to non-company locations. This is one of the reasons why DNS logs are some of the most valuable logs to import into a SIEM system
(Brain dump)
b. DNS logs
Explanation:
DNS Logs:
Purpose: DNS logs record queries made by workstations to resolve domain names to IP addresses. Benefit: By reviewing DNS logs, the analyst can identify which workstations have attempted to resolve the domain name of the command-and-control server. This helps in determining which workstations have potentially communicated with the malicious server.
Why Other Options Are Less Effective:
a. WAF logs:
Purpose: Web Application Firewall (WAF) logs monitor and filter HTTP traffic to and from web applications. Limitation: While WAF logs can detect malicious web traffic, they are less likely to capture traffic to command-and-control servers unless the traffic involves web applications.
c. System logs:
Purpose: System logs contain information about operating system events such as user logins, system errors, and application events. Limitation: System logs typically do not track network traffic or DNS queries, making them less useful for identifying communication with a command-and-control server.
d. Application logs:
Purpose: Application logs record events and errors related to specific applications running on the system. Limitation: Unless the malicious traffic is related to a specific application and that application logs such network activity, these logs are unlikely to provide comprehensive information about which workstations are affected.
Summary:
DNS logs are the most relevant and useful for identifying workstations that have attempted to communicate with a known, malicious command-and-control server. They provide clear evidence of which machines have resolved the server’s domain name, indicating potential infection or compromise.
A company has a flat network that is deployed in the cloud. Security policy states that all production and development servers must be segmented. Which of the following should be used to design the network to meet the security requirements?
a. CASB
b. VPC
c. Perimeter network
d. WAF
b. VPC (Virtual Private Cloud)
Explanation:
VPC (Virtual Private Cloud):
Purpose: A VPC allows you to create isolated network segments within a cloud provider's infrastructure. Benefit: You can create multiple subnets within a VPC and control the traffic between them using network access control lists (ACLs) and security groups. This enables the segmentation of production and development environments, aligning with the security policy.
Why Other Options Are Less Effective:
a. CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker):
Purpose: A CASB provides visibility and control over data and security policies for cloud services. Limitation: While a CASB enhances security for cloud services, it does not inherently provide network segmentation capabilities required to isolate production and development servers.
c. Perimeter network:
Purpose: A perimeter network, or DMZ (Demilitarized Zone), is used to expose external-facing services to the internet while protecting the internal network. Limitation: A perimeter network focuses on securing external access rather than internal segmentation between different environments such as production and development.
d. WAF (Web Application Firewall):
Purpose: A WAF protects web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic. Limitation: While a WAF is useful for protecting web applications from specific types of attacks, it does not provide the necessary network segmentation to isolate production and development servers.
Summary:
A VPC is the most suitable choice for designing a network that requires segmentation of production and development servers in a cloud environment. It allows for the creation of isolated subnets and provides the necessary tools to control and secure traffic between them, ensuring compliance with the security policy.
A new plug-and-play storage device was installed on a PC in the corporate environment. Which of the following safeguards will BEST help to protect the PC from malicious files on the storage device?
a. Change the default settings on the PC.
b. Define the PC firewall rules to limit access.
c. Encrypt the disk on the storage device.
d. Plug the storage device in to the UPS.
(Community A: 52%, C : 42%)
a. Change the default settings on the PC.
Option A protects the PC. Modifying the default settings on the PC which includes enabling auto-scanning of connected devices before use and preventing unauthorized software execution; can protect from malicious files on storage devices.
Option B is incorrect. Firewalls control network traffic, they don’t directly protect against malicious files.
Option C is incorrect! FDE protects data on the storage device from unauthorized use, but we want to protect the PC from malicious files, not the storage device.
Option D is irrelevant, it’s related to protection against power outages.
ChatGPT :
a. Change the default settings on the PC.
Explanation:
Change the default settings on the PC:
Purpose: By changing the default settings, you can control how the PC responds to plug-and-play devices. This includes disabling auto-run features and ensuring that any new storage device is scanned for malware before files are accessed. Benefit: This minimizes the risk of automatically executing malicious files from the storage device and provides a layer of protection by requiring manual intervention or a malware scan before the device can be used.
Why Other Options Are Less Effective:
b. Define the PC firewall rules to limit access:
Purpose: Firewall rules control network traffic but do not directly address threats posed by files on a local storage device. Limitation: While useful for network security, firewall rules do not prevent malicious files from being executed once the storage device is connected.
c. Encrypt the disk on the storage device:
Purpose: Encryption protects data on the storage device from unauthorized access. Limitation: Encryption does not prevent malicious files from being executed. If the device is already infected, encryption does not mitigate the risk of the malware spreading.
d. Plug the storage device into the UPS:
Purpose: A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) provides power backup and protects against power surges. Limitation: This has no impact on the security of files on the storage device. It only ensures power stability for the PC.
Summary:
Changing the default settings on the PC to disable auto-run features and ensure thorough scanning of the storage device before access provides the best protection against malicious files. This proactive approach helps prevent malware from automatically executing and spreading from the plug-and-play device.
(Braindump : c. Encrypt the disk on the storage device.)
A company is adopting a BYOD policy and is looking for a comprehensive solution to protect company information on user devices. Which of the following solutions would BEST support the policy?
a. Mobile device management
b. Full-device encryption
c. Remote wipe
d. Biometrics
a. Mobile device management
Explanation:
Mobile device management (MDM):
Purpose: MDM solutions provide comprehensive management and security for mobile devices. They enable administrators to enforce security policies, deploy applications, monitor devices, and protect data.
Features:
Security Policies: Enforce password policies, encryption, and other security measures.
Remote Management: Remotely wipe or lock devices if they are lost or stolen.
Application Control: Control which applications can be installed and used.
Data Protection: Separate personal and company data, ensuring company information is secure.
Why Other Options Are Less Comprehensive:
b. Full-device encryption:
Purpose: Encrypts the entire device to protect data from unauthorized access. Limitation: While important for data security, it does not provide comprehensive management or other protective measures needed for BYOD policies.
c. Remote wipe:
Purpose: Allows administrators to remotely delete data from a lost or stolen device. Limitation: This is a useful feature but only one aspect of device management. It does not cover the full range of security and management needs.
d. Biometrics:
Purpose: Provides secure authentication using fingerprint, facial recognition, or other biometric methods. Limitation: Enhances security for device access but does not address data protection, application control, or other management aspects.
Summary:
Mobile Device Management (MDM) provides a comprehensive approach to managing and securing user devices in a BYOD environment. It offers a wide range of features essential for protecting company information, enforcing security policies, and ensuring compliance with organizational standards.
A company wants to modify its current backup strategy to minimize the number of backups that would need to be restored in case of data loss. Which of the following would be the BEST backup strategy to implement?
a. Incremental backups followed by differential backups
b. Full backups followed by incremental backups
c. Delta backups followed by differential backups
d. Incremental backups followed by delta backups
e. Full backups followed by differential backups
e. Full backups followed by differential backups
Explanation:
Full Backups:
Purpose: A full backup captures the entire data set, creating a complete copy of all data. Benefit: Simplifies the restoration process as it provides a single, comprehensive backup.
Differential Backups:
Purpose: A differential backup captures all the data that has changed since the last full backup. Benefit: During restoration, you only need the last full backup and the most recent differential backup, minimizing the number of backups to restore.
Why This Strategy is Best:
Restoration Process: To restore data, you start with the full backup and then apply the latest differential backup. This reduces the complexity and time required for restoration compared to incremental backups, where you would need to restore the last full backup and every subsequent incremental backup in sequence. Backup Frequency: Differential backups can be taken more frequently than full backups, providing a good balance between backup size and restoration ease.
Why Other Options Are Less Effective:
a. Incremental backups followed by differential backups:
This is an uncommon and complex strategy that would not simplify restoration.
b. Full backups followed by incremental backups:
Requires restoring the full backup plus each incremental backup since the last full backup, increasing the number of restores needed.
c. Delta backups followed by differential backups:
Delta backups capture only changes at the byte level, which can be very efficient but also more complex and not as widely used as incremental and differential backups.
d. Incremental backups followed by delta backups:
This is a complex strategy with a potentially high number of backups to restore, making the process cumbersome.
Summary:
Full backups followed by differential backups provide an efficient and simplified restoration process, minimizing the number of backups that need to be restored in the event of data loss.
The compliance team requires an annual recertification of privileged and non-privileged user access. However, multiple users who left the company six months ago still have access. Which of the following would have prevented this compliance violation?
a. Account audits
b. AUP
c. Password reuse
d. SSO
a. Account audits
Explanation:
Account Audits:
Purpose: Regularly auditing user accounts ensures that access rights are up-to-date and aligned with current business needs.
Process: During account audits, administrators can identify inactive or terminated user accounts and promptly revoke their access rights.
Benefits:
Compliance: Helps in maintaining compliance with organizational policies and regulatory requirements that mandate regular access reviews.
Security: Reduces the risk of unauthorized access by ensuring that only active employees have access to company resources.
Efficiency: Streamlines access management processes by keeping user access permissions current.
Why Other Options Are Less Appropriate:
b. AUP (Acceptable Use Policy):
AUP defines acceptable behavior for users but does not directly manage user access or perform audits.
c. Password Reuse:
Password reuse policies aim to prevent users from using the same passwords across multiple accounts but do not address the issue of terminated users retaining access.
d. SSO (Single Sign-On):
SSO simplifies access management by allowing users to authenticate once to access multiple applications, but it does not directly manage or audit user accounts.
Summary:
Account audits are crucial for ensuring that access rights are aligned with current employment status and business needs. By conducting regular audits, organizations can proactively identify and address compliance violations such as terminated users retaining access rights, thereby enhancing overall security and compliance posture.
A company recently experienced a data breach and the source was determined to be an executive who was charging a phone in a public area. Which of the following would MOST likely have prevented this breach?
a. A firewall
b. A device pin
c. A USB data blocker
d. Biometrics
c. A USB data blocker
Explanation:
USB Data Blocker:
Purpose: USB data blockers prevent data exchange when a device is plugged into an unknown or potentially compromised USB port. Functionality: They allow charging while blocking the data transfer pins, preventing unauthorized access and data theft. Scenario Relevance: In the described scenario, if the executive had used a USB data blocker while charging the phone in a public area, it would have prevented unauthorized access and potential data breach through the USB connection.
Why Other Options Are Less Appropriate:
a. Firewall:
Firewalls are network security devices that monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic. They are not directly related to preventing unauthorized data access via USB connections.
b. Device PIN:
A device PIN provides security for unlocking the device itself but does not protect against unauthorized data transfer when connected to a potentially compromised USB port.
d. Biometrics:
Biometrics (such as fingerprint or facial recognition) provide authentication for unlocking the device but do not prevent unauthorized data transfer through a USB connection.
Summary:
Using a USB data blocker is the most effective measure in this scenario because it directly addresses the specific threat of unauthorized data access and transfer when charging devices in public or untrusted environments. This solution helps mitigate the risk of data breaches stemming from compromised USB ports or chargers, which are common attack vectors in public spaces.
The manager who is responsible for a data set has asked a security engineer to apply encryption to the data on a hard disk. The security engineer is an example of a __________.
a. data controller.
b. data owner.
c. data custodian.
d data processor.
c. data custodian.
Explanation:
Data Controller: Typically refers to the individual or entity that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data. Data Owner: Refers to the individual or entity that has ultimate responsibility and control over the data, including its use and protection. Data Custodian: Refers to the individual or entity responsible for the storage, maintenance, and protection of data. They manage and handle the data according to the instructions provided by the data owner or controller. Data Processor: Refers to an entity or person that processes data on behalf of the data controller, following their instructions.
In this case, the security engineer is directly handling and securing the data by applying encryption on the hard disk. This role aligns with that of a data custodian, who is responsible for safeguarding data and ensuring its integrity and security as per organizational policies and guidelines.
An organization with a low tolerance for user inconvenience wants to protect laptop hard drives against loss or data theft. Which of the following would be the MOST acceptable?
a. SED
b. HSM
c. DLP
d. TPM
a. SED (Self-Encrypting Drive).
Explanation:
SED (Self-Encrypting Drive): SEDs automatically encrypt data on the drive using hardware-based encryption, which is transparent to the user and does not significantly impact performance. They protect data at rest, ensuring that if a laptop is lost or stolen, the data on the drive remains encrypted and inaccessible without the proper authentication credentials. HSM (Hardware Security Module): HSMs are used for cryptographic key management and secure transaction processing. While they can be part of a security solution, they are not typically used directly to protect laptop hard drives against loss or data theft. DLP (Data Loss Prevention): DLP solutions monitor and control the movement of sensitive data within and outside of an organization's network. They focus on preventing accidental or intentional data leaks rather than protecting data on individual laptop hard drives. TPM (Trusted Platform Module): TPM is a hardware-based security feature that stores cryptographic keys and provides secure boot capabilities. It enhances platform security but is more focused on ensuring the integrity of the system's boot process and securing cryptographic operations rather than specifically protecting data on hard drives.
Therefore, considering the requirement for minimal user inconvenience and effective protection against data loss or theft from laptop hard drives, SED (Self-Encrypting Drive) would be the most suitable choice.
After segmenting the network, the network manager wants to control the traffic between the segments. Which of the following should the manager use to control the network traffic?
a. A DMZ
b. A VPN
c. A VLAN
d. An ACL
d. An ACL (Access Control List).
Explanation:
DMZ (Demilitarized Zone): A DMZ is a network segment that separates an internal network from an external network, typically used to host services accessible from the internet while adding an extra layer of security. VPN (Virtual Private Network): A VPN creates a secure encrypted tunnel over a public network (usually the internet), allowing remote users to securely connect to a private network as if they were directly connected to it. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network): A VLAN logically divides a physical network into multiple virtual networks, enabling isolation of traffic within different segments of the network. However, VLANs alone do not provide traffic control between segments; they segregate traffic. ACL (Access Control List): An ACL is a set of rules configured on a network device (such as a router or firewall) that filters traffic based on various criteria (such as source/destination IP addresses, ports, protocols). ACLs allow or deny traffic between network segments based on defined rules, providing granular control over network traffic flow.
Since the goal is to control traffic between already segmented networks, ACLs are the most appropriate choice. They enable the network manager to specify exactly what traffic is allowed or denied between different segments based on specific criteria, thereby enhancing security and network management.
Which of the following BEST describes when an organization utilizes a ready-to-use application from a cloud provider?
a. IaaS
b. SaaS
c. PaaS
d. XaaS
b. SaaS (Software as a Service)
Explanation:
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): Provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. Users typically manage their own operating systems, applications, and data, but the cloud provider manages the infrastructure, such as virtualization, servers, storage, and networking. SaaS (Software as a Service): Delivers software applications over the internet on a subscription basis. The applications are hosted and managed by the service provider. Users access the application through a web browser without needing to install or maintain any software locally. PaaS (Platform as a Service): Provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure typically associated with developing and launching an application. XaaS (Everything as a Service): A broad term that encompasses all types of services delivered over the internet, including IaaS, SaaS, PaaS, and other types of services.
In this context, since the organization is utilizing a ready-to-use application directly from a cloud provider, SaaS is the most appropriate choice as it directly addresses the consumption of software applications delivered as a service over the internet.
Which of the following BEST helps to demonstrate integrity during a forensic investigation?
a. Event logs
b. Encryption
c. Hashing
d. Snapshots
c. Hashing
Explanation:
Event logs: Event logs record events that occur on a system or network, providing a chronological record of activities. While they are crucial for tracking actions and incidents, they do not directly ensure the integrity of data itself. Encryption: Encryption is used to protect data confidentiality by converting plaintext into ciphertext, making it unreadable without the correct decryption key. While encryption protects data from unauthorized access, it does not provide a means to verify the integrity of the data itself. Hashing: Hashing involves generating a fixed-size output (hash value) from input data of any size. The hash value uniquely represents the input data. Hash functions are designed so that even a small change in the input data results in a significantly different hash value. During a forensic investigation, hashing is used to verify data integrity. If the hash value of the original data matches the hash value calculated during the investigation, it confirms that the data has not been altered. Snapshots: Snapshots capture the state of a system or data at a specific point in time. They are useful for restoring systems to a previous state but do not inherently verify the integrity of data.
Therefore, hashing is the most appropriate choice as it provides a reliable method to verify data integrity during forensic investigations by comparing hash values of original and acquired data to ensure data integrity and detect any unauthorized changes.
Which of the following would be MOST effective to contain a rapidly spreading attack that is affecting a large number of organizations?
a. Machine learning
b. DNS sinkhole
c. Blocklist
d. Honeypot
(Community : B 100%)
b. DNS sinkhole
A DNS (Domain Name System) sinkhole is a technique used to redirect malicious or unwanted traffic to a non-existent or controlled destination. By redirecting the traffic to a sinkhole, organizations can effectively contain the spread of the attack by preventing the malicious traffic from reaching its intended targets.
When an attack is rapidly spreading and affecting multiple organizations, a DNS sinkhole can be deployed at a network level to block access to malicious domains or IP addresses associated with the attack. This prevents infected systems from establishing connections with the attacker’s infrastructure, effectively containing the attack and limiting its impact on other organizations.
ChatGPT
b. DNS sinkhole
Explanation:
Machine learning: While machine learning can be effective in identifying patterns and anomalies, it is more suitable for detecting and predicting threats rather than containing ongoing attacks. DNS sinkhole: A DNS sinkhole redirects malicious traffic to a designated IP address, effectively isolating the attack and preventing infected devices from communicating with malicious domains or servers. This containment mechanism can significantly reduce the impact of a widespread attack by disrupting the malicious infrastructure's ability to operate. Blocklist: A blocklist contains known malicious IP addresses, domains, or URLs. While it can prevent access to known threats, it may not be sufficient to contain a rapidly spreading attack unless the specific malicious entities are well-documented and can be quickly added to the blocklist. Honeypot: A honeypot is a decoy system designed to lure attackers and gather information about their methods. While useful for learning about attack techniques, honeypots do not directly contain or mitigate ongoing attacks affecting a large number of organizations.
Therefore, in the context of containing a rapidly spreading attack across multiple organizations, DNS sinkhole is the most appropriate choice as it can quickly disrupt the attack’s infrastructure and prevent further spread by redirecting malicious traffic to a controlled environment.
A network administrator has been alerted that web pages are experiencing long load times. After determining it is not a routing or DNS issue, the administrator logs in to the router, runs a command, and receives the following output:
CPU 0 percent busy, from 300 sec ago
1 sec ave: 99 percent busy
5 sec ave: 97 percent busy
1 min ave: 83 percent busy
Which of the following is the router experiencing?
a. DDoS attack
b. Memory leak
c. Buffer overflow
d. Resource exhaustion
d. Resource exhaustion
Explanation:
DDoS attack: While a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack can lead to resource exhaustion, the output specifically indicates high CPU usage, which could be a result of many types of resource exhaustion scenarios, not just DDoS attacks. Memory leak: This typically causes gradual degradation over time and leads to running out of memory rather than immediate high CPU usage. Buffer overflow: This usually results in program crashes or unexpected behavior rather than high CPU usage. Resource exhaustion: This is a general term for when a system’s resources (CPU, memory, etc.) are maxed out, leading to performance issues. The router's CPU is extremely busy (99% in the last second, 97% in the last 5 seconds, and 83% over the last minute), which fits the description of resource exhaustion.
Given the high CPU usage in the output, the router is likely experiencing resource exhaustion.
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of an organization would like staff members to have the flexibility to work from home anytime during business hours, including during a pandemic or crisis. However, the CEO is concerned that some staff members may take advantage of the flexibility and work from high-risk countries while on holiday or outsource work to a third-party organization in another country. The Chief Information Officer (CIO) believes the company can implement some basic controls to mitigate the majority of the risk. Which of the following would be BEST to mitigate the CEO’s concerns? (Choose two.)
a. Geolocation
b. Time-of-day restrictions
c. Certificates
d. Tokens
e. Geotagging
f. Role-based access controls
a. Geolocation
e. Geotagging
a. Geolocation
Geolocation can restrict access based on the geographical location of the user. This would ensure that employees can only access the company’s network from approved locations and prevent access from high-risk countries.
e. Geotagging
Geotagging can provide additional data about the location of the user’s device when they access company resources. This can help verify that employees are working from approved locations and not from high-risk areas or unauthorized countries.
Explanation:
Time-of-day restrictions: This would limit when employees can access the system, not where they access it from. Certificates: While certificates enhance security, they do not address the location concerns. Tokens: Tokens can help with authentication but do not mitigate concerns about location. Role-based access controls: RBAC controls access based on user roles but does not address the issue of location or third-party outsourcing.
Using geolocation and geotagging together provides a robust approach to ensuring employees are working from permissible locations, thus addressing the CEO’s concerns effectively.
(Braindump : a. Geolocation
b. Time-of-day restrictions)
While checking logs, a security engineer notices a number of end users suddenly downloading files with the .tar.gz extension. Closer examination of the files reveals they are PE32 files. The end users state they did not initiate any of the downloads. Further investigation reveals the end users all clicked on an external email containing an infected MHT file with an href link a week prior. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?
a. A RAT was installed and is transferring additional exploit tools.
b. The workstations are beaconing to a command-and-control server.
c. A logic bomb was executed and is responsible for the data transfers.
d. A fileless virus is spreading in the local network environment
a. A RAT was installed and is transferring additional exploit tools.
Explanation:
A RAT (Remote Access Trojan) can be installed on users' workstations when they click on an infected link or file. Once installed, the RAT allows an attacker to remotely control the infected machines and download additional malicious files or tools. The sudden download of PE32 files (Portable Executable files for Windows) disguised as .tar.gz (a compressed archive format) suggests that additional exploit tools or payloads are being downloaded to the compromised systems. The workstations are beaconing to a command-and-control server: While beaconing to a C2 server is a common activity for compromised machines, the specific context of downloading PE32 files disguised as .tar.gz indicates more than just beaconing; it suggests active downloading of malicious files, which is more aligned with RAT behavior. A logic bomb was executed and is responsible for the data transfers: Logic bombs are typically time-based or event-based triggers that execute malicious code. They do not generally involve downloading files from the internet unless specifically designed to do so. A fileless virus is spreading in the local network environment: Fileless malware operates in memory and does not leave files on the disk, making it harder to detect. The scenario described involves downloading and identifying PE32 files, which are not indicative of fileless malware behavior.
Given the symptoms and actions described, the most likely occurrence is that a RAT was installed and is now being used to transfer additional exploit tools to the compromised systems.
A business is looking for a cloud service provider that offers a la carte services, including cloud backups, VM elasticity, and secure networking. Which of the following cloud service provider types should the business engage?
a. IaaS
b. PaaS
c. XaaS
d. SaaS
a. IaaS
Explanation:
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): This type of cloud service provider offers fundamental computing resources such as virtual machines (VMs), storage, and networking on a pay-as-you-go basis. Businesses can select specific services they need (a la carte), such as cloud backups, VM elasticity (scaling up or down as needed), and secure networking. This flexibility allows businesses to tailor their infrastructure according to their specific requirements. PaaS (Platform as a Service): This provides a platform allowing customers to develop, run, and manage applications without dealing with the underlying infrastructure. PaaS is more focused on application development and may not offer the level of control over backups, VM management, and networking that the business is seeking. XaaS (Anything as a Service): This is a broad category that includes any type of service delivered over the internet. While it encompasses IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS, it's not a specific service model and doesn't directly address the specific needs described. SaaS (Software as a Service): This delivers software applications over the internet, on a subscription basis. SaaS providers manage the infrastructure and platforms that run the applications, but it does not provide the level of control over backups, VM management, and networking that IaaS offers.
Therefore, for a business looking for cloud backups, VM elasticity, and secure networking on an a la carte basis, IaaS is the most appropriate choice.
A research company discovered that an unauthorized piece of software has been detected on a small number of machines in its lab. The researchers collaborate with other machines using port 445 and on the Internet using port 443. The unauthorized software is starting to be seen on additional machines outside of the lab and is making outbound communications using HTTPS and SMB. The security team has been instructed to resolve the problem as quickly as possible while causing minimal disruption to the researchers. Which of the following contains the BEST course of action in this scenario?
a. Update the host firewalls to block outbound SMB.
b. Place the machines with the unapproved software in containment.
c. Place the unauthorized application in a blocklist.
d. Implement a content filter to block the unauthorized software communication.
b. Place the machines with the unapproved software in containment.
Explanation:
Containment: Isolating the machines with the unauthorized software is the quickest and most effective way to prevent the spread of the software while allowing the researchers to continue their work. This action minimizes disruption by keeping unaffected machines operational while containing the potential threat. Update the host firewalls to block outbound SMB: This could help to some extent, but it would not address the outbound HTTPS communications, which could still allow the unauthorized software to communicate and spread. Place the unauthorized application in a blocklist: This can be part of the solution, but it may not be as immediate or effective in stopping the spread if the software is already running on multiple machines. Moreover, creating and distributing a blocklist could take some time and may not be comprehensive if the unauthorized software has multiple variants. Implement a content filter to block the unauthorized software communication: This could also help, but it might require more time to configure properly and may not immediately stop the spread if the software uses encrypted communications that are harder to filter effectively.
By containing the affected machines, the security team can prevent further spread and analyze the software in a controlled environment, then proceed with additional steps such as removal, blocklisting, or firewall updates as necessary.
A security analyst has been reading about a newly discovered cyberattack from a known threat actor. Which of the following would BEST support the analyst’s review of the tactics, techniques, and protocols the threat actor was observed using in previous campaigns?
a. Security research publications
b. The MITRE ATT&CK framework
c. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
d. The Cyber Kill Chain
b. The MITRE ATT&CK framework
Explanation:
The MITRE ATT&CK framework: This framework provides a comprehensive and detailed knowledge base of adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used in cyberattacks. It is specifically designed to help security professionals understand and analyze the methods used by threat actors in previous campaigns, making it the best tool for the analyst's needs. Security research publications: While valuable, they may not provide a systematic and structured analysis of tactics and techniques across different threat actors and campaigns. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis: This model is useful for understanding the relationships between adversaries, capabilities, infrastructure, and victims, but it does not provide the same detailed catalog of TTPs as the MITRE ATT&CK framework. The Cyber Kill Chain: This model outlines the stages of a cyberattack but does not provide the same level of detail on specific tactics, techniques, and protocols used by threat actors as the MITRE ATT&CK framework does.
A security analyst is hardening a network infrastructure. The analyst is given the following requirements:
*Preserve the use of public IP addresses assigned to equipment on the core router.
*Enable “in transport” encryption protection to the web server with the strongest ciphers.
Which of the following should the analyst implement to meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
a. Configure VLANs on the core router.
b. Configure NAT on the core router.
c. Configure BGP on the core router.
d. Enable AES encryption on the web server.
e. Enable 3DES encryption on the web server.
f. Enable TLSv2 encryption on the web server.
(Braindump : b. Configure NAT on the core router. f. Enable TLSv2 encryption on the web server.)
d. Enable AES encryption on the web server.
f. Enable TLSv2 encryption on the web server.
Here’s why these choices are appropriate:
Enable AES encryption on the web server: AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a strong encryption algorithm widely used to secure data in transit. Enabling AES ensures that data between clients and the web server is encrypted with a highly secure cipher. Enable TLSv2 encryption on the web server: TLS (Transport Layer Security) version 1.2 or higher (commonly referred to as TLSv2) is the current standard for secure communication over networks. It provides robust encryption, ensuring that data in transit is protected with the strongest available encryption protocols.
Let’s briefly review the other options:
Configure VLANs on the core router: VLANs are used to segment network traffic but do not address the requirements of preserving public IP addresses or enabling encryption. Configure NAT on the core router: Network Address Translation (NAT) would change the public IP addresses to private ones for internal use, which does not meet the requirement of preserving the use of public IP addresses. Configure BGP on the core router: Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is used for routing between autonomous systems on the internet. It does not address encryption or the specific requirement of using public IP addresses on equipment. Enable 3DES encryption on the web server: While 3DES is an encryption algorithm, it is considered weaker and less efficient compared to AES. Thus, it does not meet the requirement of using the strongest ciphers.
Therefore, enabling AES encryption and TLSv2 on the web server will meet the requirements of providing strong “in transport” encryption and preserving the use of public IP addresses.
A security analyst is investigating an incident to determine what an attacker was able to do on a compromised laptop. The analyst reviews the following SIEM log:
Host Event ID Event Source Description
PC1 865 Microsoft-windows- C:\adsf234\adsf234.exe was blocked by
SoftwareRestricitonPolicies Group Policy
PC1 4688 Microsoft-windows-Security- A new process has been created. New
Auditing Process Name: powershell.exe
Creator Process Name : outlook.exe
PC1 4688 Microsoft-windows-Security- A new process has been created. New
Auditing Process Name: lat.ps1
Name : powershell.exe
PC1 4625 Microsoft-windows-Security- An account failed to log on.
Auditing LogonType: 3
SecurityID:Null SID
Workstation Name: PC1
Authentication Package Name : NTLM
Which of the following describes the method that was used to compromise the laptop?
a. An attacker was able to move laterally from PC1 to PC2 using a pass-the-hash attack.
b. An attacker was able to bypass application whitelisting by emailing a spreadsheet attachment with an embedded PowerShell in the file.
c. An attacker was able to install malware to the C:\asdf234 folder and use it to gain administrator rights and launch Outlook.
d. An attacker was able to phish user credentials successfully from an Outlook user profile
b. An attacker was able to bypass application whitelisting by emailing a spreadsheet attachment with an embedded PowerShell in the file.
The SIEM log provides clues about the method used to compromise the laptop. Let’s break down the log events:
Event ID 865 (Software Restriction Policies): Indicates that C:\adsf234\adsf234.exe was blocked by Group Policy. This shows that there was an attempt to run an executable that was blocked.
Event ID 4688 (Security Auditing):
The first 4688 event shows that a new process, powershell.exe, was created, initiated by outlook.exe.
The second 4688 event shows that another new process, lat.ps1, was created, with powershell.exe as the parent process.
Event ID 4625 (Security Auditing): Indicates a failed login attempt using NTLM with LogonType 3 (network logon), which shows an unauthorized access attempt.
Given these events, let’s analyze the options:
a. An attacker was able to move laterally from PC1 to PC2 using a pass-the-hash attack.
There is no evidence in the logs of lateral movement or pass-the-hash activity.
b. An attacker was able to bypass application whitelisting by emailing a spreadsheet attachment with an embedded PowerShell in the file.
This option aligns with the logs showing powershell.exe being started by outlook.exe, indicating that a malicious email could have initiated a PowerShell script.
c. An attacker was able to install malware to the C:\asdf234 folder and use it to gain administrator rights and launch Outlook.
The logs show that adsf234.exe was blocked, not executed. There is no indication that this executable was successfully run to gain administrator rights.
d. An attacker was able to phish user credentials successfully from an Outlook user profile.
The logs do not indicate successful credential phishing. Instead, they show failed login attempts.
Based on the log analysis, the most accurate description of the method used to compromise the laptop is:
b. An attacker was able to bypass application whitelisting by emailing a spreadsheet attachment with an embedded PowerShell in the file.
This aligns with the evidence of powershell.exe being initiated by outlook.exe, which suggests a potential malicious email attachment.
A security analyst discovers that a company’s username and password database was posted on an Internet forum. The usernames and passwords are stored in plain text. Which of the following would mitigate the damage done by this type of data exfiltration in the future?
a. Create DLP controls that prevent documents from leaving the network.
b. Implement salting and hashing.
c. Configure the web content filter to block access to the forum.
d. Increase password complexity requirements.
b. Implement salting and hashing.
Here’s why:
Salting and Hashing: Storing passwords in plain text is a major security vulnerability. By implementing salting and hashing, passwords are transformed into a fixed-length string of characters, which does not directly reveal the original password. Salting adds an additional layer of security by adding a unique value to each password before hashing, making it more difficult for attackers to use precomputed tables (rainbow tables) to reverse the hash back to the original password. This makes it significantly harder for attackers to exploit the stolen password data.
The other options, while potentially useful in certain contexts, do not address the core issue of protecting passwords in storage:
DLP Controls: While Data Loss Prevention (DLP) controls can help prevent sensitive documents from leaving the network, they do not specifically address the secure storage of passwords. Web Content Filter: Configuring a web content filter to block access to the forum where the data was posted does not prevent the initial exposure of the passwords or secure them in storage. Password Complexity Requirements: Increasing password complexity can make passwords harder to guess but does not protect them if they are stored in plain text and subsequently stolen.
Therefore, implementing salting and hashing is the most effective way to mitigate the damage of future data exfiltration incidents involving passwords.
Joe, an employee, receives an email stating he won the lottery. The email includes a link that requests a name, mobile phone number, address, and date of birth be provided to confirm Joe’s identity before sending him the prize. Which of the following BEST describes this type of email?
a. Spear phishing
b. Whaling
c. Phishing
d. Vishing
c. Phishing
Here’s an explanation:
Phishing: This is a broad term for fraudulent attempts to obtain sensitive information such as personal details, usernames, passwords, and credit card numbers by disguising as a trustworthy entity in electronic communications. In this case, the email pretending that Joe has won a lottery and asking for his personal information is a classic example of phishing.
The other options describe more specific types of phishing or related attacks:
Spear Phishing: This is a targeted form of phishing where the attacker customizes the email to a specific individual or organization, often using personal information to make the attack more convincing. There is no indication that Joe was specifically targeted; it seems more like a general phishing attempt. Whaling: This type of phishing targets high-profile individuals such as executives or senior officials. There is no indication that Joe is a high-profile individual, so this does not fit the description. Vishing: This is a form of phishing that uses voice communication (phone calls) instead of emails. Since the attack described involves an email, it does not qualify as vishing.
Therefore, the best description for the email Joe received is phishing.
A company deployed a WiFi access point in a public area and wants to harden the configuration to make it more secure. After performing an assessment, an analyst identifies that the access point is configured to use WPA3, AES, WPS, and RADIUS. Which of the following should the analyst disable to enhance the access point security?
a. WPA3
b. AES
c. RADIUS
d. WPS
d. WPS
Here’s an explanation:
WPA3: This is the latest and most secure WiFi encryption protocol currently available. Disabling WPA3 would reduce security. AES: Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a strong encryption algorithm used to protect WiFi communications. Disabling AES would weaken security. RADIUS: Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is used for authentication and authorization in a secure manner, especially in enterprise environments. Disabling RADIUS would decrease security. WPS: Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a network security standard that attempts to allow users to easily secure a wireless home network. However, WPS has known vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the network. Disabling WPS improves security by removing these vulnerabilities.
Therefore, disabling WPS is the best option to enhance the security of the WiFi access point.
Which of the following would be used to find the MOST common web-application vulnerabilities?
a. OWASP
b. MITRE ATT&CK
c. Cyber Kill Chain
d. SDLC
a. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project)
Here’s an explanation:
OWASP: The Open Web Application Security Project provides a list of the top ten most critical web application security risks. It is widely used and recognized in the industry as a primary source for identifying common web-application vulnerabilities and understanding how to address them. MITRE ATT&CK: This framework provides a comprehensive matrix of tactics, techniques, and procedures used by attackers. While it is an excellent resource for understanding how attacks are carried out, it is not specifically focused on web-application vulnerabilities. Cyber Kill Chain: This model describes the stages of a cyber attack but does not specifically focus on web-application vulnerabilities. SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle): This is a process for planning, creating, testing, and deploying an information system. While secure SDLC practices help in mitigating vulnerabilities, it is not a resource for identifying the most common web-application vulnerabilities.
Therefore, OWASP is the most appropriate choice for finding the most common web-application vulnerabilities.
A network engineer is troubleshooting wireless network connectivity issues that were reported by users. The issues are occurring only in the section of the building that is closest to the parking lot. Users are intermittently experiencing slow speeds when accessing websites and are unable to connect to network drives. The issues appear to increase when laptop users return to their desks after using their devices in other areas of the building. There have also been reports of users being required to enter their credentials on web pages in order to gain access to them. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
a. An external access point is engaging in an evil-twin attack.
b. The signal on the WAP needs to be increased in that section of the building.
c. The certificates have expired on the devices and need to be reinstalled.
d. The users in that section of the building are on a VLAN that is being blocked by the firewall
a. An external access point is engaging in an evil-twin attack.
Here’s why this is the most likely cause:
Evil-twin attack: An evil-twin attack involves an attacker setting up a rogue access point that mimics the legitimate access point's SSID and settings. This can cause users' devices to connect to the rogue access point, leading to connectivity issues, slow speeds, and credential harvesting (users being required to enter their credentials on web pages). Signal on the WAP needs to be increased: If the signal strength was the issue, users would not experience credential prompts or intermittent connectivity specifically when returning from other areas of the building. Expired certificates: While expired certificates can cause connectivity issues, they are unlikely to lead to intermittent issues only in a specific section of the building and would not explain the need for users to re-enter credentials in this context. VLAN being blocked by the firewall: If a VLAN was being blocked, users would consistently face connectivity issues, not intermittent ones, and it would not specifically affect users moving from other areas.
Given the symptoms of credential prompts and intermittent connectivity near the parking lot, an evil-twin attack is the most plausible explanation.
A security administrator suspects there may be unnecessary services running on a server. Which of the following tools will the administrator MOST likely use to confirm the suspicions?
a. Nmap
b. Wireshark
c. Autopsy
d. DNSEnum
a. Nmap
Here’s why:
Nmap: Nmap is a powerful network scanning tool that can be used to discover hosts and services on a computer network. It is commonly used to identify open ports and the services running on those ports, making it ideal for checking which services are running on a server. Wireshark: Wireshark is a network protocol analyzer used for network troubleshooting, analysis, and protocol development. While it is useful for capturing and analyzing network traffic, it is not typically used to identify running services directly. Autopsy: Autopsy is a digital forensics tool used for analyzing hard drives and other media for evidence. It is not designed to identify running services on a server. DNSEnum: DNSEnum is a DNS enumeration tool used to gather information about DNS records and perform DNS reconnaissance. It is not used to identify running services on a server.
Therefore, Nmap is the best choice for confirming whether unnecessary services are running on a server.
A vulnerability has been discovered and a known patch to address the vulnerability does not exist. Which of the following controls works BEST until a proper fix is released?
a. Detective
b. Compensating
c. Deterrent
d. Corrective
b. Compensating
Here’s why:
Compensating: Compensating controls are alternative measures implemented to mitigate the risk when the primary control (such as a patch) is not available or feasible. In this context, a compensating control might involve implementing additional security measures, such as restricting access, using firewalls, or monitoring for suspicious activity, to reduce the risk posed by the vulnerability until a proper fix can be released. Detective: Detective controls are designed to identify and detect unwanted events or incidents. While useful for monitoring and alerting, they do not mitigate or reduce the risk of the vulnerability directly. Deterrent: Deterrent controls are intended to discourage or prevent an attacker from attempting to exploit a vulnerability. While they can reduce the likelihood of an attack, they do not address the underlying vulnerability. Corrective: Corrective controls are designed to fix or correct an issue after it has been identified. However, in this case, a corrective control (such as a patch) does not exist yet, so it is not applicable.
Therefore, compensating controls are the best option to mitigate the risk posed by the vulnerability until a proper fix is released.
While reviewing pcap data, a network security analyst is able to locate plaintext usernames and passwords being sent from workstations to network switches. Which of the following is the security analyst MOST likely observing?
a. SNMP traps
b. A Telnet session
c. An SSH connection
d. SFTP traffic
b. A Telnet session
Here’s why:
Telnet: Telnet is an older network protocol used for remote management that transmits data, including usernames and passwords, in plaintext. This makes it easy for anyone capturing network traffic to read the credentials. SNMP traps: SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) traps are messages sent from a device to a management system, typically containing status information or alerts. While SNMP v1 and v2c do not encrypt their data, SNMP v3 can be configured to do so. However, SNMP traps usually do not contain usernames and passwords in the way described. SSH connection: SSH (Secure Shell) is a protocol used for secure remote management and file transfers. SSH encrypts all data transmitted between the client and server, making it highly unlikely that a network security analyst would observe plaintext usernames and passwords. SFTP traffic: SFTP (SSH File Transfer Protocol) is a secure version of FTP that operates over an SSH connection. Like SSH, SFTP encrypts all data transmitted, so plaintext usernames and passwords would not be observable.
Therefore, the presence of plaintext usernames and passwords in network traffic strongly suggests the use of Telnet.
An attacker replaces a digitally signed document with another version that goes unnoticed. Upon reviewing the document’s contents, the author notices some additional verbiage that was not originally in the document but cannot validate an integrity issue. Which of the following attacks was used?
a. Cryptomalware
b. Hash substitution
c. Collision
d. Phishing
(Community : C 71%, B 29%)
c. Collision
Here’s why:
Cryptomalware: Cryptomalware typically refers to malware that encrypts files on a victim's system, often for the purpose of extortion (ransomware). This attack does not involve modifying a document while maintaining a valid digital signature. Hash substitution: Hash substitution involves replacing a legitimate hash with a fraudulent one. However, if the original hash value is known or retrievable, the attack can be detected because the substituted hash will not match the recalculated hash of the document. Collision: A collision attack occurs when two different inputs produce the same hash value. In the context of digital signatures, if an attacker can create a modified document that hashes to the same value as the original document, they can replace the original document with the modified one without invalidating the digital signature. This allows the attacker to change the document's contents without being detected through normal integrity checks, as the hash (and therefore the digital signature) appears to be correct. Phishing: Phishing is a social engineering attack where an attacker attempts to trick individuals into providing sensitive information or performing certain actions by pretending to be a trustworthy entity. This does not involve modifying digital documents directly.
In this case, the attack method that best explains how the document was modified without invalidating the digital signature is a collision attack.
(Braindump : b. Hash substitution)
A security analyst notices that specific files are being deleted each time a systems administrator is on vacation. Which of the following BEST describes the type of malware that is running?
a. Fileless virus
b. Logic bomb
c. Keylogger
d. Ransomware
b. Logic bomb
Here’s why:
Fileless virus: A fileless virus operates in memory and does not typically delete files as described in the scenario. It focuses on executing malicious code without leaving traditional traces like files on disk. Logic bomb: A logic bomb is a type of malicious code that is triggered by a specific event or condition. In this case, the condition triggering the deletion of files is the absence of the systems administrator (when they are on vacation). This fits the scenario where files are systematically deleted only during the administrator's absence. Keylogger: A keylogger is a type of malware that records keystrokes, usually to capture passwords or other sensitive information typed by users. It does not typically involve file deletion based on specific conditions related to an administrator's absence. Ransomware: Ransomware encrypts files and demands payment for decryption. It does not selectively delete files based on the presence or absence of specific individuals like a systems administrator on vacation.
Therefore, based on the behavior described in the scenario, the type of malware that is likely running is a logic bomb.
Which of the following involves the inclusion of code in the main codebase as soon as it is written?
a. Continuous monitoring
b. Continuous deployment
c. Continuous validation
d. Continuous integration
(Braindump : d. Continuous integration)
b. Continuous deployment
a. Continuous monitoring:
Definition: Continuous monitoring involves the ongoing surveillance, assessment, and analysis of systems and networks to ensure that security controls and processes remain effective over time.
Use: It is primarily used in cybersecurity contexts to detect and respond to security threats and vulnerabilities in real-time.
b. Continuous deployment:
Definition: Continuous deployment is a software engineering approach in which every code change that passes automated testing is automatically deployed to production without manual intervention.
Use: It allows teams to release software updates frequently, ensuring that new features and bug fixes reach users quickly. This practice requires a robust automated testing and deployment pipeline.
c. Continuous validation:
Definition: Continuous validation is the process of continuously testing and validating software applications throughout the development lifecycle to ensure they meet requirements and quality standards.
Use: It ensures that each stage of development, from planning to deployment, includes rigorous testing and validation procedures to identify and address issues early.
d. Continuous integration:
Definition: Continuous integration (CI) is a software development practice where team members frequently integrate their code changes into a shared repository. Each integration triggers an automated build and automated tests to detect integration errors quickly.
Use: CI aims to improve collaboration among team members and increase the speed of software delivery. It helps maintain code quality by catching bugs early in the development process.
Which of the following can reduce vulnerabilities by avoiding code reuse?
a. Memory management
b. Stored procedures
c. Normalization
d. Code obfuscation
d. Code obfuscation
Explanation:
Code obfuscation is a technique used to modify code to make it more difficult to understand, reverse-engineer, or reuse without authorization. By obfuscating code, developers can reduce vulnerabilities associated with exposing sensitive logic or algorithms that could be exploited by attackers. It doesn’t prevent code reuse entirely but makes it harder for malicious actors to understand and exploit vulnerabilities in reused code.
Let’s briefly explain the other options for clarity:
a. Memory management: While important for preventing vulnerabilities like memory leaks or buffer overflows, it primarily concerns efficient use of memory resources and doesn’t directly relate to avoiding code reuse.
b. Stored procedures: These are precompiled SQL statements stored in a database, used to improve performance and security by reducing the risk of SQL injection attacks. They are not directly related to avoiding code reuse in the context of software development.
c. Normalization: This refers to organizing data in a database to reduce redundancy and improve data integrity. It is crucial for database design but doesn’t address avoiding code reuse in software development.
In contrast, code obfuscation specifically aims to make code more resistant to reverse engineering and reuse, thus indirectly reducing vulnerabilities associated with exposed code logic.
The technology department at a large global company is expanding its Wi-Fi network infrastructure at the headquarters building. Which of the following should be closely coordinated between the technology, cybersecurity, and physical security departments? Select 1
a. Authentication protocol
b. Encryption type
c. WAP placement
d. VPN configuration
c. WAP placement
Explanation:
WAP (Wireless Access Point) placement involves determining where access points will be installed throughout the building. This decision impacts both network coverage and security. Technology department: Responsible for implementing the network infrastructure and ensuring adequate coverage. Cybersecurity department: Ensures that WAP placement doesn't compromise network security by considering factors like signal reach, interference, and segregation of network segments. Physical security department: Ensures that access points are placed in physically secure locations to prevent tampering or unauthorized access.
While authentication protocols, encryption types, and VPN configurations are crucial aspects of network security and operations, WAP placement directly impacts network coverage, reliability, and security, making it essential for coordination among these departments during the expansion of the Wi-Fi network infrastructure.
Which of the following is an example of risk avoidance?
a. Installing security updates directly in production to expedite vulnerability fixes
b. Buying insurance to prepare for financial loss associated with exploits
c. Not installing new software to prevent compatibility errors
d. Not taking preventive measures to stop the theft of equipment
Risk avoidance refers to taking actions to eliminate or withdraw from the risk altogether. Among the given options:
c. Not installing new software to prevent compatibility errors
This option best exemplifies risk avoidance because by choosing not to install new software, the organization avoids the potential risk of encountering compatibility issues that could lead to operational disruptions or vulnerabilities. This approach eliminates the risk rather than managing or mitigating it, which aligns with the principle of risk avoidance in risk management strategies.
A security administrator needs to block a TCP connection using the corporate firewall. Because this connection is potentially a threat, the administrator does not want to send back an RST. Which of the following actions in the firewall rule would work BEST?
a. Drop
b. Reject
c. Log alert
d. Permit
an RST (Reset) packet, the best action to use in the firewall rule is:
a. Drop
Explanation:
Drop: This action silently drops the packets of the blocked connection without sending any response back to the source. This means the connection is terminated without notifying the sender, which can help avoid revealing information about the firewall's configuration or the existence of the protected network. Reject: This action sends back an ICMP "port unreachable" message (RST packet for TCP) to the sender, indicating that the connection attempt was actively refused. Since the administrator wants to avoid sending an RST, this option is not suitable. Log alert: This action logs the event but still sends an ICMP message indicating the port is unreachable, similar to "reject". Permit: This action allows the connection through, which is the opposite of what the administrator wants to achieve in this case.
Therefore, a. Drop is the most appropriate action to block the TCP connection while minimizing response to the sender.
A security team discovered a large number of company-issued devices with non-work-related software installed. Which of the following policies would MOST likely contain language that would prohibit this activity?
a. NDA
b. BPA
c. AUP
d. SLA
c. AUP (Acceptable Use Policy)
Explanation:
Acceptable Use Policy (AUP): This policy defines the acceptable ways in which company resources, including devices like computers and mobile phones, can be used. It typically includes guidelines on software installation, specifying that only approved or necessary software for work purposes should be installed. AUPs often prohibit the installation of unauthorized or non-work-related software to maintain security, compliance, and operational efficiency. NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement): This document outlines confidentiality obligations related to sensitive company information and does not typically address device usage or software installation. BPA (Business Partnership Agreement): This agreement governs the relationship between business partners and may not directly address device usage or software installation. SLA (Service Level Agreement): This agreement defines the level of service expected from a vendor and does not typically address device usage or software installation.
Therefore, c. AUP is the correct choice as it directly pertains to defining appropriate use of company resources, including devices, which would encompass the prohibition of non-work-related software installations.
Which of the following BEST describes data streams that are compiled through artificial intelligence that provides insight on current cyberintrusions, phishing, and other malicious cyberactivity?
a. Intelligence fusion
b. Review reports
c. Log reviews
d. Threat feeds
d. Threat feeds
Explanation:
Threat feeds refer to data streams compiled through artificial intelligence and other methods to provide real-time or near-real-time information about current cyber threats, intrusions, phishing campaigns, malware, and other malicious activities. These feeds aggregate data from various sources such as security researchers, threat intelligence platforms, cybersecurity vendors, and global cybersecurity communities. They are used by security teams to enhance their threat detection and response capabilities by staying informed about the latest threats and trends in the cybersecurity landscape. Intelligence fusion involves integrating multiple sources of intelligence to produce enhanced insights, which can include threat feeds but encompasses broader intelligence sources beyond just cyber threats. Review reports and log reviews are more specific activities related to examining historical data or logs to identify security incidents or trends, rather than ongoing streams of real-time threat information.
Therefore, d. Threat feeds specifically describes the ongoing data streams compiled through AI to provide insight into current cyberintrusions, phishing, and other malicious cyberactivity.
Which of the following would be the BEST resource for a software developer who is looking to improve secure coding practices for web applications?
a. OWASP
b. Vulnerability scan results
c. NIST CSF
d. Third-party libraries
a. OWASP
Explanation:
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a nonprofit organization focused on improving the security of software. It provides resources, tools, and best practices for secure coding, particularly for web applications. OWASP offers guidelines, cheat sheets, and extensive documentation on common vulnerabilities and how to mitigate them through secure coding practices. Vulnerability scan results provide information about existing vulnerabilities in applications but do not necessarily focus on educating developers on secure coding practices. NIST CSF (Cybersecurity Framework) is a framework developed by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) to help organizations manage and improve their cybersecurity posture. It provides a framework for risk management but is not specifically focused on secure coding practices for developers. Third-party libraries are external code components that developers integrate into their applications. While important for security, they do not directly educate developers on secure coding practices for web applications.
Therefore, a. OWASP is the best resource for a software developer looking to improve secure coding practices specifically for web applications.
Ann, a customer, received a notification from her mortgage company stating her PII may be shared with partners, affiliates, and associates to maintain day-to-day business operations. Which of the following documents did Ann receive?
a. An annual privacy notice
b. A non-disclosure agreement
c. A privileged-user agreement
d. A memorandum of understanding
a. An annual privacy notice
Explanation:
Annual privacy notice: Financial institutions are required to send out annual privacy notices to their customers explaining how their personal information (PII) is shared and with whom. These notices inform customers about their rights regarding their personal data and the company's practices related to data sharing and privacy. Non-disclosure agreement (NDA): This is a legal contract between two parties to keep certain information confidential. It is typically used in business partnerships or employment contexts to protect sensitive information but does not apply to customer notifications about data sharing. Privileged-user agreement: This is an agreement that specifies the responsibilities and acceptable use policies for users with elevated access privileges within an organization. It is not related to customer notifications about data sharing. Memorandum of understanding (MOU): An MOU is a document that outlines the terms and details of an agreement between parties before the final agreement is signed. It is used to formalize a relationship between parties but is not related to notifying customers about data sharing practices.
Therefore, a. An annual privacy notice is the document Ann received, as it is the one that explains how her PII may be shared with partners, affiliates, and associates for business operations.
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is evaluating the dangers involved in deploying a new ERP system for the company. The CISO categorizes the system, selects the controls that apply to the system, implements the controls, and then assesses the success of the controls before authorizing the system. Which of the following is the CISO using to evaluate the environment for this new ERP system?
a. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis
b. CIS Critical Security Controls
c. NIST Risk Management Framework
d. ISO 27002
c. NIST Risk Management Framework
Explanation:
NIST Risk Management Framework (RMF): The NIST RMF provides a structured process for integrating security, privacy, and risk management activities into the system development life cycle. The steps described in the question (categorizing the system, selecting controls, implementing controls, assessing controls, and authorizing the system) closely align with the steps outlined in the NIST RMF. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis: This model is used for understanding and analyzing cyber intrusions. It focuses on understanding the relationships between adversaries, capabilities, infrastructure, and victims but is not directly related to deploying and securing new systems. CIS Critical Security Controls: These are a set of best practices for securing IT systems and data. While they are valuable for improving security, they do not provide the structured, comprehensive process described in the question. ISO 27002: This is a standard that provides guidelines for organizational information security standards and practices. It offers recommendations for security controls but does not specifically describe the structured process of evaluating and authorizing a new system as outlined in the question.
Therefore, c. NIST Risk Management Framework is the most appropriate choice for the process the CISO is following.
A manufacturing company has several one-off legacy information systems that cannot be migrated to a newer OS due to software compatibility issues. The OSs are still supported by the vendor, but the industrial software is no longer supported. The Chief Information Security Officer has created a resiliency plan for these systems that will allow OS patches to be installed in a non-production environment, while also creating backups of the systems for recovery. Which of the following resiliency techniques will provide these capabilities?
a. Redundancy
b. RAID 1+5
c. Virtual machines
d. Full backups
c. Virtual machines
Explanation:
Virtual machines (VMs): Using VMs can provide significant flexibility and resiliency for legacy systems. VMs allow the creation of snapshots, which can be used for quick recovery if something goes wrong after applying OS patches. Moreover, VMs can be easily backed up and restored, providing a robust recovery mechanism. Running legacy software in a VM also helps isolate it from the primary system, reducing potential security risks. Redundancy: While redundancy is a critical part of resilience, it typically involves having duplicate systems or components to ensure availability in case of failure. It does not directly address the need for patch testing or backups as described in the scenario. RAID 1+5: This refers to a combination of RAID 1 (mirroring) and RAID 5 (striping with parity). RAID configurations are used to improve data availability and fault tolerance for storage devices but do not provide the flexibility or isolation needed for patch testing and recovery of legacy systems. Full backups: While full backups are essential for recovery, they do not offer the flexibility to test OS patches in a non-production environment. Full backups alone do not provide the same level of isolation and ease of recovery that VMs can offer.
Therefore, c. Virtual machines is the best choice to provide the capabilities described in the scenario
A retail store has a business requirement to deploy a kiosk computer in an open area. The kiosk computer’s operating system has been hardened and tested. A security engineer is concerned that someone could use removable media to install a rootkit. Which of the following should the security engineer configure to BEST protect the kiosk computer?
a. Measured boot
b. Boot attestation
c. UEFI
d. EDR
(Braindump : a. Measured boot)
(Community : A 57%, C 23%)
Measured Boot is a new feature of Windows 8 that was created to help better protect your machine from rootkits and other malware. Measured Boot will check each start up component including the firmware all the way to the boot drivers and it will store this information in what is called a Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
Measured Boot is intended to prevent boot-level malware.
unlike secure boot, measured boot does’t validate against a known good list of signatures before booting. instead it relies on the UEFI firmware to hash the firmware, bootloader, drivers, and anything else that is part of the boot process. then the data gathered is stored in the TPM.
This boot attestation process allows comparison against known good states and admins can take action if the measured boot shows a difference from the accepted or secure known state.
ChatGPT :
c. UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface)
Explanation:
UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface): UEFI provides a modern firmware interface for PCs that includes secure boot capabilities. Secure Boot, a feature of UEFI, ensures that only trusted software that has been digitally signed can run during the boot process. This helps prevent unauthorized software, such as rootkits, from being installed and executed. Configuring UEFI with Secure Boot can protect the kiosk computer from malicious software that might be introduced through removable media.
Other options:
Measured boot: This is a feature that helps ensure the integrity of the boot process by measuring each component from firmware up through the bootloader and OS. While measured boot can provide valuable information about the boot integrity, it doesn't actively prevent the installation of rootkits via removable media. Boot attestation: This involves verifying the integrity of the boot process, often using remote attestation to ensure that the device's boot sequence has not been tampered with. While important for validating boot integrity, it is more of a monitoring tool and does not directly prevent rootkit installation. EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response): EDR solutions provide monitoring and response capabilities for detecting and responding to threats on endpoints. While EDR is useful for detecting and mitigating various threats, it operates at the OS level and may not prevent the initial installation of a rootkit through removable media.
A company is implementing MFA for all applications that store sensitive data. The IT manager wants MFA to be non-disruptive and user friendly. Which of the following technologies should the IT manager use when implementing MFA?
a. One-time passwords
b. Email tokens
c. Push notifications
d. Hardware authentication
c. Push notifications
Explanation:
Push notifications: This method is highly user-friendly and non-disruptive. Users receive a notification on their registered mobile device and can simply approve or deny the authentication request with a single tap. This approach is quick, seamless, and minimizes the need for users to input additional information, making it a convenient choice for enhancing security without causing significant disruptions.
Other options:
One-time passwords (OTPs): These typically require users to enter a code received via SMS, email, or an authenticator app. While secure, they can be more disruptive than push notifications since users must manually enter the code each time they log in. Email tokens: Sending a token to a user's email for each login attempt can be secure but is often slower and more disruptive than push notifications. It also relies on users having immediate access to their email, which may not always be the case. Hardware authentication: While very secure, using hardware tokens (e.g., YubiKeys) can be disruptive, especially if users forget or lose their tokens. It also involves additional costs and logistical challenges in distributing and managing the hardware.
Therefore, push notifications provide the best balance of security, convenience, and minimal disruption, making them the optimal choice for implementing MFA in a user-friendly manner.
A security engineer is reviewing the logs from a SAML application that is configured to use MFA. During this review, the engineer notices a high volume of successful logins that did not require MFA from users who were traveling internationally. The application, which can be accessed without a VPN, has a policy that allows time-based tokens to be generated. Users who change locations should be required to reauthenticate but have been able to log in without doing so. Which of the following statements BEST explains the issue?
a. OpenID is mandatory to make the MFA requirements work.
b. An incorrect browser has been detected by the SAML application.
c. The access device has a trusted certificate installed that is overwriting the session token.
d. The user’s IP address is changing between logins, but the application is not invalidating the token.
d. The user’s IP address is changing between logins, but the application is not invalidating the token.
Explanation:
In the described scenario, the issue seems to be that users who are traveling internationally are able to log in without being prompted for MFA, even though they are accessing the application from different locations. The application’s policy requires reauthentication when the user changes locations. The likely cause is that the application’s session token is not being invalidated when the user’s IP address changes, allowing users to bypass the reauthentication requirement.
Detailed reasoning:
SAML and session tokens: SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is used for single sign-on (SSO) and relies on tokens for authentication. When a user logs in, a token is generated and used for subsequent access without requiring reauthentication until the token expires. MFA requirement upon location change: The policy requires reauthentication (including MFA) when a user changes location, which would typically be detected by a change in the user's IP address. Token invalidation: If the application does not invalidate the session token when the IP address changes, the user can continue to access the application without reauthenticating, even from a new location.
Therefore, the best explanation for the observed behavior is that the application is not invalidating the token when the user’s IP address changes, allowing users to bypass the reauthentication process required by the MFA policy.
An organization wants to enable built-in FDE on all laptops. Which of the following should the organization ensure is installed on all laptops?
a. TPM
b. CA
c. SAML
d. CRL
a. TPM (Trusted Platform Module)
Explanation:
TPM (Trusted Platform Module): TPM is a specialized hardware component designed to secure hardware by integrating cryptographic keys into devices. It is crucial for enabling Full Disk Encryption (FDE) because it securely stores the encryption keys used to encrypt and decrypt the disk. TPM enhances the security of the encryption process, ensuring that only authorized users can access the encrypted data.
Detailed reasoning for other options:
CA (Certificate Authority): A CA issues digital certificates that validate the ownership of encryption keys used in secure communications. While important for overall network security and authentication, a CA is not directly related to enabling built-in FDE on laptops. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): SAML is a standard for Single Sign-On (SSO) and federated identity management. It allows secure transmission of authentication and authorization data. However, it is not related to enabling FDE on laptops. CRL (Certificate Revocation List): A CRL is a list of digital certificates that have been revoked by the CA before their expiration dates. While it plays a role in managing digital certificates, it is not directly related to FDE on laptops.
Conclusion:
To enable built-in Full Disk Encryption (FDE) on all laptops, the organization should ensure that a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) is installed on all laptops.
A security analyst needs to centrally manage credentials and permissions to the company’s network devices. The following security requirements must be met:
*All actions performed by the network staff must be logged.
*Per-command permissions must be possible.
*The authentication server and the devices must communicate through TCP.
Which of the following authentication protocols should the analyst choose?
a. Kerberos
b. CHAP
c. TACACS+
d. RADIUS
c. TACACS+
Explanation:
TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus): TACACS+ is specifically designed for managing credentials and permissions for network devices. It provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) services. TACACS+ supports per-command authorization, allowing granular control over what commands users can execute on network devices. It also logs all actions performed by network staff, ensuring comprehensive auditing. Importantly, TACACS+ uses TCP for communication between the authentication server and the network devices.
Detailed reasoning for other options:
Kerberos: Kerberos is primarily used for authentication in client-server applications, particularly within Active Directory environments. It does not provide per-command permissions or the same level of detailed logging specific to network device management as TACACS+. CHAP (Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol): CHAP is an authentication mechanism that uses a challenge-response system. It is typically used for PPP connections and does not provide centralized management, per-command permissions, or extensive logging capabilities. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service): RADIUS is widely used for centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting. While RADIUS can log actions and use TCP (in addition to UDP), it does not natively support per-command authorization as effectively as TACACS+ does. TACACS+ is more suited for network device management with granular control over user actions.
Conclusion:
TACACS+ is the most appropriate choice for centrally managing credentials and permissions to the company’s network devices, meeting the requirements of logging all actions, supporting per-command permissions, and using TCP for communication.
An organization recently released a software assurance policy that requires developers to run code scans each night on the repository. After the first night, the security team alerted the developers that more than 2,000 findings were reported and need to be addressed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for the high number of findings?
a. The vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives.
b. Third-party libraries have been loaded into the repository and should be removed from the codebase.
c. The vulnerability scanner found several memory leaks during runtime, causing duplicate reports for the same issue.
d. The vulnerability scanner was not loaded with the correct benchmarks and needs to be updated.
a. The vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives.
Explanation:
When a new vulnerability scanner is used for the first time, especially if it's not properly configured, it can produce a significant number of false positives. This means the scanner reports issues that aren't actually vulnerabilities, leading to an overwhelming number of findings that need to be addressed.
Detailed reasoning for other options:
Third-party libraries have been loaded into the repository and should be removed from the codebase: While third-party libraries can introduce vulnerabilities, it's less likely that they alone would account for such a high number of findings overnight, especially if these libraries were already being used without previous issues. The vulnerability scanner found several memory leaks during runtime, causing duplicate reports for the same issue: Memory leaks and similar runtime issues are typically identified during dynamic analysis (runtime analysis), not static code scans. Static code analysis, which is usually what's run on repositories nightly, would not report memory leaks in this manner. The vulnerability scanner was not loaded with the correct benchmarks and needs to be updated: While this could lead to inaccurate findings, it wouldn't necessarily result in a high number of findings. Incorrect benchmarks might lead to missed vulnerabilities rather than an excessive number of findings.
Conclusion:
The most likely cause for the high number of findings is that the vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and thus generated a high number of false positives. This is a common issue when a vulnerability scanner is used for the first time or not tuned to the specific codebase and its environment. Proper configuration and tuning are essential to reduce false positives and make the scan results manageable and actionable.
An organization is concerned about intellectual property theft by employees who leave the organization. Which of the following should the organization MOST likely implement?
a. CBT
b. NDA
c. MOU
d. AUP
b. NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement)
Explanation:
An NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) is a legal contract that protects confidential and proprietary information from being disclosed to unauthorized parties. It is commonly used to prevent intellectual property theft by employees, contractors, or other parties who have access to sensitive information during their tenure with the organization.
Reasoning for other options:
CBT (Computer-Based Training): While CBT can educate employees about policies and security practices, it does not directly prevent intellectual property theft after an employee leaves the organization. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): MOUs are typically used to establish mutual understanding between parties in less formal agreements, often related to collaborations or partnerships. They are not typically used to prevent intellectual property theft. AUP (Acceptable Use Policy): AUPs outline acceptable behavior and usage of IT resources within an organization. While they may include clauses related to data protection and intellectual property, an NDA specifically addresses confidentiality and is more directly related to preventing intellectual property theft.
Conclusion:
To address concerns about intellectual property theft by departing employees, implementing an NDA is the most appropriate measure. It legally binds individuals to keep sensitive information confidential even after they are no longer employed by the organization.
A security analyst reviews web server logs and notices the following lines:
104.35.45.53 - - [22/May/2020:06:57:31 +0100] “GET /profile.php?id=%3cscript%3ealert%28%271%27%29%3script%3e HTTP/1.1” 200 11705 “http://www.example.com/downloadreport.php”
104.35.45.53 - - [22/May/2020:07:00:58 +0100] “GET /profile.php?id=%3cscript%3ealert%28%27 http%3a%2f%2fwww.evilsite.com%2fupdater.php%27%29%3script%3e HTTP/1.1” 200 23713 “http://www.example.com/downloadreport.php”
Which of the following vulnerabilities is the attacker trying to exploit?
a. Token reuse
b. SQLi
c. CSRF
d. XSS
d. XSS (Cross-Site Scripting)
Explanation:
The logs provided indicate attempts to exploit Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) vulnerabilities. XSS occurs when an attacker injects malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. In the logs:
First request: GET /profile.php?id=%3cscript%3ealert%28%271%27%29%3script%3e
This request includes a script (<script>alert('1')</script>) as part of the id parameter in the URL. If this script is executed in another user's browser, it could perform actions unintended by the application.
Second request: GET /profile.php?id=%3cscript%3ealert%28%27http%3a%2f%2fwww.evilsite.com%2fupdater.php%27%29%3script%3e
This request attempts to inject a script that redirects users to http://www.evilsite.com/updater.php when the vulnerable page (profile.php) is accessed.
Reasoning for other options:
Token reuse: This involves reusing authentication tokens, which is not evident from the provided logs. SQLi (SQL Injection): There is no evidence of SQL queries being manipulated in the URL parameters provided. CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery): CSRF involves unauthorized commands being transmitted from a user that the web application trusts. The logs do not indicate CSRF attempts.
Conclusion:
The attacker is attempting to exploit XSS vulnerabilities in the profile.php page of the web server. This type of vulnerability allows attackers to inject malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users, potentially compromising their session or performing actions on their behalf.
A network manager is concerned that business may be negatively impacted if the firewall in its data center goes offline. The manager would like to implement a high availability pair to:
a. decrease the mean time between failures.
b. remove the single point of failure.
c. cut down the mean time to repair.
d. reduce the recovery time objective.
b. remove the single point of failure.
Explanation:
Implementing a high availability pair for the firewall helps to remove the single point of failure in the data center. This means that if one firewall fails or needs maintenance, the other firewall in the pair can seamlessly take over its responsibilities, ensuring continuous operation and reducing the risk of downtime. This setup increases reliability and availability of the network services provided by the firewall, thereby mitigating the impact on business operations if one firewall goes offline.
A major manufacturing company updated its internal infrastructure and just recently started to allow OAuth applications to access corporate data. Data leakage is now being reported. Which of the following MOST likely caused the issue?
a. Privilege creep
b. Unmodified default settings
c. TLS protocol vulnerabilities
d. Improper patch management
b. Unmodified default settings
OAuth applications accessing corporate data may have caused data leakage due to unmodified default settings. This could mean that the OAuth applications were granted excessive permissions or were not properly configured to restrict access to only necessary data. Often, default settings in OAuth applications might allow broader access than intended if not adjusted during the setup or configuration phase. This oversight can lead to unintended data exposure and leakage, which seems to be the issue reported after the infrastructure update.
While preparing a software inventory report, a security analyst discovers an unauthorized program installed on most of the company’s servers. The program utilizes the same code signing certificate as an application deployed to only the accounting team. After removing the unauthorized program, which of the following mitigations should the analyst implement to BEST secure the server environment?
a. Revoke the code signing certificate used by both programs.
b. Block all unapproved file hashes from installation
c. Add the accounting application file hash to the allowed list.
d. Update the code signing certificate for the approved application.
a. Revoke the code signing certificate used by both programs.
The unauthorized program utilizing the same code signing certificate as an approved application indicates a significant security risk. Code signing certificates are used to verify the authenticity and integrity of software. If an unauthorized program is using the same certificate, it could potentially impersonate the legitimate application, compromising the security and trustworthiness of the entire environment.
By revoking the compromised code signing certificate, the security analyst can prevent further misuse of the certificate by unauthorized programs. This action ensures that only legitimate software signed with valid certificates can be trusted and executed on company servers, thereby mitigating the risk of unauthorized software installations and potential security breaches.
A security analyst is reviewing the latest vulnerability scan report for a web server following an incident. The vulnerability report showed no concerning findings. The vulnerability that was used to exploit the server is present in historical vulnerability scan reports, and a patch is available for the vulnerability. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
a. Security patches failed to install due to a version incompatibility.
b. An adversary altered the vulnerability scan reports.
c. A zero-day vulnerability was used to exploit the web server.
d. The scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability.
d. The scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability.
In this scenario, the security analyst reviewed the latest vulnerability scan report, which showed no concerning findings. However, historical vulnerability scan reports indicate that the vulnerability used to exploit the server has been present before and that a patch is available for it. Despite this history, the current scan did not identify the vulnerability.
A false negative occurs in vulnerability scanning when the scan fails to detect an actual vulnerability that exists in the system. This could happen due to various reasons, such as misconfiguration of the scanning tool, incomplete scan coverage, insufficient scanning credentials, or even limitations in the scanning methodology itself. In this case, the vulnerability that led to the exploit was not identified in the latest scan, resulting in the false impression that the server was secure.
Therefore, the most likely cause in this situation is that the vulnerability scan reported a false negative for the vulnerability that was exploited.
The help desk has received calls from users in multiple locations who are unable to access core network services. The network team has identified and turned off the network switches using remote commands. Which of the following actions should the network team take NEXT?
a. Disconnect all external network connections from the firewall.
b. Send response teams to the network switch locations to perform updates.
c. Turn on all the network switches by using the centralized management software.
d. Initiate the organization’s incident response plan.
d. Initiate the organization’s incident response plan.
The situation described involves multiple locations where users are unable to access core network services, prompting the network team to turn off the network switches remotely to address the issue. This action indicates a potential network-wide problem affecting multiple sites, which could be indicative of a broader incident.
Given the severity and scope of the issue, the next step should be to initiate the organization’s incident response plan (IRP). An incident response plan outlines the procedures and protocols to follow when responding to and mitigating security incidents or disruptions to normal operations. By following the IRP, the network team can systematically address the issue, coordinate responses across different locations, involve necessary stakeholders, and work towards restoring normal operations while ensuring the security and integrity of the network.
Therefore, option d, initiating the organization’s incident response plan, is the most appropriate next action in this scenario.
An attacker is trying to gain access by installing malware on a website that is known to be visited by the target victims. Which of the following is the attacker MOST likely attempting?
a. A spear-phishing attack
b. A watering-hole attack
c. Typo squatting
d. A phishing attack
b. A watering-hole attack
In a watering-hole attack, the attacker targets websites that are frequently visited by the intended victims. By compromising these websites with malware, the attacker aims to infect the visitors’ systems when they access these legitimate sites. This type of attack leverages the trust victims have in the targeted websites, making it easier to distribute malware and gain unauthorized access to their systems.
Therefore, given the scenario described where the attacker installs malware on a website visited by the target victims, the attack is most likely a watering-hole attack (option b).
An organization is moving away from the use of client-side and server-side certificates for EAP. The company would like for the new EAP solution to have the ability to detect rogue access points. Which of the following would accomplish these requirements?
a. PEAP
b. EAP-FAST
c. EAP-TLS
d. EAP-TTLS
b. EAP-FAST
EAP-FAST (Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling) is designed to provide a secure authentication method that does not rely on client-side or server-side certificates. Instead, it uses a Protected Access Credential (PAC) to establish a secure tunnel for authentication.
Additionally, EAP-FAST supports mechanisms for detecting rogue access points through the use of mutual authentication, where both the client and the server verify each other’s credentials and identities. This helps prevent unauthorized access points from intercepting communications or posing as legitimate network infrastructure.
a. PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol): PEAP is an EAP type that encapsulates EAP methods within a TLS tunnel. It typically requires server-side certificates for TLS authentication, making it certificate-based. It does not inherently provide rogue access point detection.
c. EAP-TLS (Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security): EAP-TLS requires both client-side and server-side certificates for mutual authentication. It’s highly secure but relies on certificates, which the organization wants to move away from. It also does not include built-in mechanisms for detecting rogue access points.
d. EAP-TTLS (Extensible Authentication Protocol-Tunneled Transport Layer Security): EAP-TTLS is similar to PEAP in that it uses a TLS tunnel for secure authentication. It supports a variety of authentication methods within the tunnel but still requires server-side certificates for TLS authentication. It does not specifically provide rogue access point detection.
Among these options, EAP-FAST (option b) stands out because it provides a secure authentication method without the heavy reliance on certificates, using a PAC instead. It also includes mechanisms for detecting rogue access points, which aligns with the organization’s requirements. Therefore, EAP-FAST remains the best fit for the organization’s needs based on the information provided.
A security analyst receives a SIEM alert that someone logged in to the appadmin test account, which is only used for the early detection of attacks. The security analyst then reviews the following application log:
[03/06/20xx:17:20:18] system 127.0.0.1 FindXPath=//User[Username/text()=’foo’ or 7=7 or ‘o’=’o’ AND Password/text=’bar’]
[03/06/20xx:17:21:18] appadmin 194.28.114.102 action:login result:success
[03/06/20xx:17:21:18] appadmin 194.28.114.102 action:open.account(12345) result:fail
[03/06/20xx:17:21:18] appadmin 194.28.114.102 action:open.account(23456) result:fail
[03/06/20xx:17:21:18] appadmin 194.28.114.102 action:open.account(34567) result:fail
[03/06/20xx:17:21:18] appadmin 194.28.114.102 action:open.account(45678) result:fail
Which of the following can the security analyst conclude?
a. A replay attack is being conducted against the application.
b. An injection attack is being conducted against a user authentication system.
c. A service account password may have been changed, resulting in continuous failed logins within the application.
d. A credentialed vulnerability scanner attack is testing several CVEs against the application.
A security analyst receives a SIEM alert that someone logged in to the appadmin test account, which is only used for the early detection of attacks. The security analyst then reviews the following application log:
[03/06/20xx:17:20:18] system 127.0.0.1 FindXPath=//User[Username/text()=’foo’ or 7=7 or ‘o’=’o’ AND Password/text=’bar’]
[03/06/20xx:17:21:18] appadmin 194.28.114.102 action:login result:success
[03/06/20xx:17:21:18] appadmin 194.28.114.102 action:open.account(12345) result:fail
[03/06/20xx:17:21:18] appadmin 194.28.114.102 action:open.account(23456) result:fail
[03/06/20xx:17:21:18] appadmin 194.28.114.102 action:open.account(34567) result:fail
[03/06/20xx:17:21:18] appadmin 194.28.114.102 action:open.account(45678) result:fail
Which of the following can the security analyst conclude?
a. A replay attack is being conducted against the application.
b. An injection attack is being conducted against a user authentication system.
c. A service account password may have been changed, resulting in continuous failed logins within the application.
d. A credentialed vulnerability scanner attack is testing several CVEs against the application.
A security team is engaging a third-party vendor to do a penetration test of a new proprietary application prior to its release. Which of the following documents would the third-party vendor MOST likely be required to review and sign?
a. SLA
b. NDA
c. MOU
d. AUP
b. Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA).
Here’s why:
NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement): This document ensures that the third-party vendor agrees to keep confidential any sensitive information they access or learn about during the penetration testing process. It prevents them from disclosing or using this information for any purpose other than what is agreed upon in the testing scope. SLA (Service Level Agreement): This document typically outlines the level of service the vendor will provide, including uptime guarantees and performance metrics. It is more relevant in contractual agreements for ongoing services rather than a one-time penetration test. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding): This document establishes a mutual understanding between parties regarding their roles, responsibilities, and expectations. It may be used in various contexts, but it does not specifically address confidentiality concerns as directly as an NDA. AUP (Acceptable Use Policy): This outlines acceptable use of the organization’s IT resources by employees or third parties. It is not directly related to the specific activities and confidentiality requirements of a penetration test.
Therefore, to protect the proprietary information of the application and ensure confidentiality during the penetration testing process, the third-party vendor would typically be required to review and sign an NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement).
