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Clin Med > Surgery Drugs > Flashcards

Surgery Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

anti-coagulant mechanism

A

prolong clotting time

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2
Q

unfractionated heparin, Lovenox, and Coumadin are what kind of drug

A

anticoagulant

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3
Q

antiplatelet mechanism

A

decrease platelet aggergation, inhibit thrombus formation

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4
Q

eliquis, pradaxa, xarelto: what kind of drug

A

direct anticouags (inhibit Xa or thrombin)

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5
Q

what drugs don’t need bridge therapy?

A

DOAC (eliquis, pradaxa, xarelto)

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6
Q

when to stop ibuprofen before surgery

A

1 day

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7
Q

when to stop NSAID, COXII inhibitor, DOACs?

A

2-3 days before

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8
Q

when to stop ASA (aspirin)?

A

7-10d

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9
Q

when to stop plavix and warfarin?

A

5 days (plavix up to 7d)

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10
Q

for a VTE risk procedure… when to stop OCP/HRT?

A

4-6 weeks

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11
Q

warfarin reversal agent

A

vitamin K

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12
Q

pradaxa reversal agent

A

praxbind

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13
Q

what meds might require bridge therapy?

when is bridge therapy approrpriate?

A

warfarin, plavix

approp when anticogulation outside therapetuic range

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14
Q

clindamycin covers

A

gram +, anaroebes, MRSA

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15
Q

PCNs cover

A

gram +

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16
Q

cephalosporins cover

A

gram +

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17
Q

Augmentin covers

A

gram + (broad), anaroebes

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18
Q

Zosyn (piptazo) covers

A

gram +, gram -, anaroebes

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19
Q

cipro covers

A

gram -, pseudomonas

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20
Q

gentamycin

A

gram -, ESCAPMM

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21
Q 
cefurozime
ceftriazone
ceftazidime
cefepime 
cover
A

gram -

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22
Q

metronidazole covers

A

anaroebes

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23
Q

moxifloxacin covers

A

anaroebes

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24
Q

levofloxacin covers

A

psuedomonas

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25
Q

ceftazidime, cefepime cover

A

gram -, anarobes

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26
Q

tobramycin covers

A

gram -, ESCAPMM, psuedomonas

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27
Q

-penems cover

A

psuedomonas, gram -, gram +, ESCAPMM

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28
Q

linzolid covers

A

MRSA, G+, G-

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29
Q

vancomycin covers

A

G+, MRSA

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30
Q

doxycycline and minocycle cover

A

G+, MRSA

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31
Q

bactrim covers

A

G+, MRSA

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32
Q

cefazolin IV and clindamycin IV for what type of surgery

A

CLEAN

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33
Q

does clean surgery always need abx?

A

no

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34
Q

cefazolin + metronidazole together for what type of surgery

A

clean-contam

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35
Q

cefoxitin/cipro/levo + metronidazole for what type of surgery

A

contaminated

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36
Q

clindamycin + gentamicin for what type of surgery

A

contaminated

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37
Q

aztreonam for what type of surgery

A

contaminated

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38
Q

fluroquinolone for what type of surgery

A

contaminated

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39
Q

zosyn (piptazo) for what type of surgery

A

dirty

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40
Q

meropenem for what type of surgery

A

dirty

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41
Q

invanz for what type of surgery

A

dirty

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42
Q

unasyn for what type of surgery

A

dirty

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43
Q

primaxin for what type of surgery

A

dirty

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44
Q

timentin for what type of surgery

A

dirty

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45
Q

cefoxitin or what type of surgery

A

GI

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46
Q

cefoteten for what type of surgery

A

GI

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47
Q

clindamycin + aminoglycoside for what type of surgery

A

GI

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48
Q

surgical infection ppx - 3 options

A

piptazo
cefazolin
cefoxitin

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49
Q

abdominal surg ppx - 2 options

A

ampicillin/sulbactam

ceftraizone + metronidazole

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50
Q

endocarditis ppx

A

cefazolin

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51
Q

pneumocystis PNA ppx

A

bactrim

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52
Q

allogenic bone transplant ppx

A

fluconazole

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53
Q

etomidate effect

A

sedation (no analgesia)

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54
Q

ketamine effect

A

analegesia, amnesia, sedation

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55
Q

thiopental effect

A

sedation

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56
Q

propofol effect

A

sedation, amnesia (no analgesia!)

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57
Q

propofol contraindicated if you are…

A

hypOtensive

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58
Q

fentanyl effect

A

sedation

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59
Q

midazolam effect

A

sedation, amnesia (no analgesia)

60
Q

midazolam used in what condition when you come to the ER

A

status epilepticus

61
Q

name 4 drugs used for neuromuscular blockade for RSA

A

suzamethonium
rocuronium
vecuronium
succinylcholine

62
Q

heavy menstrual bleeding - what agent to use?

A

transexemic acid

63
Q

tooth extraction w/ hemophilia - what agent to use?

A

transexemic acid

64
Q

blood loss reduction in high blood loss surgeries - what agent to use?

A

transexemic acid

65
Q

trauma associated hemmorhage - what agent to use?

A

transexemic acid

66
Q

traumatic hyphema - what agent to use?

A

transexemic acid

67
Q

name 3 indications for using recombinant VIIa

A

cogential deficiency of the enzyme
hemophilia (periop management)
intracerebral hemorrhage 2 to warfarin

68
Q

paxil is a

A

SSRI

69
Q

elavil is a

A

TCA

70
Q

name 3 patch form analgesics

A

fentanyl, lidocine, salonpas

71
Q

cox II inhibitor effect

A

non-opiod analgesic

72
Q

celebrex effect and specific conditions used for (3)

A

anti-inflammatory

OA, RA, acute pain

73
Q

neurontin is a

A

GABA analog

74
Q

lyrica is a

A

GABA analog

75
Q

are oxycontin and MS contin short or long acting analgesics?

A

long

76
Q

LSD schedule

A

I

77
Q

ectasy schedule

A

I

78
Q

heroin schedule

A

I

79
Q

most opioids aside from tramadol schedule

A

II

80
Q

adderall and ritalin schedule

A

II

81
Q

tylenol w codeine schedule

A

III - because it has the tylenol so people probably won’t take as much, but codeine depending on what its mixed w/ can be 2, 3,5

82
Q

testosterone schedule

A

III

83
Q

anabolic steroids schedule

A

III

84
Q

xanax, valium, ativan, ambien schedule

A

IV

85
Q

tramadol schedule

A

IV

86
Q

lyrica schedule

A

V

87
Q

robitussin schedule

A

V

88
Q

motofen schedule

A

V

89
Q

what would you use movantik for

A

opiod constipation

90
Q

monvantik is CI in

A

GI obstruction/risk

sensitivity to naloxegol

91
Q

sevoflurane, desflurane are what kind of agents

A

maintenance anesthesia

92
Q

NO what kind of agent

A

maintenance anesthesia

93
Q

beta blockers
lidocaine
narcotic
what phase of anesthesia?

A

emergence

94
Q

knee surgery - best route of anethesia?

A

spinal

95
Q

total hip - best route of anethesia?

A

spinal

96
Q

BS community acquired PNA BS abx

A

ceftriaxone IV

allergic - levofloxacin IV

97
Q

PS hospital PNA BS abx

A

zosyn (piptazo)

allergic - meropenem, aztreonem

98
Q

UTI community BS abx

A

ceftriaxone

allergic - levo

99
Q

UTI hospital BS abx

also severe pyelonephtritis

A

meropenem IV

100
Q

cellulitis abx (2 combos)

A

vanc + cirpo

vanc + aztreonam

101
Q

necrotizing fasciitis abx

A

zosyn (piptazo)

allergic - meropenem, aztreonem

102
Q

cellulitis w/ PVD

also DM foot

A

zosyn (piptazo)

meropenem, aztreonam

103
Q

consequences of lack of cortisol

A

altered mental status
kidney damage
red. CO > HOTN

104
Q

how to treat consequences of lack of cortisol

A

Fluids + pressors; if ineffective add steroids

105
Q

septic shock - what pressor

A

NE (levophed)

106
Q

cardiogenic shock - what pressor

A

dobutamine

107
Q

extreme HOTN - what pressor

A

phenylephrine

dopamine 2nd line

108
Q

decompensated heart failure - what pressor

A

milronone

109
Q

when to use vasopressin

A

adjunct w/ other pressor, cardiac arrest

spares NE

110
Q

cardiac arrest what pressor

A

epi

111
Q

banana bag contents

A

thiamine, folic acid, Mg sulfate

112
Q

ducosate is for

A

post op ileus prevention

113
Q

zofran is for

A

prevention of post op n/v

114
Q

promethazine (pherghan) is for

A

adjunct when zofran fails post op n/v

SEDATION too

115
Q

metoclompramide (reglan) is for

A

post op n/v unresponsive to zofran

116
Q

alvimopan (entereg) is for

A

post op ileus

117
Q

loperamide (Imodium) is for

A

symptomatic diarrhea

bacterial colitis

118
Q

appendicitis surgery ppx abx

A

cefazolin + metronidazole

119
Q

acute cholecystitis ppx abx (1, 2, 3rd line)

A
  1. none
  2. cefazolin IV
  3. clindamycin IV
120
Q

cholangitis ppx abx (1, 2nd line)

A
  1. zosyn IV q6h

2. metropenem IV q8h

121
Q

perf viscous ppx abx

A
  1. piptazo (zosyn) 1st line
  2. cefepine + metronidazole

too any of the above, possibly add gentamycin/tobramycin; or vanc; or antifungal

122
Q

diverticulitis ppx abx

A
  1. oral fluroquinolone + metronidazole
  2. IV fluroquino + metronidazole
  3. ceftraizone + metronidazole
123
Q

gold standard for MSSA

A

dicloxacillin

nafcillin

124
Q

clostridium classification

A

gram + bacilli and anarobic

125
Q

lactobillis classification

A

G+ bacilli and anaroebic

126
Q

N. gonorrhea, N meningitiditis, M. cat

A

gram - cocci

127
Q

enterobacteraie

klebsiella, enterobacter, e. coli

A

gram - bacilli

128
Q

pseudomonas

A

G- , anarobe

129
Q

candida

A

non-bacterial

130
Q

gold standard for MRSA

A

vancomycin

131
Q

cryptococcus

A

fungal

132
Q

MC fungal infection

A

candida albicans

133
Q

how is linzolid delivered?

A

IV

134
Q

linzezolid potential AEs?

A

SSRI (it’s a MAOI –> (seratonin syndrome)

hematologic/neurologic toxicity if used for a while

135
Q

seratonin syndrome - what is it

A

confusion, hyperactive, shaking
muscle twitches
diarrhea
fever

136
Q

mechanism by which vancomycin causes red man syndrome

A

histamine release; when given too fast IV

137
Q

when would you give vanc PO

A

colitis d/t C.diff

enterocolitis d/t S. aureus

138
Q

vanco CIs

A

kidney dz
hearing problems
pg
elderly

139
Q

metronidazole contraindications

A

EtOH - disulfuriam reaction, which can include psychosis

140
Q

DOC for anaroebic infections in general

A

metronidazole

141
Q

name 3 macrolides

A

erythromycin
clarithromycin
azithromycin

142
Q

z-pack BBW

A

cause fatal arrythmias and tosarde de pontes

143
Q

bactrim (smx/tmp) CI

A

pregnant

144
Q

name 3 aminoglycosides

A

amikacin (IV IM only)
tobramycin
gentamycin

145
Q

clindamycin unfortunate side effect

A

C. diff (10%)

Clin Med (12 decks)

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