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Module 3 (MedSurg 1) > Surgical/Pain Meds > Flashcards

Surgical/Pain Meds Flashcards

1
Q

IV Anesthetics Brand Names

A

Midazolam (Versed)
Diprivan (Propofol)

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2
Q

Midazolam (Versed)
Mode Action

A

Quick onset
Amnesia and antianxiety
Conscious sedationwith morphine or fentanyl

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3
Q

Midazolam (Versed)
Route and Rate

A

IVP
wait 1-2 mins before admin. more medication

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4
Q

Midazolam (Versed)
Adverse Reactions

A

Respiratory depression

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5
Q

Midazolam (Versed)
Nursing Interventions

A

Constant VS monitoring
Monitor airway
Resuscitation equipment available (crash, ambubag)

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6
Q

Diprivan (Propofol)
Mode of Action

A

Induction/maintenance of general anesthesia
Sedate pts
Rapid onset with 3-5 mins duration
NO ANALGESIC ACTION

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7
Q

Diprivan (Propofol)
Route

A

IVP / infusion
- injection into large vein to decrease pain in site

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8
Q

Diprivan (Propofol)
Adverse Effects

A

Profound respiratory depression (apnea)
Hypotension
High risk of infection

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9
Q

Diprivan (Propofol)
Nursing Interventions

A

Monitor VS
Resuscitation equipment available

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10
Q

Local Anesthetics

A

Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
Lidocaine with epinephrine
Spinal/Epidural Nerve Block

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11
Q

Epinephrine is a

A

vasoconstrictor

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12
Q

Epinephrine __________ blood flow and _________ absorption

A

decreases; delays

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13
Q

Epinephrine does what with anesthesia?

A

prolongs and reduces the risk of toxicity

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14
Q

Lidocaine
Route

A

injected into the immediate area of surgery

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15
Q

Lidocaine
Adverse Reactions

A

Allergic dermatitis to anaphalaxis

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16
Q

Lidocaine
Nursing Interventions

A

Avoid hazard activities
Maintain IV access for emergency

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17
Q

Regional block

A

protect area from injury due to numbness

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18
Q

Epinephrine is contraindicated for

A

fingers/nose/body parts with end arteries
due to vasoconstriction

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19
Q

Spinal/Epidural Nerve Block
Adverse Reactions

A

Hypotension, bradycardia, cardiac arrest due to sympathetic block

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20
Q

Spinal/Epidural Nerve Block
Nursing Interventions

A

Monitor pt during insertion for decreased B/P, seizures, respiratory depression
Spinal HA
Post edu: remain flat in bed 12 hrs post, slowly get up and allow feeling back to the legs

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21
Q

Inhalation Anesthetic TYPES

A

no prototype and all general

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22
Q

Inhalation Anesthetic
Mode of Actions

A

produce unconscious and lack of responsiveness to all painful stimuli

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23
Q

Inhalation Anesthetic
Adverse Reactions

A

respiratory depression
cardiac depression
Malignant hyperthermia
Nausea
Aspiration of gastric contents

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24
Q

Muscle Spasm/Malignant hypernatremia drug

A

Dantrolene (Dantrium, Ryanodex, Revonto)

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25
Q

Dantrolene causes

A

stops the release of Ca into the muscle
family hx with temperature going crazy while under sedation

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26
Q

S/S of malignant hypernatremia

A

rapid breathing
tachycardia
muscle rigidity (esp. jaw)
temp over 104 to 109 F
Arrthymias
N/V

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27
Q

Tx for malignant hyperthermia

A

Oxygen
body cooling
extra fluids
supportive care

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28
Q

Dilaudid generic names

A

Fentanyl
Morphine
Hydromorphone
Oxycodone

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29
Q

Narcotic and Narcotic/Combo body systems impacted

A

CNS

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30
Q

Dilaudid
Route and Rate

A

IM, IV, ID PO, SL
mcg for Fentanyl

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31
Q

Dilaudid
Adverse Reactions

A

Respiratory depression
confusion
Sedation
hypotension
constipation
nausea

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32
Q

Dilaudid
Nursing Interventions

A

access VS
- after giving
- at peak (check with routes)
Determine last BM
Elderly more sensitive
Tolerance developed with long term

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33
Q

Combo Narcotics

A

Oxycodone - Acetaminophen
Hydrocodone - acetaminophen
Codeine - Acetaminophen

34
Q

Brand Name of Combo Narcotics

A

Percocet
Lortab
Norco
Tylenol with codeine 3

35
Q

Combo Narcotics
Route

A

PO

36
Q

All Narcotics have ______ adverse reactions and nursing interventions.

A

same

37
Q

Opioid Antagonists’ generic name

A

Naloxone (Narcan)

38
Q

Opioid Antagonists
MOA If given before

A

will block the effect of opioid

39
Q

Opioid Antagonists
MOA If given after

A

will reverse the analgesia, sedation, and respiratory depression

40
Q

What is an opioid “antidote” for respiratory depression?

A

Naloxone

41
Q

Opioid Antagonist
Route

A

IV, IM, SQ
Not PO

42
Q

The half-life of Naloxone is _________ than the opioid and must be given again during a crisis.

A

shorter

43
Q

What is the maximum amount of Tylenol someone can take in 24 hours? If exceeded, what could happen?

A

4000 mg
- Renal failure, cirrhosis of the liver

44
Q

NSAIDs

A

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug

45
Q

Aspirin
Route and capsule type

A

PO, enteric-coated or timed release

46
Q

Aspirin
Contraindicated by

A

peptic ulcer, bleeding disorder, renal impairment

47
Q

Aspirin
Results

A

reduces pain, fever, anti-inflammatory
Give with food/water to decrease GI issues

48
Q

Low doses of aspirin are used for patients to protect from

A

MI
Ischemic stroke

49
Q

What medication is described?
Adverse reactions are rare when taken at therapeutic doses

A

Ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin)
Naproxen

50
Q

T/F: Ibuprofen can cause GI/Renal issues but usually less.

A

True

51
Q

What NSAID drug has no protection against MI/Ischemic stroke?

A

Ibuprofen

52
Q

What is the IV form of acetaminophen?

A

Ofirmev

53
Q

Ofirmev infusion rate?

A

15 mins

54
Q

Ofirmev can mix with other meds?

A

NO

55
Q

What NSAID has no GI or renal issues?

A

Tylenol
adverse reactions rare

56
Q

What happens when a patient overdoses on Tylenol?

A

severe liver injury

57
Q

High-risk patient for Tylenol

A

drink more than 3 alcoholic drinks daily
Warfarin
Severe hepatic impairment
Severe active liver disease

58
Q

Peak analgesic effect of Tylenol

A

1 hour

59
Q

Tylenol duration

A

4-6 hours

60
Q

Nonopioid Centrally Acting Analgesics

A

Tramadol

61
Q

Tramadol should not be given to patient with

A

seizure hx
suicidal ideation
addiction prone
excessive alcohol use

62
Q

Tramadol Med-Oral
starts
max
duration

A

1 hour
2 hour
6 hours

63
Q

COPD Medication

A

Albuterol
Terbutaline
Pulmicort
Fluticasone inhalation
Azmacort
Prednisone
Advair
Acetylcysteine

64
Q

Bronchodilators

A

Albuterol
Advair
Terbutaline

65
Q

Inhaled Corticosteroids

A

Pulmicort
Fluticasone inhalation
Azmacort

66
Q

Glucocorticoid

A

Prednisone

67
Q

Mucolytics

A

Acetylcysteine

68
Q

Asthma medications

A

Cromolyn sodium
montelukast
theophylline
atrovent HFA

69
Q

Cromolyn sodium

A

mast cell stabilizer

70
Q

montelukast

A

leukotriene modifiers

71
Q

theophylline

A

methylxanthines

72
Q

atrovent HFA**

A

anticholinergic bronchodilators

73
Q

TB Meds

A

Isoniazid/INH
Rifampin
Ethambutol
Pyrazinamide
BCG vax

74
Q

Pneumonia Meds

A

Quinolones
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Levoflaxacin (Levaquin)
Penicillin
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems
Macrolides
VAX
Decongestants
Topical - ephedrine
Antitussives
Mucinex

75
Q

Penicillin

A

Amoxicillin
Piperacillin

76
Q

Cephalosporins

A

Ceftriaxone
Cefazolin
Cephalexin
Cefotetan

77
Q

Carbapenems

A

Meropenem

78
Q

Macrolides

A

Erthromycin
Azithromycin

79
Q

Decongestants

A

Phenylephrine
Pseudoephedrine

80
Q

Antitussives

A

Promethazine (antihistamine), phenylephrine (vasopressor), and codeine
Dextromethorphan (glucocorticoid)

81
Q

The conscious sedation combo is

A

Versed and opioid through IVP

Module 3 (MedSurg 1) (12 decks)

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