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Surgery > Surgical Terms > Flashcards

Surgical Terms Flashcards

1
Q

The clinical presentation of a
perforated duodenal ulcer can mimic appendicitis, particularly if the perforation seals and the
spilled gastroduodenal contents gravitate down the right gutter to the cecal area.

A

Silent 1920s film
star Rudolph Valentino reportedly died of a perforated ulcer, although he presented with right
lower quadrant pain suggestive of acute appendicitis (since known as Valentino’s syndrome).

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2
Q

Perineal rectosigmoidectomy

A

Altemeier procedure

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3
Q

Appendix in hernia

A

Amyand‘s hernia

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4
Q

This anastomotic connection is also known as the marginal meandering artery

A

Arc of Riolan, connects the SMA and IMA.

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5
Q

Mutation in the ATM gene and, along with neurologic and vasculocutaneous findings, is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer, lymphoma, and leukemia

A

Ataxia-telangectasia

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6
Q

network of venous drainage that is thought to be a route for Breast ca
metastasis to the spine

A

Batson plexus (Batson to the back)

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7
Q

a novel predictor of clinical outcome in acute pancreatitis

A

Bedside Index for Severity in Acute Pancreatitis (BISAP). The parameters for BISAP include blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level greater than 25 mg/dL,
impaired mentation,
2 or more systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) criteria,
age greater than 65 years, and the
presence of pleural effusion.

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8
Q

Staging for necrotizing entercolitis (NEC)

A

Bell criteria:

Patients with Bell stage I (suspicious for NEC) are ruled out for NEC and kept NPO and on IV antibiotics for 3 to 7 days before enteral nutrition is reinitiated. Patients with Bell stage II (definite NEC) require close observation for 7 to 14 days. Infants with Bell stage III (advanced NEC) either have definite intestinal perforation or have not responded to nonoperative therapy, and thus require surgery. These patients have signs of peritonitis, acidosis, sepsis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation, all of which are associated with a high mortality rate.

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9
Q

an overgrowth disorder usually present at birth, characterized by an increased risk of childhood cancer and certain congenital features

A

Beckwith–Wiedemann syndrome. Associated w

Macrosomia (traditionally defined as weight and length/height >97th centile)
Macroglossia
Hemihyperplasia (asymmetric overgrowth of one or more regions of the body)
Omphalocele (also called exomphalos) or umbilical hernia
Embryonal tumor (e.g., Wilms tumor, hepatoblastoma, neuroblastoma, rhabdomyosarcoma) in childhood
Visceromegaly involving one or more intra-abdominal organs including liver, spleen, kidneys, adrenal glands, and/or pancreas
Cytomegaly of the fetal adrenal cortex (pathognomonic)
Renal abnormalities including structural abnormalities, nephromegaly, nephrocalcinosis, and/or later development of medullary sponge kidney
Anterior linear ear lobe creases and/or posterior helical ear pits
Placental mesenchymal dysplasia
Cleft palate (rare in BWS)
Cardiomyopathy (rare in BWS)
Positive family history (≥1 family members with a clinical diagnosis of BWS or a history or features suggestive of BWS)

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10
Q

Duodenum-preserving pancreatic head resections (3)

A

Beger-procedure. The pancreas is dissected on the level of the portal vein. The pancreatic head is excavated and the duodenum is preserved with a thin layer of pancreatic tissue. If the bile duct is obstructed it can be opened and a internal anastomosis with the excavated pancreatic head can be performed (not shown). The reconstruction is performed with two anastomoses, of the pancreatic tail remnant and of the excavated pancreatic head with a Roux-en-Y jejunal loop

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11
Q

Triad of mental status changes, petechiae, and dyspnea

A

Bergman’s triad, fat emboli syndrome

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12
Q

Gp1b receptor defect

A

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome

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13
Q

The “thyroid sheath” is a connective tissue expansion of the pretracheal fascia and envelops the thyroid, condensing posteromedially into this structure

A

Ligament of Berry

Suspensory ligament of the thyroid

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14
Q

Criteria for categorizing thyroid cytopathology for associated risk of malignancy

A

Bethesda Criteria:

  1. Non-diagnostic: repeat FNA under US
  2. Benign follicular lesion of undetermined significance: <1% chance of malignancy, monitor
  3. Atypia/follicular neoplasm of undetermined significance: 5-15% chance of malignancy, repeat FNA
  4. Follicular neoplasm or suspicious for follicular neoplasm: 15-30% chance of malignancy, surgical lobectomy
  5. Suspicion for malignancy: 60-75% chance of malignancy, Thyroid lobectomy or total thyroidectomy
    Malignant: 100% chance, total thyroidectomy
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15
Q

Classification system which organizes cholangiocarcinoma by location

A

Bismuth-Corlette classification system:
Type I: occurs below the confluence of the L & R hepatic duct
Type II: occurs at the juncture of the L & R hepatic ducts
Type III: involves either the Right (type IIIa) or left (type IIIb) hepatic duct
Type IV: involves secondary and tertiary extensions of either the L or R hepatic ducts

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16
Q

a palpable nodule on rectal examination suggesting a

drop metastasis

A

Blumer shelf

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17
Q

Procedure for repair of long-segment urethras defects

A

Boari flap:
Useful for 8-12 cm defects
Rectangular pedicled flap of bladder dome closed transversely to create tube conduit. EEA w/ distal ureter

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18
Q

Posterolateral congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

Bochdalek hernia

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19
Q

Triad of sudden onset of severe upper abdominal

pain, recurrent retching without vomitus, and an inability to pass a nasogastric tube

A

Borchardt’s triad, gastric volvulus

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20
Q

squamous cell carcinoma in situ (not invasive) of the perianal margin and
most commonly caused by HPV-16 and 18

A

Bowen dz

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21
Q

Hepatic venous thrombosis

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

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22
Q

imaginary division of the liver used when performing hepatectomies. The division divides the liver into two planes, extending from the Middle Hepatic Vein to the middle of the gallbladder

A

Cantlie’s line
Separates L and R
Separates 4 from 5-8

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23
Q

Cephalon fold defects result in this syndrome

A

pentalogy of Cantrell: cardiac defect (most commonly VSD), sternal cleft, anterior diaphragmatic hernia, omphalocele, and ectopia cordis. Omphalocele of the most common variety is a result of failure of the lateral folds to form correctly. Caudal fold defects result in cloacal exstrophy, and right umbilical vein obliteration is associated with gastroschisis.

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24
Q

Mobilization of the ascending colon to the midline

A

Cattel maneuver

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25
Q

Intrahepatic duct cysts

A

Caroli dz. (Type V choledochal cyst)

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26
Q

a linear erosion or ulceration of the mucosal folds lining the stomach where it is constricted by the thoracic diaphragm in persons with large hiatal hernias.

A

Cameron’s ulcer

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27
Q

For advanced cases of lymphedema that do not respond to conservative management, this procedure has been performed, which involves complete and circumferential excision of the skin, subcutaneous tissues, and deep fascia of the leg and dorsum of the foot. The exposed muscle is then grafted with a full- or split-thickness skin graft.

A

Charles procedure

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28
Q

Types of perforating veins of the lower extremity

A

The Cockett perforators drain the lower part of the leg
medially, whereas the Boyd perforators connect the greater saphenous vein to the deep vein higher
up in the medial lower leg, approximately 10 cm below the knee.

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29
Q

Adrenaloma causing hyperaldosteronism

A

Conn syndrome

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30
Q

Mutation in PTEN. Characterized by multiple hamartomatous lesions as well as cancer of the breast, endometrium, kidney, and thyroid. Hamartomas are made up of all three germ layers

A

Cowden syndrome

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31
Q

congenital malformation in the stomach (typically on the lesser
curvature) characterized by a submucosal artery that is abnormally large and tortuous. As a result
of its relatively superficial location, it may erode through the mucosa and become exposed to
gastric secretions, leading to massive upper GI hemorrhage. On endoscopy, the mucosa of the
stomach appears normal, and the only finding is a pinpoint area of mucosal defect with brisk
arterial bleeding. The lesion may easily be missed if the bleeding is not active.

A

Dieulafoy lesion

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31
Q

mid-diastolic rumble that is associated with rheumatic fever

A

Carey Coombs murmur

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33
Q

Quantify dysphagia sx

A

DeMeester Score

Dysphagia
0 - None
1 - Occasional transient episodes
2 - Require liquids to clear
3 - Impaction requiring medical attention
Heartburn
0 - None
1 - Occasional brief episodes
2 - Frequent episodes requiring medical tx
3 - Interference w/ daily activities
Regurgitation 
0 - None
1 - Occasional episodes 
2 - Predictable by posture
3 - Interference w/ daily activities
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34
Q

difficulty in swallowing due to

compression of the esophagus by an aberrant right subclavian artery

A

Dysphagia lusoria (dysphagia by a freak of nature)

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36
Q

fluoroscopic examination of the small bowel using liquid contrast

A

Enteroclysis

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37
Q

Procedure used for the mobilization of undescended testicles

A

Fowler Stevens

In the first stage, the testicular vessels are clipped laparoscopically. In addition to the testicular arteries, the testicles receive collateral blood from the cremasteric artery, a branch of the inferior epigastric artery, and the artery to the vas, a branch of the superior vesical artery. The orchiopexy is then performed through the groin approximately 6 months later, after which time collateral flow has increased.

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38
Q

triad of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia

A

Felty syndrome

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39
Q

Classify bleeding gastric ulcer

A 
Forrest classification
1a brisk bleeding
1b oozing
2a visible vessel
2b adherent clot
2c flat pigmentation
3 clean base
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40
Q

Classification of hyatid cyst

A 
(Gharbi types): 
a simple cyst (type
I), a cyst with free-floating hyperechogenic material called hydatid sand (type II), a cyst with a
rosette appearance suggesting a daughter cyst (type III), and a cyst with a diffuse hyperechoic
solid pattern (type IV)
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40
Q

GpIIb/IIIa receptor defect

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

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41
Q

a surgical technique used in the treatment of chronic pancreatitis in which the diseased portions of the pancreas head are cored out. A lateral pancreaticojejunostomy (LRLPJ) is then performed

A

Frey procedure

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44
Q

A layer of connective tissue surrounding the liver and ensheathing the hepatic artery, portal vein, and bile ducts within the liver.

A

Glisson’s capsule

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45
Q

“Valves” within the cystic duct

A

Heister valves (spiral shaped with no true valvular function)

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46
Q

Hernia through the superior lumbar triangle, and its boundaries

A

Grynfeltt hernia. Bounded by the quadratus lumborum muscle, the 12th rib, and the internal oblique

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46
Q

Splenic watershed area

A

Griffith’s point

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48
Q

Subtype of follicular thyroid cancer. They differ from follicular cell carcinomas in that they are often multifocal and bilateral, are more likely to metastasize to local nodes and distant sites, and are associated with a higher mortality rate

A

Hürthle cell carcinoma

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49
Q

A metastatic left axillary lymph node from gastric cancer

A

Irish node

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50
Q

These cells are responsible for liver fibrosis and are characterized by the presence of lipid droplets because they store vitamin A

A

Ito cells

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51
Q

Thrombocytopenia secondary to consumptive coagulopathy in the setting of AV shunting

A

Kasabach-Merritt syndrome

52
Q

Perihilar Cholangiocarcinoma

A

Klatskin Tumors.
Classified by location with the Bismuth-Corlette Classification system:

Type I: occurs below the confluence of the L & R hepatic duct
Type II: occurs at the juncture of the L & R hepatic ducts
Type III: involves either the Right (type IIIa) or left (type IIIb) hepatic duct
Type IV: involves secondary and tertiary extensions of either the L or R hepatic ducts

53
Q

A 2-month-old infant has persistent jaundice. Ultrasonography fails to demonstrate a gallbladder. Technetium-99m iminodiacetic acid scanning with phenobarbital pretreatment reveals uptake in the liver but not in the intestine. α1-Antitrypsin and cystic fibrosis determination is normal. The most appropriate surgical management would be:

A

Kasai operation (hepatoportoenterostomy). The procedure involves anastomosing an isolated limb of jejunum to the transected ducts at the portal plate of the liver. The likelihood of surgical success is increased if the procedure is performed before the infant reaches the age of 2 months. If the patient remains symptomatic after the Kasai operation, he or she will require liver transplantation

54
Q

the dissection of the lateral peritoneal attachments of the duodenum to allow inspection of the duodenum, pancreas, and other retroperitoneal structures over to the great vessels

A

Kocher maneuver

55
Q

Perihilar cholangiocarcinomas

A

Klatskin tumor

56
Q

Anatomical space formed by the inferior fibers of the inferior constrictor muscle and the
superior border of the cricopharyngeus muscle.

A

Killian triangle. Site of zenker’s

57
Q

An ovarian mass from a gastric metastasis

A

Krukenberg tumor

57
Q

Metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary

A

Krukenberg tumor is metastatic adenocarcinoma to the ovary. Stomach is the most common primary site accounting for 70% of cases. Colon, appendix, and breast are the next most common primary sites. Retrograde lymphatic spread is the most likely route of metastasis. Krukenberg tumors are bilateral in more than 80% of the reported cases.

58
Q

DVT in an iliac vein due to compression by iliac artery. Identify laterality and name of syndrome

A

L iliac vein commonly compressed by R iliac artery. May-Thurner syndrome

59
Q

Nerves that innervate the proximal stomach, and are divided during highly selective vagotomy

A

anterior and posterior Latarjet nerves. Also, the nerve of Grassi, which is a branch off the posterior trunk of the vagus

60
Q

Management of type I choledochal cyst, the posterior aspect of which invades the portal vein

A

Lilly procedure: resection of the anterior portion of the cyst, leaving the posterior portion in situ, and fulgrating it

61
Q

p53 mutation assoc. w/ breast ca, sarcomas, glioblastoma, adrenocortical cancers

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

62
Q

rare, autosomal dominant, hereditary disorder that pre-disposes carriers to cancer development. This syndrome is also known as the sarcoma, breast, leukaemia and adrenal gland (SBLA) syndrome.

Name and identify the affected gene

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome. Germaine mutation of the TP53 tumor suppressor gene which normally produces the p53 protein

63
Q

Hernia containing a Meckel’s

A

Littre hernia

64
Q

In a 48-year-old man who presents with an ulcerated wound in the middle of a grafted site, evaluate the lesion
Ulcerated growth with rolled-up edges

A

Marjolin ulcer
likely diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma.

Clinical features of a Marjolin ulcer include:
Ulcerated growth with rolled-up edges
Aggressive but slow-growing lesion
Well-differentiated growth
No lymphatic spreading because of destruction of lymph channels

65
Q

Mobilization of the descending colon to the midline to expose the abdominal aorta

A

Mattox maneuver

68
Q

Syndrome of vaginal agenesis

A

Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome

69
Q

murmur sounds similar to a pericardial rub and may be heard in patients with
hyperthyroidism

A

Means-Lerman scratch murmur

70
Q

Aspiration pneumonitis

A

Mendelson’s syndrome

71
Q

familial version of congenital lymphedema

A

Milroy dz

72
Q

an acquired disease with no family
predisposition (D). The etiology is unknown, but it is associated with an increase in transforming
growth factor alpha. Giant rugal folds, particularly in the fundus and body, and a loss of parietal
cells develop. Thus, patients have hypo- or achlorhydria.

A

Ménétrier disease

73
Q

Types of choledochal compression/fistula

A

Mirizzi syndrome. Types:
I. External compression of CHD/CBD by stone in GB/cystic duct
II. Fistula involving < 1/3 circumference of CBD
III. Fistula involving 1/3 - 2/3 circumference of CBD
IV. Destruction of the entire wall of CBD
V. Cholecystoenteric fistula

74
Q

Criteria for liver transplantation in HCC

A

Milan Criteria
Single tumor ≤ 5cm or 2-3 tumors, none exceeding 3 cm, and no lymphovascular invasion or extrahepatic spread

UCSF criteria
Single tumor ≤ 6.5cm or 2-3 tumors, none exceeding 4.5 cm, with total tumor diameter ≤ 8cm, and no lymphovascular invasion or extrahepatic spread

75
Q

a rare but aggressive skin cancer of neuroendocrine origin
arising from specialized touch receptor cells in the epidermis of the skin. It occurs in elderly, light-
skinned patients and those with a history of sun exposure or immunosuppression, particularly
CLL. The clinical features can be remembered by the mnemonic “AEIOU:” Asymptomatic,
Expanding rapidly, Immunosuppression, Older than 50 years old, and UV-exposed area. It often
first appears as a pink nodule and progresses to a violaceous blue color with or without ulceration.

A

Merkel cell carcinoma

76
Q

Loud churning murmur associated w/ air embolus

A

“Millwheel” murmur

76
Q

Gallstone in neck that erodes cystic duct

A

Mirizzi syndrome

Type I – No fistula present

Type IA – Presence of the cystic duct
Type IB – Obliteration of the cystic duct
Types II–IV – Fistula present

Type II – Defect smaller than 33% of the CHD diameter
Type III – Defect 33–66% of the CHD diameter
Type IV – Defect larger than 66% of the CHD diameter

78
Q

an asymptomatic radiographic finding in patients with a preexisting cavitary lung disease such as sarcoidosis. A soft-tissue mass within a cavity that is surrounded by a crescent of air is diagnostic

A

Monad sign, aspergilloma

79
Q

rare disease presenting with localized pain with a tender, palpable subcutaneous cord or linear dimpling. The cause is most often superficial thrombophlebitis of the lateral thoracic vein. It is a self-resolving disease that is often treated with NSAIDs for pain relief.

A

Mondor dz

79
Q

Resection of perineal hernia and closure of the cul-de-sac

A

Moschcowitz procedure

80
Q

Anteromedial congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

Morgagni hernia

81
Q

Thrombophlebitis involving one or more of the superficial anterior chest wall veins (lateral thoracic vein, thoracoepigastric vein, superficial epigastric vein)

A

Mondor dz

82
Q

spontaneous

thrombosis of the axillary-subclavian vein

A

Paget-Schroetter syndrome. It is thought to be, in most instances, a manifestation of thoracic outlet syndrome, whereby a hypertrophied or aberrant muscle compresses the axillary-subclavian vein as it passes between the first rib and the clavicle.

83
Q

Calculate fluids based on PSA burn

A

Parkland formula:

4ml x TBSA (%) x body weight (kg); 50% given in first eight hours; 50% given in next 16 hours.

84
Q

area defined by the junction of the cystic duct

and common bile duct, the second and third portions of the duodenum, and the neck and body of the pancreas.

A

Passaro (gastronoma) triangle

85
Q

Congenital absence of pectoralis +/- ipsilateral breast / ribs

A

Poland syndrome

86
Q

Hernia through the inferior lumbar triangle (and its boundaries)

A

Petit hernia, bounded by the external oblique, latissimus dorsi, and iliac crest

87
Q

Folded gallbladder find us

A

Phrygian cap

88
Q

This potential space results from herniation of
intestinal loops through a defect in the mesentery and between small bowel limbs, transverse
mesocolon, and the retroperitoneum

A

(Petersen’s space hernia

89
Q

sporadic congenital disorder that classically affects the unilateral breast, chest wall, and upper extremity. It is present in at least 1 in 100,000 individuals, occurs more commonly on the right than left (2:1 to 3:1), and affects men more often than women (3:1). Underdevelopment or absence of the pectoralis, serratus, and latissimus dorsi muscles, symbrachydactyly (fused, missing, and/or shortened digits), shortened forearm, dextrocardia, rib abnormalities, absent axillary hair, athelia, diminished subcutaneous fat localized over the
ipsilateral chest wall, and renal agenesis or hypoplasia (rare) have all been described as
characteristics. The cause is thought to be due to interruption in the vascular supply to the affected chest wall and upper extremity in utero resulting in hypoplasia of the chest wall muscles

A

Poland’s syndrome

90
Q

an autosomal dominant genetic disorder characterized by the development of benign hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract and hyperpigmented macules on the lips and oral mucosa (melanosis).

A

Peutz-Jeghers

91
Q

Mutation in STK11 gene and classically associated with the presence of hyperpigmented mucocutaneous spots, bowel hamartomas, and cancers of the GI tract, pancreas, liver, breast, endometrium, and ovary

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

92
Q

Primary pneumatosis intestinalis synonym

A

pneumatosis cystoides intestinalis

93
Q

Clamping of the hepatoduodenal ligament, interrupting the blood flow of the hepatic artery and portal vein to control bleeding from the liver

A

Pringle maneuver

94
Q

Rectal prolapse synonym

A

Procidentia

95
Q

calcified deposits representing clumps of sloughed cells on FNA for thyroid ca

A

Psammoma bodies

96
Q

procedure involves cutting open the length of the main pancreatic duct and anastomosing a Roux
limb of jejunum to the duct but requires a dilated duct (>6 mm).

A

Puestow

97
Q

Air on both sides of the bowel wall

A

Rigler sign. Indicative of pneumoperitoneum

98
Q

Findings of gallstone ileus

A

Rigler’s triad: SBO, gallstone outside GB, and pneumobilia

99
Q

Tx of choice for children with portal vein thrombosis and refractory UGI bleeding

A

Rex Shunt:
superior mesenteric vein–to–
left portal vein bypass at the Rex recessus

101
Q

placement of a prosthetic mesh around the mobilized rectum with attachment of the mesh to the presacral fascia below the sacral promontory.

A

Ripstein repair. The procedure involves mobilizing the rectum on both sides and posteriorly down to the levator ani muscle plate. After mobilization of the rectum, a 5-cm band of rectangular mesh is placed around its anterior aspect at the level of the peritoneal reflection, and both sides of the mesh are sutured with nonabsorbable suture to the presacral fascia, approximately 1 cm from the midline. Sutures are used to secure the mesh to the rectum anteriorly and the rectum is pulled upward and posteriorly. A significant complication of this operation is the incidence of new-onset or worsened constipation.

102
Q

Atrophy of GB mucosa as a result of chronic cholecystitis

A

Rokitansky-Aschoff sinuses

103
Q

interpectoral

(between the pectoralis major and minor muscles) and are technically level II nodes

A

Rotter nodes

104
Q

Classification of arterial insufficiency

A

The Rutherford Classification grades the severity of chronic arterial insufficiency based on clinical presentation. Categories range from 0 to 6: 0 = asymptomatic; 1 = mild claudication; 2 = moderate claudication; 3 = severe claudication; 4 = ischemic rest pain; 5 = minor tissue loss; and 6 = major tissue loss. Alternative classification systems include the Fontaine Classification, SVS WIfI (wound, ischemia, and foot infection), and others. TASC II uses strictly anatomic distribution of disease for its classification.

105
Q

Criteria used to dx antiphospholipid syndrome

A

Sapporo criteria (Sydney criteria)

Clinical – The presence of either vascular thrombosis or pregnancy morbidity, defined as follows:

Vascular thrombosis is defined as one or more episodes of venous, arterial, or small vessel thrombosis, with unequivocal imaging or histologic evidence of thrombosis in any tissue or organ. Superficial venous thrombosis does not satisfy the criteria for thrombosis for APS.

Pregnancy morbidity is defined as otherwise unexplained fetal death at ≥10 weeks gestation of a morphologically normal fetus, or one or more premature births before 34 weeks of gestation because of eclampsia, preeclampsia, or placental insufficiency, or three or more embryonic (<10 weeks gestation) pregnancy losses unexplained by maternal or paternal chromosomal abnormalities or by maternal anatomic or hormonal causes.

Laboratory – The presence of antiphospholipid antibodies on two or more occasions at least 12 weeks apart and no more than five years prior to clinical manifestations, as demonstrated by one or more of the following:

IgG and/or IgM anticardiolipin antibodies in moderate or high titer (>40 GPL or MPL units or >99th percentile for the testing laboratory)

Antibodies to beta2-glycoprotein (GP) I of IgG or IgM isotype at a titer >99th percentile for the testing laboratory when tested according to recommended procedures

Lupus anticoagulant (LA) activity detected according to published guidelines.

Criteria does NOT include presence of SLE9

106
Q

network of

lymphatics that drains the subareolar region

A

called Sappey, and it is important because this is
the principle behind subareolar injection of blue dye and radiocolloid for sentinel lymph node
mapping (sappey for the mappey)

107
Q

Test in which oral radiolabeled vit B12 is administered along with parenteral unlabeled vitamin B
12. The unlabeled B12 saturates liver receptors. Thus, if the oral radiolabeled vitamin B12 is properly absorbed and liver receptors are saturated, the radiolabeled vitamin B12 will be excreted in high concentrations in the urine. With pernicious anemia and blind loop syndrome, oral absorption will be low, and thus urinary excretion of radiolabeled vitamin B12 will be low. When the test is repeated after the administration of intrinsic factor, vit B12 excretion will increase, whereas with blind loop syndrome it will not

A

Schilling test

108
Q

An umbilical nodule that suggests carcinomatosis.

A

Sister Mary Joseph node

109
Q

Removal of a thyroglossal duct cyst or sinus tract, involving a neck incision with dissection up to the hyoid bone.

A

Sistrunk procedure

110
Q

associated with a small ventral septal defect and is described as a vibratory systolic ejection rumble

A

Still’s murmur

111
Q

Hernia through the aponeurotic layer between the recuts muscle and the semilunar line

A

Spigelian hernia

112
Q

Purple nodular lesions occurring on an arm with long-standing lymphedema present is
angiosarcoma, or lymphangiosarcoma, otherwise referred to as

A

Stewart-Treves syndrome

113
Q

Name three procedures used for the treatment of Hirschsprung’s disease

A

Soave - ileal pull through method with ganglionic ileum inside aganglionic rectum. Can be performed trans anal or open, with trans anal being associated with shoulder hospital stays
Swenson - End to end ileoanal anastomosis. Associated with higher rates of sexual dysfunction And enterocolitis
Duhamel - End to side ileoanal anastomosis. Associated with higher rates of incontinence.

114
Q

H. Pylori Eradication protocols

A

Triple therapy:
PPI, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin

Quadruple therapy:
PPI, bismuth, tetracycline, and flagyl

115
Q

rectosigmoid junction

A

Sudeck’s critical point. Watershed between IMA and superior rectal a.

116
Q

Anal encirclement procedure name

A

Thiersch anal encirclement

117
Q

Position used in the case of air embolus

A

Trendelenburg position with left side

down (Durant’s maneuver)

118
Q

Superficial migratory thrombophlebitis

A

Trousseau’s sign

119
Q

Synonyms for VIPoma

A

WDHA (watery diarrhea,

hypokalemia, and achlorhydria) and Verner-Morrison syndrome

119
Q

A metastatic left supraclavicular lymph node

A

Virchow node (Troisier sign)

119
Q

Presacral fascia synonym, and location.

A

Waldeyer fascia. Separates the rectum from the presacral venous plexus and the pelvic nerves.

119
Q

Three risk fx for DVT

A

Virchow’s triad:
Venous stasis
Hypercoagulability
Endothelial injury

120
Q

Nephroblastoma associated with hemihypertrophy and aniridia

A

Wilms tumor

121
Q

Anastomotic connection between the subclavian and the femoral vessels

A

(pathway of) Winslow: subclavians → internal thoracic artery, superior epigastric,inferior epigastric artery, external iliac artery

122
Q

Final location of testis during orchipexy

A

Dartos Pouch

Orchipexy steps:

  1. Complete mobilization of the spermatic cord and testis
  2. Ligation of the patent processus vaginalis and skeletonization of the cord
  3. Formation of dartos pouch usually with a small separate skin incision. Dartos fascia is thin subcutaneous fascia of the scrotum and penis
  4. Put the testicle in the pouch and narrow the fascia behind it to secure it

Surgery (8 decks)

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