Sexual and Reproductive Health Flashcards

1
Q

After how many months of amenorrhoea can women over 50 safely be advised they no longer require contraception (assuming they are not already using hormonal methods)?

a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
e. Irrespective of duration of amenorrhoea, women should be advised to continue contraception until age 55

A

B - 12 months

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2
Q

After how many months of amenorrhoea can women under 50 safely be advised they no longer require contraception (assuming they are not already using hormonal methods)?

a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
e. Irrespective of duration of amenorrhoea, women should be advised to continue contraception until age 55

A

D - 24 months

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3
Q

A 51 year old women using the combined pill for contraception wishes to have a blood test done to determine whether or not she still requires contraception. How long should the combined pill be stopped prior to measuring FSH levels in women for this indication?

a. FSH can be measured while taking the combined pill
b. 1 week
c. 2 weeks
d. 4 weeks
e. 6 weeks

A

C - 2 weeks

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4
Q

A 51 year old women using the Depo-Provera progesterone injection for contraception wishes to have a blood test done to determine whether or not she still requires contraception. How long should the injection be stopped prior to measuring FSH levels in women for this indication?

a. FSH can be measured while on the injection
b. 2 weeks from date of missed injection
c. 4 weeks from date of missed injection
d. 6 months from date of missed injection
e. 12 months from date of missed injection

A

E - 12 months from date of missed injection

There is a delay in return of ovulation following cessation of the progesterone-only injection thus 1 year should elapse since stopping prior to measuring FSH levels in women to determine menopausal status.

No such delay is indicated in women using either the implant or intra-uterine system (Mirena) - these women should be advised to continue contraception for 1 year after recording 2 FSH readings >30iU/L taken at least 6 weeks apart.

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5
Q

At what age can women be advised to stop contraception irrespective of menstrual cycle?

a. 50 years
b. 52 years
c. 55 years
d. 58 years
e. 60 years

A

C - 55 years

Very few women continue to have fertile ovulation beyond this age though it is impossible to completely guarantee infertility.

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6
Q

Which of the following progesterone only pills has the longest window within which the pill may be taken each day?

a. Levonorgestrel
b. Desogestrel
c. Norethisterone
d. Norgestimate
e. Etonorgestrel

A

B - Desogestrel

The ‘missed pill’ window for most progesterone only contraceptives is only 3 hours with the exception of desogestrel which is 12 hours.

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7
Q

A patient wishes to use the progesterone only implant for contraception. She attends the sexual health clinic to have this fitted on day 14 of a regular cycle. Pregnancy test prior to insertion is negative. For how many days does she require additional contraceptive cover?

a. None
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 9 days
e. Until next menstrual period

A

C - 7 days

When not started within the first 5 days of a menstrual cycle, users of the implant or injection require additional contraceptive cover for 7 days

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8
Q

A patient wishes to use the progesterone only injection for contraception. She attends the sexual health clinic to have this fitted on day 14 of a regular cycle. Pregnancy test prior to injection is negative. For how many days does she require additional contraceptive cover?

a. None
b. 2 days
c. 7 days
d. 9 days
e. Until next menstrual period

A

C - 7 days

When not started within the first 5 days of a menstrual cycle, users of the implant or injection require additional contraceptive cover for 7 days

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9
Q

A patient wishes to use the progesterone only pill for contraception. She attends the sexual health clinic to have this prescribed on day 14 of a regular cycle. Pregnancy test prior to issue is negative. For how many days does she require additional contraceptive cover?

a. None
b. 2 days
c. 7 days
d. 9 days
e. Until next menstrual period

A

B - 2 days

When not started in the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, users of the progesterone only pill should be advised of the need to take additional contraceptive precautions for 2 days.

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10
Q

A patient wishes to use the combined pill Microgynon for contraception. She attends the sexual health clinic to have this prescribed on day 14 of a regular cycle. Pregnancy test prior to issue is negative. For how many days does she require additional contraceptive cover?

a. None
b. 3 days
c. 5 days
d. 7 days
e. Until next menstrual period

A

D - 7 days

When not started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, users of the combined pill should be advised of the need for additional contraceptive precautions for 7 days.

There are 2 exceptions to this rule:

  • Zoely - for which 7 days precautions are required when started on any day but the first day of the cycle
  • Qlaira - for which 9 days of precautions are required when started on any day but the first day of the cycle
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11
Q

A patient wishes to use the Levonorgestrel intra-uterine system for contraception. She attends the sexual health clinic to have this fitted on day 14 of a regular cycle. Pregnancy test prior to fitting is negative. For how many days does she require additional contraceptive cover?

a. None
b. 3 days
c. 5 days
d. 7 days
e. Until next menstrual period

A

D - 7 days

The LNG-IUS can be fitted without the need for additional contraceptive cover within the first 7 days of the menstrual cycle; beyond this, 7 days of additional contraceptive cover are required.

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12
Q

What is the principal reason for women to have the progesterone only implant removed within the first year after fitting?

a. New onset dysmenorrhoea
b. Pain/discomfort around insertion site
c. Weight gain
d. Menstrual irregularity
e. Effect on mood

A

D - Menstrual Irregularity

20% is the number to remember for the implant:

  • 20% have amenorrhoea
  • 20% have the device removed in the first year due to irregular or persistent bleeding
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13
Q

What is the standard dose of levonorgestrel contained within Mirena and Levosert systems?

a. 13.5mg
b. 52mg
c. 150mg
d. 302mg
e. 520mg

A

B - 52mg

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14
Q

A 39 year women requests hysteroscopic sterilisation under local anaesthetic as she no longer wishes to use hormonal methods and does not wish to undergo a general anaesthetic in order to have laparoscopic tubal sterilisation. For how long following hysteroscopic sterilisation should women be advised of the need to use additional contraception?

a. 7 days
b. 1 month
c. 3 months
d. 6 months
e. No need for additional contraceptive cover

A

C - 3 months

Women undergoing hysteroscopic sterilisation should take additional contraceptive precautions for 3 months until undergoing a test of tubal occlusion

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15
Q

A 47 year old woman seeks advice about continuing the combined oral contraceptive (COCP). She is normotensive and a non-smoker with a BMI of 25. She has no other medical history and no significant family history. She is concerned that the COCP may give her additional health risks. Which of the following malignancies would you advise she may have a small additional risk of developing due to taking the COCP?

a. Breast
b. Colorectal
c. Endometrial
d. Lung
e. Ovarian

A

A - Breast Cancer

The COCP provides a protective effect against ovarian and endometrial cancer that persists for 15 years or more after stopping the pill. Women can be advised that there may be a small increased risk of breast cancer which reduces to no risk 10 years after stopping

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16
Q

A 22 year old medical student presents with a request for contraception. Her menstrual cycle is irregular and she complains of acne and hirsuitism. Previous investigations have diagnosed polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). She wishes to have a combined oral contraceptive with the best risk profile and most impact on her androgenic symptoms. Which of the following is best for her?

a. Cilest (ethinyl estradiol/norgestimate)
b. Loestrin (ethinyl estradiol/levonorgestrel)
c. Marvelon (ethinyl estradiol/desogestrel)
d. Microgynon (ethinyl estradiol/norethisterone)
e. Yasmin (ethinyl estradiol/drosperinone)

A

E – Yasmin (ethinyl estradiol/drosperinone)

From the given list, Yasmin is more beneficial in terms of management of acne and hirsuitism associated with PCOS. Women with PCOS may also be given Marvelon or Mercilon as contraception. Yasmin contains 3mg of drosperinone which has some anti-androgenic properties. Dianette is also useful as it contains cyproterone acetate which is also anti-androgenic. Care must be taken for women with a high BMI.

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17
Q

A 26 year old woman presents to the emergency gynaecology clinic requesting emergency contraception. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 6 days ago. She is not currently using any contraception having not had a partner for a year. She has a regular 28 day cycle which can be heavy. The first day of her last period was 15 days ago. What emergency contraception option, if any, would you advise?

a. A copper bearing intrauterine device
b. A Mirena coil
c. It is too late for emergency contraception
d. Levonelle
e. Ulipristal acetate

A

A – A copper bearing intrauterine device

Choice of emergency contraception depends on the length of time since SI. All forms are not effective after 6 days EXCEPT for the Copper IUD and only in the circumstance that it is within 5 days of the earliest estimated date of ovulation

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18
Q

A 25 year old woman with a bicornuate uterus attends the emergency gynaecology unit requesting emergency contraception. She has been on holiday and forgot to take her pill for 3 days in the first week of the calendar pack and had unprotected sexual intercourse four days ago. She is in good health. Which of the following is recommended?

a. Copper IUCD
b. Mirena IUS
c. Levonorgestrel
d. Mifepristone
e. Ulipristal acetate

A

E - Ulipristal acetate

Mirena is not licensed for EC; lNG can be used only if within 72 hours. Copper IUCD can be used up to 5 days though not in the presence of a uterine abnormality. Mifepristone is not licensed for this in the UK. Ulipristal acetate is licensed and safe up to 5 days from UPDI thus is the recommended dose.

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19
Q

A 15 year old girl attends sexual health clinic requesting termination of pregnancy. She is 7 weeks pregnant. Her boyfriend is also 15 years old and studies in the same school. She has not informed anyone of the pregnancy. What is your most likely immediate action?

a. Encourage her to inform her parents
b. Inform specialist youth worker
c. Inform her GP
d. Inform the school head teacher
e. Reject the request without parental consent

A

A – Encourage her to inform her parents

Fraser guidelines relate to a case in 1984 (Gillick vs. West Norfolk) and provide a framework for dealing with children aged under 16. It revolves around whether or not the child is capable of making a reasonable assessment of the advantages and disadvantages of treatment and thus their ability to consent to that treatment. In his guidance, Fraser stated that a doctor could provide contraception “provided he is satisfied in the following criteria:
• That the girl will understand his advice
• That he cannot persuade her to inform her parents or allow him to inform the parents
• That she is very likely to continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraception
• That unless she receives contraception, her physical or mental health or both are likely to suffer
• That her best interests require him to give her contraceptive advice, treatment or both without parental consent.
The same guidance applies to termination of pregnancy.

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20
Q

A 23 year old woman has been referred to the gynaecology clinic by her GP after being on the combined pill for 3 months. She has been on 20 micrograms of ethinyl oestradiol and 150mg of desogestrel. She is experiencing irregular vaginal bleeding which is interfering with her lifestyle. She has been taking the pills as prescribed and has not missed a dose. The pregnancy test in the clinic is negative. She reports no symptoms of abdominal pain. A smear was performed 5 months ago and was normal. What is the best management option?

a. Add extra progesterone cover for 5 days per month during the pill free interval
b. Advise this is normal and review in a further 3 months
c. Change to a pill containing 30mg of ethinyl oestradiol and reassess after 3 months
d. Change to a progesterone only pill and reassess after 3 months
e. Stop the pill and monitor her symptoms before trying alternative hormonal contraception

A

B – Advise this is normal and review in a further 3 months

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21
Q

A woman undergoes a forceps delivery following a prolonged second stage. She consults her GP on day 5 postnatal about contraception - she was previously using the Copper IUD and would like to have this fitted again. How long after delivery can intra-uterine contraception be fitted?

a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
e. 42 days

A

D - 28 days

Intrauterine contraception may be fitted within the first 48 hours after birth though beyond this, there is deemed to be an unacceptably high risk of perforation prior to 28 days

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22
Q

A 34 year old woman wishes to use a cervical cap with spermicidal gel for contraception. How do you advise her this method should be used?

a. Insert immediately before and remove immediately after intercourse
b. Insert immediately before and remove 6 hours after intercourse
c. Insert an hour before and remove an hour after intercourse
d. Insert an hour before and remove 3 hours after intercourse
e. Insert an hour before and remove 6 hours after intercourse

A

B - Insert immediately before and remove 6 hours after intercourse

Cervical caps are associated with a pregnancy rate of 6-12%

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23
Q

A 34 year old wishes to use the combined pill for contraception though is anxious about the risks of venous thromboembolism. Which of the following progesterone preparations is associated with the lowest risk of VTE?

a. Desogestrel
b. Drosperinone
c. Etonorgestrel
d. Gestodene
e. Norgestimate

A

E - Norgestimate

Norgestimate, levonorgestrel and norethisterone carry a VTE risk of 5-7 per 10,000 women per year against a background of 2 per 10,000. Etonorgestrel and norelgestromin have a risk of 6-12 and for gestodene, desogestrel and drosperinone it is 9-12

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24
Q

What proportion of cases of pelvic inflammatory disease are caused by either Chlamydia or Gonorrhoea?

a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
e. 90%

A

B - 25%

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25
Q

Which of the following is a recognised benefit of desogestrel-based progesterone only pills when compared with older generation preparations?

a. Fewer androgenic side effects
b. Permits a 7 day pill free interval
c. Lower failure rate with perfect use
d. Longer ‘missed pill’ window
e. Increases insulin sensitivity

A

D - Longer ‘missed pill’ window

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26
Q

What progesterone does the implant contain?

a. Norethisterone
b. Desogestrel
c. Etonorgestrel
d. Drospirenone
e. Norgestrel

A

C - Etonorgestrel

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27
Q

A patient has a levonorgestrel-IUS inserted at the local sexual health clinic on Day 16 of her cycle. A pregnancy test prior to insertion is negative. For how many days should she take additional contraceptive precautions?

a. No additional precautions necessary
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
e. Until her next menstrual period

A

C - 7 days

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28
Q

A patient has a levonorgestrel-IUS inserted at the local sexual health clinic on Day 6 of her cycle. A pregnancy test prior to insertion is negative. For how many days should she take additional contraceptive precautions?

a. No additional precautions necessary
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
e. Until her next menstrual period

A

A - No additional precautions necessary

29
Q

What is the overall risk of perforation associated with insertion of any intrauterine contraceptive device?

a. 1-2 in 100,000
b. 1-2 in 10,000
c. 1-2 in 5000
d. 1-2 in 1000
e. 1-2 in 100

A

D - 1-2 in 1000

30
Q

A patient with a progesterone intra-uterine contraceptive device in situ presents to her local gynaecology assessment unit after taking a home urine pregnancy test which was positive. On examination in clinic, the threads from the IUD are visualised and a repeat pregnancy test confirms the positive result. What is the likelihood of this pregnancy being an ectopic pregnancy?

a. 1/1000
b. 1/500
c. 1/80
d. 1/20
e. 1/5

A

D - 1 in 20

31
Q

In which group of women with a heart disease undergoing IUD insertion does the FSRH recommend administration of prophylactic antibiotics?

a. Those with a history of rheumatic fever
b. Those with a prosthetic valve
c. Those with a congenital heart disease
d. Though with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
e. Those with septal defects

A

B - Those with a prosthetic valve

32
Q

A 30 year old attends for contraceptive advice. She suffers from pulmonary hypertension and does not wish to get pregnant. What WHOMEC/UKMEC category will you place this patient in with respect to offering her contraception?

a. Cat I
b. Cat II
c. Cat III
d. Cat IV
e. Cat V

A

D - Cat IV

33
Q

How soon can ovulation occur postnatally in non-breastfeeding mothers?

a. Within 3 weeks
b. Within 6 weeks
c. Within 8 weeks
d. Within 12 weeks
e. Within 16 weeks

A

A - Within 3 weeks

34
Q

Assuming typical use, which of the following contraceptive options is associated with lowest rate of contraceptive failure?

a. Progesterone only implant
b. LNG-IUS
c. Progesterone only injection
d. Female sterilisation
e. Male sterilisation

A

A - Progesterone only implant

35
Q

An otherwise well woman with no additional risk factors for VTE wishes to start contraception postnatally. She had a normal vaginal birth 5 weeks ago and is currently breast feeding her infant. Which of the follow contraceptive methods is absolutely contraindicated here (UKMEC 4)?

a. Progesterone only implant
b. Progesterone only pill
c. Progesterone only injection
d. Copper-IUD
e. Combined pill

A

E - Combined pill

36
Q

For which of the following contraceptive options are there no restrictions on use in postnatal mothers (i.e. universally UKMEC 1) irrespective of infant feeding modality?

a. LNG-IUS
b. Copper IUD
c. Progesterone only injection
d. Progesterone only implant
e. Combined pill

A

D - Progesterone only implant

37
Q

A 37 year old Para 3 is seen in the clinic 5 months following a caesarean birth. On questioning you learn she is primarily breastfeeding her infant (with occasional formula top-ups at night) and has been amenorrhoeic since the birth. She explains that while she relied on the combined pill for contraception pre-pregnancy, she has lately been using no contraception at all as she believed she could not fall pregnant while breastfeeding. What aspect of her history indicates that reliance on lactational amenorrhoea is not appropriate here?

a. >4 months since delivery
b. Caesarean birth
c. Non-exclusively breastfeeding
d. Age >35
e. Multiparity

A

C - Non-exclusive breastfeeding

Lactational amenorrhoea depends on:

  • Exclusive breastfeeding (i.e. no ‘top ups’)
  • Complete amenorrhoea
  • First 6 months postpartum
38
Q

What is the failure rate of lactational amenorrhoea when used properly for contraception?

a. <1%
b. 2%
c. 5%
d. 10%
e. 15%

A

B - 2%

Lactational amenorrhoea depends on:

  • Exclusive breastfeeding (i.e. no ‘top ups’)
  • Complete amenorrhoea
  • First 6 months postpartum
39
Q

In time period following delivery is insertion of an intrauterine contraceptive device deemed to be safe in otherwise well women?

a. 0-12 hours; otherwise wait 4 weeks
b. 0-24 hours; otherwise wait 4 weeks
c. 0-48 hours; otherwise wait 4 weeks
d. 0-6 hours; otherwise wait 6 weeks
e. 0-2 hours; otherwise wait 6 weeks

A

C - 0-48 hours; otherwise wait 4 weeks

40
Q

For how long following vasectomy should couples be advised to take additional contraceptive precautions?

a. No additional precautions necessary
b. 48 hours
c. 2 weeks
d. 4 weeks
e. 12 weeks

A

E - 12 weeks

41
Q

A patient presents for emergency contraception 25 days postnatally after an episode of unprotected SI 24 hours earlier. She is mixed feeding her infant and wishes to continue doing so. Her BMI is markedly elevated at 42. What the optimum management in this case?

a. No emergency contraception indicated
b. Insert Cu-IUD
c. Prescribe 30mg Ullipristal Acetate
d. Prescribe 1.5 grams Levonorgestrel
e. Prescribe 3 grams Levonorgestrel

A

E - Prescribe 3 grams Levonorgestrel

42
Q

When can progesterone only contraception be initiated post-partum?

a. Immediately in non-breastfeeding mothers
b. Immediately in non-breastfeeding and breastfeeding mothers
c. One week in non-breastfeeding mothers
d. One week in non-breastfeeding and breastfeeding mothers
e. Two weeks in non-breastfeeding and breastfeeding mothers

A

B - Immediately in non-breastfeeding and breastfeeding mothers

43
Q

A 30 year old woman has a copper IUD inserted immediately following a normal delivery. She presents 3 weeks later as she is unable to feel the thread. What is the most appropriate management?

a. Perform a UPT and arrange USS
b. Perform a pelvic examination, then a UPT, then a USS if the test is negative
c. Perform an USS and if the device is not seen, request a UPT
d. Perform an ultrasound and if the device is not seen, perform a serum hCG assay
e. Perform a pelvic examination and if the thread cannot be seen, perform a USS and if negative, perform a UPT

A

E - Perform a pelvic examination and if the thread cannot be seen, perform a USS and if negative, perform a UPT

44
Q

Swabs from which area are most sensitive for the detection of Chlamydial infection?

a. Endocervix
b. Vulvo-vaginal
c. Perianal
d. Urethral
e. Oral cavity

A

B - Vulvo-vaginal

A vulvovaginal swab (self-collected or done by a clinician) has a higher sensitivity (96–98%) than endocervical swabs as they pick up secretions from other areas of the genital tract.

45
Q

A patient presents at 20 weeks of gestation complaining of anogenital warts which are causing her considerable embarrassment. She enquires about possible treatment. Which of the following treatments for anogenital warts is most appropriate in pregnancy?

a. 5-fluorouracil, podophyllin or podophyllotoxin
b. Imiquimod
c. Podophyllin
d. Podophyllotoxin
e. Cryocautery with liquid nitrogen

A

E - Cryocautery with liquid nitrogen

5-fluorouracil, podophyllin or podophyllotoxin should not be used because of possible teratogenic effects while
imiquimod is not licensed for use in pregnancy.

The aim is to minimise the number of lesions present at delivery to reduce the neonate’s exposure to the virus. Possible problems are the neonatal development of laryngeal papillomatosis and anogenital warts. However, there is no good evidence to justify the first sentence. We would only treat if the warts were large enough to obstruct delivery, which is almost never. Neonatal laryngeal papillomatosis and anogenital warts are incredibly rare and there is no evidence to state that treating visible warts reduces the risk.

46
Q

What is the preferred testing modality for detection of Chlamydial infection?

a. Nucleic acid amplification test
b. PCR
c. Microscopy
d. Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay
e. Agglutination test

A

A - Nucleic acid amplification test

47
Q

What is the organism responsible for the development of the lymphatic infection ‘lymphogranuloma venereum’?

a. Trichomonas
b. C. Trachomitis
c. Gardenella Vaginalis
d. Treponema Pallidum
e. N. Gonorrhoea

A

B - Chlamydia trachomitis

48
Q

Which antibiotic combination is considered first line in the management of chlamydial infection?

a. Erythromycin or Metronidazole
b. Azithromycin or Metronidazole
c. Azithromycin or Doxycycline
d. Doxycycline or Metronidazole
e. Co-amoxiclav or Vancomycin

A

C - Azithromycin or Doxycycline

First line treatment of chlamydial infection is either:

Doxycycline 100 mg bd for seven days (contraindicated in pregnancy)
or
Azithromycin 1 g orally in a single dose.

Erythromycin of ofloxacin may be used second line if both of the above are contraindicated though are less efficacious.

49
Q

Under which of the following circumstances is a ‘test of cure’ indicated for patients treated for chlamydial infection?

a. HIV positive patients
b. Where oral doxycycline is used as the primary treatment
c. Recurrent chlamydial infection
d. Pregnancy
e. All of the above

A

D - Pregnancy

Test of cure in chlamydia is indicated only in pregnancy. Treated patients aged under 25 are advised to have a repeat test 3-6 months following treatment. A TOC in pregnancy is advised 5-6 weeks following treatment.

50
Q

A 25-year-old girl tests positive for chlamydial infection after attending the local sexual health clinic with symptoms of increased vaginal discharge. She explains that she has had a number of casual sexual encounters since splitting with her boyfriend around 3 months earlier. How far back is ‘contact tracing’ advised in females diagnosed with chlamydial infection?

a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
e. 24 months

A

B - 6 months

The ‘look-back’ criteria for chlamydia is as follows:

  • Male index cases with urethral symptoms: all contacts since, and in the four weeks prior to, the onset
    of symptoms
  • All other index cases (i.e. all females, asymptomatic males and males with symptoms at other
    sites, including rectal, throat and eye): all contacts
    in the six months prior to presentation
51
Q

Which of the following statements concerning chlamydial infection is false?

a. It is caused by an intracellular Gram -ve bacteria
b. The majority of infection in women is asymptomatic
c. It is the most common sexual transmitted infection in the UK
d. All patients should undergo a test of cure 5-6 weeks following treatment
e. It is the most common cause of preventable infertility

A

D - All patients should undergo a test of cure 5-6 weeks following treatment

A test of cure is only indicated in pregnancy

52
Q

What is the preferred specimen sample for Chlamydial testing in males?

a. Penile urethral swab
b. Mid-stream urine sample
c. Perianal swab
d. Throat swab
e. First-catch urine sample

A

E - First catch urine sample

In men, a ‘first catch urine sample’ is the specimen of choice. It is more acceptable to men than urethral sampling, and is as effective, or more effective, than urethral swabs for detecting chlamydia

53
Q

A 19 year old woman attends the sexual health drop-in centre to request chlamydial screening. She is anxious as she had an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse 48 hours earlier with a new partner whom her friends believe is known to have chlamydia. How soon following potetial exposure to chlamydia should testing be undertaken?

a. Immediately
b. 48 hours
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
e. 6 weeks

A

D - 14 days

The ‘window period’ for detecting chlamydia on a NAAT test is approximately 2 weeks. Therefore, when the test is taken, the patient should be informed that it will not accurately detect any chlamydia infection that has been acquired within the last 2 weeks. If they have had any new risk within the last 14 days they should be advised to attend for repeat testing in a further 2 weeks.

54
Q

What is the preferred specimen sample for Gonorrhoeal testing in males?

a. Penile urethral swab
b. Mid-stream urine sample
c. Perianal swab
d. Throat swab
e. First-catch urine sample

A

E - First-catch urine sample

As with chlamydial infection, a first-pass urine sample is the medium of choice of NAAT testing for gonorrhoeal infection in men. A penile swab for microscopy is a - generally less acceptable - alternative.

55
Q

Which specimen is the preferred means of testing for Gonorrhoeal infection in women?

a. Endocervical swab
b. First-catch urine sample
c. Perianal swab
d. Urethral swab
e. Throat swab

A

A - Endocervical swab

Vaginal or endocervical swab specimens are equally sensitive for detecting N. gonorrhoeae by NAAT testing in women. Culture requires an endocervical and urethral swab specimen for maximum sensitivity. Urine is a suboptimal sample for the detection of N. gonorrhoeae in women

56
Q

What is the characteristic microscopic appearance of N. Gonorrhoea?

a. Spore forming Gram +ve rods
b. Extracellular Gram -ve diplococci
c. Intracellular Gram -ve rods
d. Spirochetes
e. Intracellular Gram -ve diplococci

A

E - Intracellular Gram -ve diplococci

57
Q

Which of the following antibiotic combinations is considered first line for treatment of Gonorrhoeal infection?

a. Ofloxacin and doxycycline
b. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
c. Gentamicin and metronidazole
d. Ceftriaxone and doxycycline
e. Azithromycin and doxycycline

A

B - Ceftriaxone and azithromycin

First line treatment of anogenital gonorrhoeal infection is with ceftriaxone 500 mg IM as a single dose plus azithromycin 1 g orally as a single dose.

Azithromycin is recommended as co-treatment irrespective of the results of chlamydia testing to delay the onset of widespread cephalosporin resistance.

58
Q

A 35-year-old woman tests positive for chlamydial infection after attending the local sexual health clinic with symptoms of increased vaginal discharge. She explains that she has had a number of casual sexual encounters since splitting with her partner around 3 months earlier. How far back is ‘contact tracing’ advised in females diagnosed with Gonorrhoeal infection?

a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
e. 24 months

A

A - 3 months

Male patients with symptomatic urethral infection should
notify all partners with whom they had sexual contact within the preceding two weeks or their last partner if longer ago

Patients with infection at other sites or asymptomatic infection should notify all partners within the preceding three months. Sexual partners should be offered testing and treated epidemiologically for gonorrhoea

59
Q

Under which of the following circumstances is a ‘test of cure’ indicated for patients treated for Gonorrhoeal infection?

a. HIV positive patients
b. In patients <25 years of age
c. Concurrent chlamydial infection
d. Pregnancy
e. All of the above

A

E - All of the above

Unlike with chlamydial infection, a test of cure should be performed in all patients treated for gonorrhoea owing to the emerging antibiotic resistance.

This should be performed 2 weeks after treatment in asymptomatic patients though may be performed as soon as 72 hours in those with persistent symptoms.

60
Q

What proportion of pregnancies in the UK are thought to be unplanned?

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%
e. 65%

A

C - 30%

NICE Guidelines

61
Q

What proportion of women in the UK rely on a long acting reversible contraceptive for contraception?

a. <10%
b. 10-15%
c. 25-30%
d. 50-60%
e. 70-80%

A

B - 10-15%

Uptake on LARCs in the UK is relatively poor with only 12% of patients using them - this is compared with 25% for the pill and condoms each

NICE Guidelines

62
Q

A 29 year old woman attends the local sexual health clinic requesting contraception. She is interested in intra-uterine contraceptives though enquires about the risk of expulsion as a friend fell pregnant after he coil fell out without her notice. What do you advise is the risk of expulsion of an intrauterine contraceptive?

a. 1 in 1000
b. 1 in 200
c. 1 in 100
d. 1 in 50
e. 1 in 20

A

E - 1 in 20

Rate of expulsion of an IUCD is common at 1 in 20; most frequently in the first few weeks after insertion. A ‘thread check’ after insertion is recommended for this reason.

NICE Guidelines

63
Q

What is the risk of perforation with insertion of an IUCD (assuming fitted outwith the first 4 weeks postnatal)?

a. 1 in 5000
b. 1 in 2000
c. 1 in 1000
d. 1 in 500
e. 1 in 100

A

C - 1 in 1000

NICE Guidelines

64
Q

A 24 year old patient attends the gynaecology clinic seeking advice on contraception. She is reluctant to consider hormonal preparations as she has heard that they may cause weight gain. Which of the following contraceptive preparations may be associated with weight gain of up to 3kg/year in some women?

a. Combined pill
b. Progesterone injection
c. LNG-IUS
d. Implant
e. None of the above

A

B - Progesterone Injection

Injectable progesterones may be associated with weight gain of 2-3kg/year in some women

NICE Guidelines

65
Q

A 37 year old patient requires contraception. Having considered her options she elects to have a long-acting reversible contraceptive owing to their superior failure rate profile though is concerned about possible delays in fertility should she wish to try for a pregnancy in the future. Which of the following may be associated with a delay in return of fertility upon cessation?

a. LNG-IUS
b. Implant
c. Combined pill
d. Progesterone injection
e. Copper IUCD

A

C - Progesterone Injection

Injectable progesterones may be associated with a delay in return of fertility of up to 1 year post-cessation

NICE Guidelines

66
Q

A woman has just reported that she has been assaulted sexually by someone she knows. What would be the immediate needs of the woman?

a. A thorough assessment to gather evidence
b. Emergency contraception and screening for STIs
c. Her protection and need for a place of safety
d. Involvement of the social worker and organisations she can relate to
e. Psychological support and counselling

A

C - Her protection and need for a place of safety

The immediate needs of a woman reporting sexual assault, particularly if the alleged perpetrator is someone she knows, will be her protection and the need for a place of safety. This is best achieved by involving the police who can liaise with other agencies such as social services and the housing department.

TOG StratOG Resource

67
Q

There is a suspicion that a serious sexual assault on a 30-year-old bar woman was drug facilitated. Up to when after the assault can a blood sample be taken for forensic tests?

a. 1 day
b. 2 days
c. 3 days
d. 4 days
e. 5 days

A

C - 3 days

In general, vaginal swabs can be taken up to 7 days after vaginal penetration, 3 days after anal penetration and 2 days after oral penetration. A toxicology screen will be sent from a blood within three days of the assault and from urine within 14 days of the assault if a drug-facilitated sexual assault is suspected.

TOG StratOG Resource

68
Q

Which of the following statements concerning sexual assault in the UK is correct?

a. The maximum prison sentence for rape is 10 years
b. In order for an offence to be considered rape, there must be evidence of physical violence
c. 90% of victims of a serious sexual assault know their attacker personally
d. Under no circumstances can a doctor inform police of an sexual assault if the women does not consent to this
e. The risk of pregnancy from vaginal rape is <1%

A

C - 90% of victims of a serious sexual assault know their attacker personally

The maximum sentence for rape, which is defined as oral, vaginal or anal penetration without consent, is life imprisonment. For sexual assault which has a broader definition, the maximum sentence is 10 years.

Doctors may in certain circumstances inform police of a sexual assault without the victim’s consent.

The risk of pregnancy from vaginal rape is 5%.

TOG 2018

69
Q

A women presents to her local emergency department in distress stating that she was the victim of vaginal rape some 5 days earlier. She has been too afraid to leave her home since the assault and has only now managed to find the confidence to seek medical help. How long following vaginal penetration can forensic swabs for DNA be taken?

a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 3 days
d. 7 days
e. 11 days

A

D - 7 days

In general, vaginal swabs can be taken up to 7 days after vaginal penetration, 3 days after anal penetration and 2 days after oral penetration. A toxicology screen will be sent from a blood within three days of the assault and from urine within 14 days of the assault if a drug-facilitated sexual assault is suspected.

TOG 2018