Surgical Skills and Postoperative Care Flashcards

1
Q

A 35 year old woman undergoes extensive laparoscopic surgery in the lithotomy position. She presents after 3 days with unresolved weakness of right hip extension and right knee flexion. There is associated sensory impairment below the right knee. Damage to which nerve is the most likely cause?

a. Femoral
b. Ilio-inguinal
c. Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
d. Obturator
e. Sciatic

A

E - Sciatic

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2
Q

A 65 year old had a hysterectomy for endometrial cancer. She recovered well but complained of dribbling urine 2 days later and was given a course of antibiotics for a presumed UTI. On review at 4 weeks she complains of continued urinary incontinence. She has no dysuria, no sensation of urgency, needs to wear a pad at night and intermittently voids good volumes of urine with normal flow. Urinalysis is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Fistula
b. Occult, underlying stress incontinence
c. Overactive bladder syndrome
d. Overflow incontinence
e. Urinary tract infection

A

A - Fistula

In the developed world, the vast majority of urinary tract fistulae occur following hysterectomy and caesarean section. This is usually due to a failure to dissect the bladder from of the cervix and upper vaginal. Leakage starting in the immediate post-operative period suggests direct damage. Leakage 1-2 weeks later suggests avascular necrosis.

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3
Q

A woman has been recommended to undergo hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for benign disease. You discuss the risks and benefits of an open versus a laparoscopic procedure. What sort of injury is more common at laparoscopic hysterectomy compared with an open procedure?

a. Bowel
b. Nerve
c. Ovary
d. Urinary tract
e. Vascular

A

D - Urinary Tract

Laparoscopic surgery involves risk to bowel, urinary tract and major blood vessels. These risks are higher in women who are obese or significantly underweight however the risks of laparotomy are significantly higher in the morbidly obese. Urinary tract injury and vaginal cuff dehiscence are more common in the laparoscopic approach with an odds ratio of 2.61 for urinary tract injury.

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4
Q

A 55 year old woman is due to come in for a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral-salpingoophorectomy for a large mucinous ovarian cyst. She takes sequential HRT for menopausal symptoms. What is the approximate overall risk of serious complications from abdominal hysterectomy?

a. 1 operation in every 100
b. 2 operations in every 100
c. 3 operations in every 100
d. 4 operations in every 100
e. 5 operations in every 100

A

D - 4 operations in every 100

The overall risk of serious complications from abdominal hysterectomy is approximately 4 operations in every 100 (common)

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5
Q

A 48 year old woman presents one week after a total abdominal hysterectomy. She has persistent weakness of hip flexion and paraesthesia over the anterior and medial aspects of her left thigh. Damage to which nerve is the most likely cause?

a. Femoral
b. Gemito-femoral
c. Ilioinguinal
d. Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
e. Obturator

A

A - Femoral

Gynaecological surgery, especially abdominal hysterectomy is the most common cause of iatrogenic femoral nerve injury and injury to the femoral nerve is the most common nerve injury in gynaecological practice.

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6
Q

A 36 year old woman undergoes laparoscopic resection of deep infiltrating endometriosis. You advise her regarding the risk of injury to her ureters during the surgery and the fact that this may be either a direct or a thermal injury related to electrocautery. If she does receive a thermal injury, when would you expect her to present?

a. 1-2 days post-surgery
b. 5-7 days post-surgery
c. 10-14 days post-surgery
d. 3-4 weeks post-surgery
e. 5-6 weeks post-surgery

A

C - 10-14 days post-surgery

Thermal injuries to the ureter may result in delayed necrosis and/or fistula formation that will typically present clinically 10-14 days post-operatively.

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7
Q

You see a 48 year old woman opting for a hysterectomy for management of her heavy menstrual bleeding. While obtaining her consent for the operation you explain that the risk of haemorrhage requiring transfusion is a ‘common’ procedural risk. What is the numerical ratio for a complication when it is quoted as ‘common’?

a. 1/1 to 1/10
b. 1/10 to 1/100
c. 1/100 to 1/1000
d. 1/1000 to 1 in 10,000
e. Less than 1 in 10,000

A

B – 1/10 – 1/100

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8
Q

A 68 year woman with post-menopausal bleeding is attending for a diagnostic hysteroscopy under general anaesthetic. You discuss the complications with her. What is the incidence of serious complications during hysteroscopy?

a. 1 in 50
b. 1 in 100
c. 1 in 500
d. 1 in 1000
e. 1 in 5000

A

C – 1 in 500

Uterine perforation is uncommon but a small post-menopausal uterus is an independent risk factor, especially where it cervical os is stenosed.

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9
Q

A 40 year old woman presents with severe pelvic pain. She has had a myomectomy in the past through a vertical midline incision to the level of the umbilicus. To investigate her pain she undergoes a diagnostic laparoscopy using the Palmer’s point of entry. Where is Palmer’s point?

a. 3cm below the left costal margin in the midaxillary line
b. 3cm below the left costal margin in the midclavicular line
c. 3cm below the right costal margin in the midaxillary line
d. 3cm below the right costal margin in the midclavicular line
e. 3cm below the xiphisternum in the midline

A

B – 3cm below the left costal margin in the mid-clavicular line

Palmer’s point should be used where there is a high suspicion of adhesions. Adhesions are found in up to 50% following a midline laparotomy but rarely in the LUQ. If there are two failed attempts at umbilical insufflation then utilising Palmer’s point or the open Hasson technique should be utilised

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10
Q

A 23 year old woman undergoes laparoscopic cystectomy of a right endometrioma, densely adherent to the pelvic side wall. She is discharged home soon after the surgery but presents 36 hours later with right-flank pain. Which investigation would you arrange to confirm and locate any ureteric injury?

a. CT IV urogram
b. MRI
c. Renogram
d. Transurethral cystoscopy and stenting
e. Ultrasound

A

A – CT IV urogram

Endometriosis increases the risk of injury to the urinary tract. An acute injury usually presents within 48 hours with diffuse abdominal pain, distension and ileus. The chemical peritonitis has more subtle symptoms when compared with peritonitis secondary to faeces or infection. A contrast CT will usually demonstrate uro-peritoneum and may show direct evidence of the injury. MRI is useful in late presentations where a fistula is suspected.

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11
Q

A 55 year old woman is seen in the pre-assessment clinic. She is due to undergo full staging surgery for ovarian cancer as recommended by the MDT. Her only current medications are thyroxine and clopidogrel. If the benefits of stopping clopidogrel outweigh the risks, how long should clopidogrel be stopped prior to surgery?

a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 5 days
d. 7 days
e. 14 days

A

D - 7 days

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12
Q

A 25 year old woman develops a wound infection after a straightforward elective subtotal hysterectomy. What is the single most likely causative organism?

a. E. Coli
b. H. Influenzae
c. MRSA
d. Staph. Aureus
e. Strep. Milleri

A

D – Staph. Aureus

All wounds are colonised with bacteria. This does not mean all wounds will become infected – if there is an infection it is likely to be from skin flora which has colonised the wound; thus Staph. Aureus is the most likely culprit.

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13
Q

A 37 year old woman is undergoing a diagnostic laparoscopy for investigation of pelvic pain. Following insertion of the primary trocar through the umbilical port, you find bowel adherent to the anterior abdominal wall in the midline. You are worried that bowel may be adherent under the umbilicus. What is the recommended course of action?

a. Continue with the procedure as Palmer’s test was normal
b. Convert to laparotomy
c. Remove port and reinsert at Palmer’s point
d. Seek surgical advice
e. Visualise the primary trocar from a secondary port site

A

E – Visualise the primary trocar from a secondary port site

If there are adhesions within the abdomen it is advisable to check the umbilical port by inspecting it through a – preferably 5mm – secondary port. If damage has occurred, then surgical advice should be sought.

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14
Q

A group of trainees are preparing a tutorial session on laparoscopic hysterectomy. They plan to review the risks of urinary tract damage associated with laparoscopic hysterectomy in order to provide inform about the risks and diagnosis of urinary tract injury. What important information as part of the tutorial needs to be included?

a. Damage to the ureter at the vesico-ureteric junction is the most common ureteric injury
b. MRI is suboptimal to diagnose vesico-vaginal fistula because of poor tissue contrast in that area.
c. The most common site of bladder injury is the midline above the inter-utreteric bar
d. Thermal injuries present within 72 hours with uroperitoneum or vesico vaginal fistula
e. Traumatic bladder injury is prevented by catheterisation

A

C – The most common site of bladder injury is the midline about the inter-ureteric bar

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15
Q

An ST3 is asked to review a previously fit woman. She is 6 hours post-operative following a laparoscopic hysterectomy. She looks pale and confused and agitated. Her pulse is 120bpm, respiratory rate 40 breaths per minute and blood pressure 60/40mmHg. She has a urine output of 5ml/hour. Her weight is 70kg. Approximately what percentage of her blood volume has she lost?

a. 10-15%
b. 20-25%
c. 30-35%
d. 40-45%
e. 50-55%

A

C – 30-35%

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16
Q

A patient is reviewed on the ward round on day 1 following a total abdominal hysterectomy. She complains of right-sided weakness adducting and flexing her hip and of altered sensation over the anterior-medial thigh and calf. On examination, the knee jerk reflex is absent on the affected side. Injury to which nerve is most likely to be responsible for these findings?

a. Obturator
b. Femoral
c. Ilioinguinal
d. Sciatic
e. Genitofemoral

A

B - Femoral

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17
Q

A patient is seen on day 2 following an emergency caesarean section. She is recovering well, though complains of paraesthesia over the left groin, inner thigh and labia. There is no associated motor deficit. Injury to which nerve is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?

a. Femoral
b. Obturator
c. Ilioinguinal
d. Pudendal
e. Common peroneal

A

C - Ilioinguinal

The incidence of such injury is reported at ~3.7% following Pffanenstiel incision

18
Q

A 67 year old woman with known endometrial cancer undergoes a hysterectomy and pelvic lymphadenectomy. When reviewed on the ward round the following morning she reports a ‘tingling’ feeling around the vulva, mons and femoral triangle. Injury to what nerve is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?

a. Obturator
b. Pudendal
c. Ilioinguinal
d. Genitofemoral
e. Femoral

A

D - Genitofemoral

19
Q

You are called to review a woman the morning after a forceps delivery who is complaining of foot drop on the right side. On further questioning there is also altered sensation over the calf and dorsum of the foot on the same side. Injury to which nerve is the most likely explanation for these findings?

a. Femoral
b. Obturator
c. Iliohypogastric
d. Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
e. Common peroneal

A

E - Common Peroneal

The presence of foot drop typically signifies injury to the common peroneal nerve - trapped at the femoral head in lithotomy

20
Q

The morning after a particularly length pelvic floor repair, a 64 year old complains of altered sensation beneath the knee and inability to extend the hip or flex the knee. Injury to what nerve best accounts for these findings?

a. Femoral
b. Popliteal
c. Obturator
d. Sciatic
e. Pudendal

A

D - Sciatic

21
Q

Following a sacrospinous fixation, a 64 year old patient complains of gluteal and vulval pain which seems to be exacerbated by sitting down. Entrapment of which nerve is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?

a. Obturator
b. Femoral
c. Sciatic
d. Pudendal
e. Gluteal

A

D - Pudendal

22
Q

A patient with altered sensation over the anterior-medial thigh following a laparotomy enquires how long her symptoms are likely to persist. What is the usual duration of sensory symptoms following a nerve injury?

a. 24-48 hours
b. 5 days
c. 14 days
d. 3-6 months
e. >12 months

A

B - 5 days

23
Q

A patient with foot-drop following a forceps delivery is anxious about the likely duration of symptoms. How long do motor defects secondary to nerve injury typically take to heal?

a. Up to 7 days
b. Up to 5 weeks
c. Up to 10 weeks
d. Up to 6 months
e. Up to 2 years

A

C - Up to 10 weeks

24
Q

A patient undergoes an ERPC for retained products of conception 2 weeks following a normal vaginal delivery. What do you advise her is the risk of uterine perforation in this case?

a. 1 in 1000
b. 10 in 1000
c. 50 in 1000
d. 100 in 1000
e. 200 in 1000

A

C - 50 in 1000

The risk of uterine perforation with ERPC in the postpartum period is elevated considerably at 5%

25
Q

You are performing a third-degree tear repair in theatre following a forceps delivery. You consider the length of time the various suture materials you are using take to dissolve. How long does Vicryl (polyglactin) take to be fully absorbed?

a. 45-60 days
b. 60-90 days
c. 90-120 days
d. 120-180 days
e. 180-210 days

A

B - 60-90 days

Absorption times for the most commonly used absorbable sutures are as follows:

  • Vicryl: 60-90 days
  • Vicryl Rapide: 40 days
  • Monocryl: 90-120 days
  • PDS: 180-240
26
Q

You are performing a third-degree tear repair in theatre following a forceps delivery. You consider the length of time the various suture materials you are using take to dissolve. How long does PDS (polydioxone) take to be fully absorbed?

a. 45-60 days
b. 60-90 days
c. 90-120 days
d. 120-180 days
e. 180-240 days

A

E - 180-240 days

Absorption times for the most commonly used absorbable sutures are as follows:

  • Vicryl: 60-90 days
  • Vicryl Rapide: 40 days
  • Monocryl: 90-120 days
  • PDS: 180-240
27
Q

You are performing a third-degree tear repair in theatre following a forceps delivery. You consider the length of time the various suture materials you are using take to dissolve. How long does Vicryl-Rapide (polyglactin) take to be fully absorbed?

a. 30-50 days
b. 60-90 days
c. 90-120 days
d. 120-180 days
e. 180-210 days

A

A - 30-50 days

Absorption times for the most commonly used absorbable sutures are as follows:

  • Vicryl: 60-90 days
  • Vicryl Rapide: 40 days
  • Monocryl: 90-120 days
  • PDS: 180-240
28
Q

You are performing a third-degree tear repair in theatre following a forceps delivery. You consider the length of time the various suture materials you are using take to dissolve. How long does Monocryl take to be fully absorbed?

a. 45-60 days
b. 60-90 days
c. 90-120 days
d. 120-180 days
e. 180-210 days

A

C - 90-120 days

Absorption times for the most commonly used absorbable sutures are as follows:

  • Vicryl: 60-90 days
  • Vicryl Rapide: 40 days
  • Monocryl: 90-120 days
  • PDS: 180-240
29
Q

What is the incidence of ‘major’ complications with laparoscopic surgery?

a. 2 in 100
b. 1 in 100
c. 2 in 1000
d. 1 in 1000
e. 1 in 5000

A

D - 1 in 1000

Serious complications occur in around 1 in 1000 cases of laparoscopic surgery – the period of greatest risk being from the start of the procedure until visualisation within the peritoneal cavity

30
Q

Which of the following is NOT a recognised risk factor for major entry-related laparoscopic injury?

a. Previous midline laparotomy
b. BMI <19
c. BMI >30
d. Crohn’s disease
e. Age >40

A

E - Age >40

There is an increased risk of injury during laparoscopic entry in women who are obese, or significantly underweight as well as those with previous midline abdominal incisions, peritonitis or inflammatory bowel disease. Age has no bearing on risk.

31
Q

Which of the following entry techniques has been shown to carry the highest risk of major complications?

a. Veress
b. Hasson’s
c. Palmer’s
d. Direct Trocar
e. Equivalent risk

A

E - Equivalent risk

In women of normal weight with additional risk factors, there is no significant difference in the incidence of major complication associated with each of the entry techniques described.

32
Q

What position should the operating table be in at the time of primary entry?

a. Level
b. Trendelenberg tilt
c. Lloyd-David
d. Lithotomy
e. Left-lateral

A

A - Level

The operating table should always be level and not in any tilt at the start of any laparoscopic procedure.

33
Q

What should be the initial insufflation pressure observed on insertion of the Veress needle, prior to insufflation, taken to indicate that the needle is correctly sited within the peritoneal cavity?

a. <15mmHg
b. <8mmHg
c. <5mmH20
d. >10mmHg
e. >15mmH20

A

B - <8mmHg

In determining the position of the Veress needle prior to insufflation, observation of the initial insufflation pressure is of most value – typically this should be less than 8mmHg and gas should be flowing freely.

34
Q

How many attempts should be made at Veress entry prior to converting to an open (Hasson’s) entry?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. Five

A

B - Two

A review by the Council of the Association of Surgeons (quoted in the RCOG Guideline) suggests that after TWO failed attempts to insert the Veress needle, either the open (Hasson) or Palmer’s point entry should be used.

35
Q

What intra-abdominal pressure should be achieved prior to insertion of the primary trocar at laparoscopy?

a. 10-15mmHg
b. 15-20mmHg
c. 20-25mmHg
d. 25-30mmHg
e. 30-35mmHg

A

C - 20-25mmHg

An intra-abdominal pressure of 20-25mmHg should be used for gas insufflation prior to insertion of the primary trocar – the splinting effect which this pressure achieves has been shown to be associated with a lower risk of major vessel injury. Secondary ports too should be inserted at the same pressures. The mean volume of CO2 required to achieve such pressure is 5-6L. After all trocars have been inserted, pressure should be reduced to 12-15mmHg.

36
Q

What intra-abdominal pressure should be achieved prior to insertion of the secondary trocar?

a. 5-10mmHg
b. 10-15mmHg
c. 15-20mmHg
d. 20-25mmHg
e. 25-30mmHg

A

D - 20-25mmHg

An intra-abdominal pressure of 20-25mmHg should be used for gas insufflation prior to insertion of the primary trocar – the splinting effect which this pressure achieves has been shown to be associated with a lower risk of major vessel injury. Secondary ports too should be inserted at the same pressures. The mean volume of CO2 required to achieve such pressure is 5-6L. After all trocars have been inserted, pressure should be reduced to 12-15mmHg.

37
Q

A patient attends for a diagnostic laparoscopy to investigate a suspected ovarian torsion – you note on discussion that she has a history of a midline laparotomy performed 5 years earlier. What is the estimated rate of peri-umbilical adhesions in patients with a previous midline laparotomy?

a. 25%
b. 33%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 90%

A

C - 50%

The rate of adhesion formation at the umbilicus may be as high as 50% in patients with a history of previous midline incision and 23% in those with low transverse incisions. Consideration should be given, in such patients, to the possibility of using an alternative site such as Palmers point.

38
Q

An alternative site to the umbilicus for laparoscopic entry is Palmer’s Point. Where anatomically is palmers point?

a. 3cm inferior to the left costal margin in the mid-clavicular line
b. 2 cm superior to the pubic symphysis in the midline
c. 6cm inferior to the left costal margin in the mid-axillary line
d. 2 finger breadths above and medial to the ASIS on the left
e. 2 finger breadths beneath the xiphisternum centrally

A

A - 3cm inferior to the left costal margin in the mid-clavicular line

Palmer’s point is defined as the site 3cm inferior to the left costal margin in the mid-clavicular line. This is appropriate for use in patients in whom the umbilicus is not due to risk of adhesions or failed entry. Palmer’s is not appropriate for patients with a history of previous surgery in this area or in those with splenomegaly.

39
Q

What port sizes in the midline and laterally require formal suturing of the rectus sheath respectively?

       Midline	       Lateral	

a. >5mm >5mm
b. >7mm >5mm
c. >7mm >7mm
d. >10mm >7mm
e. >10mm >10mm

A

D - Mid >10mm; Lat >7mm

Any midline port greater than 10mm and any non-midline port greater than 7mm require deep sheath closure in order to minimise the risk of port-site hernia

40
Q

A nulliparous patient with a BMI of 17 attends for a diagnostic laparoscopy for pelvic pain. What distance beneath the skin is the aorta thought to lie in such patients?

a. 2.5cm
b. 4cm
c. 5.5cm
d. 7cm
e. 9cm

A

A - 2.5cm

Hasson’s (open) entry is recommended in women who are ‘very thin’ (and indeed in the morbidly obese) as they are at the greatest risk of vascular injury, especially where the abdominal musculature are well developed. The aorta may lie as little at 2.5cm beneath the skin in such women.