Surgery A Flashcards

1
Q

When is nipple discharge concerning for breast cancer?

A

Unilateral blood filled discharge

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2
Q

What breast conditions is milky discharge seen in?

A

Pregnancy and pituitary adenomas

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3
Q

What breast conditions are associated with brown/green discharge?

A

Mammary duct ectasia and intraductal papilloma if there is some blood

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4
Q

Describe the features of breast abscesses?

A

These may be lactational/non-lactational, periareolar/peripheral and are often associated with smoking. Clinically they present as erythematous, tender, fluctuant and systemically unwell. Management is with aspiration and excision of any necrotic skin.

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5
Q

Describe the features of mastitis?

A

These are associated with lactation where the skin becomes dry and cracked allowing an infection to enter. It is usually a staphylococcus infection and presents clinically with erythema, tender, hot and the patient is unwell. Management is with oral/IV antibiotics.

It is important that inflammatory breast cancer is ruled out.

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6
Q

How should gynaecomastia be investigated?

A

Hyperplasia of stromal and ductal tissue in the male breast. It may be unilateral, concentric and tender. Exclude cancer and see if the cause is physiological, pathological, drug induced or idiopathic.

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7
Q

Describe the features of fibroadenoma

A

A Benign condition which is the most common lesion of the breast, occurring in 25% of women between 15-35. They are hormone dependent and composed of connective tissue and proliferating epithelium. They are firm, non tender, highly mobile, single or multiple. Triple assessment should be done.

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8
Q

Describe the features of breast cysts

A

These are common in the over 35s who are perimenopausal. The cyst may fluctuate with menstrual cycle. They will be well demarcated from the surrounding tissue. They are firm, mobile and either tender or non-tender. Treat by aspiration, if bloody fluid is aspirated they will need a biopsy or of complete resolution not achieved they may need an excision.

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9
Q

Describe the features of fibrocystic change in the breast

A

These are most common in 30s-50s and have an association with cysts, stromal proliferation and epithelial hyperplasia. They are heavily associated with an imbalance of progesterone and oestrogen. 50% are asymptomatic and any report should be investigated with triple assessment.

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10
Q

Describe the features of phyllodes tumour and sarcoma

A

Leaf-like tumour which occur in late 30s-50s, rapid growth. They are usually benign but occasionally malignant. They have a brown cut surface.

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11
Q

What are the risk factors for breast cancer?

A

Risk factors include being over 50, family history, 1st pregnancy after 30 years old, HRT, alcohol, perimenopausal obesity, genetic (BRCA/Li-Fraumeni), cold countries and smoking.

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12
Q

How does breast cancer present?

A

They present with a hard, irregular, tethered lump. They may change in shape, show ulceration, skin changes (Peau d’orange), inflammatory breast cancer, nipple changes (paget’s disease, discharge and inversion). Metastatic changes may have axillary lumps.

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13
Q

What are the types of breast cancer?

A

Types of breast cancer include: DCIS (ductal carcinoma in situ), ductal, lobular, mixed, LCIS (Lobular carcinoma in situ), tubular, mucinous, intracystic papillary, medullary, sarcoma and lymphoma.

DCIS is a pre-invasive cancer picked up due to abnormal calcification in the breast. There are malignant cells within the ducts and a proportion progress to invasive.

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14
Q

How is breast cancer managed surgically?

A

Removal of a lump is called a wide local excision which has a very high chance of success and is more psychologically beneficial than mastectomy. Mammoplasty can be used to reduce the size of these lesions. Post surgery radiology should be done to confirm success.

Mastectomy is a partial or complete removal of the beast tissue which is very successful but will need an implant to make psychologically better. Should only be done if disease is wide spread, multifocal and the tumour is relatively large. Also done if WLE is unsuccessful.

Axillary surgery: This is done to determine if the nodes are involved in metastatic disease and see whether chemotherapy is needed. This is done through sentinel node biopsy or axillary node clearance. The sentinel node biopsy involves using a blue dye and a radioactive tracer. After one or two weeks the tumour will be visible.

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15
Q

How should mastitis with breastfeeding be treated?

A

Encourage to continue breast feeding and topical NSAIDs

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16
Q

Should breast feeding continue with an abscess?

A

No

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17
Q

How should oestrogen receptor positive breast cancers be treated?

A

Tamoxifen - pre menopausal

Tamoxifen stops oestrogen from binding to oestrogen-receptor-positive cancer cells. It’s taken every day as a tablet or liquid.

Post-menopause, you may be offered an aromatase inhibitor.

3 aromatase inhibitors may be offered. These are anastrozole, exemestane and letrozole. These are taken as a tablet once a day.

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18
Q

How should HER2 receptor positive breast cancer be treated?

A

After surgery, chemotherapy and radiotherapy; Herceptin (trastuzumab) should be offered

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19
Q

How should triple negative breast cancer be treated?

A

Surgery, radiotherapy and continued chemotherapy

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20
Q

Describe the anatomical and functional features of the large intestine

A

The function of the large intestine is to absorb water and the residues of liquid chyme. It can be differentiated from the small intestine because it has a greater diameter, teniae coli (longitudinal ribbons on the outside of the colon), haustra (Sacculations of the wall of the colon which can be seen on CXR) and epiploic appendices (small fatty omentum like projections from the colon).

The large intestine is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery (Caecum to transverse colon) and inferior mesenteric artery (descending colon to proximal rectum). The mid and distal rectum is supplied by the middle and inferior rectal arteries which are branches of the internal iliac artery. The venous supply reflects the arterial supply.

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21
Q

What is the physiology of defecation?

A
  1. Rectum becomes distended - initiates the rectosphinteric reflex
  2. Internal anal sphincter then relaxes involuntary through parasympathetic fibres
  3. The external anal sphincter then relaxes voluntarily via the pudendal nerve’s actions of skeletal muscle. This can be used to delay defecation.
  4. Contraction of the abdominal wall muscles and relaxation of the pelvic wall muscles
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22
Q

What is diverticular disease?

A

Diverticular disease is when out pouching of the mucous membrane through the muscle wall of the bowel. These lie alongside the taenia coli and are overlapped by epiploic appendices. This is most common in the sigmoid colon and western countries because of the low fibre diet.

Hypertrophy of the muscle of the colon produces high intra-luminal pressures which cause herniation of the bowel mucosa at the sites of the potential weakness in the bowel wall (vessel entry points).

Diverticular disease presents with abdominal discomfort (associated with constipation). Acute diverticulitis, inflamed diverticulum, abdominal pain which is most commonly found in the lower abdomen. In some cases there may be bowel obstruction due to muscle thickening and fibrosis.

One of the most common causes of PR bleeding is due to erosion through to a vessel.

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23
Q

Describe the features of diverticulitis

A

Diverticulitis should be investigated with an OP colonoscopy or CT colonoscopy for diverticular disease.

Acute diverticulitis should be investigated with bloods (FBC, CRP, U&Es, LFTs, clotting, lactate and ABGs), urine dipstick, CXR to check for pneumoperitonitis and CT abdo/pelvis.

In chronic diverticular disease the patient should be given dietary advice (high fibre diet) and bulking agents such as fybogel.

Acute diverticulitis should be assessed for sepsis, percutaneous drainage of any abscess and surgery may be required to resect the disease bowel (+/- stoma) which is known as the Hartmann’s procedure.

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24
Q

What are the risk factors for colorectal cancer?

A

Age above 50, family history, history of colonic polyps, inflammatory bowel disease, type 2 diabetes, red meat, minimal exercise, alcohol and smoking

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25
Q

What are the symptoms of colorectal cancer?

A

PR bleeding (Bright red if rectal or dark red in right sided tumours)

Change in bowel habit (particular if they have become loose)

Tenesmus (sensation of incomplete evacuation after passing stool which may suggest rectal tumour)

Abdominal Pain (Late presentation)

Tiredness (seen when anaemic due to blood loss)
Weight loss (uncommon in colorectal cancer)

Emergency presentation where the tumour perforated the bowel causing pain and bowel obstruction from the tumour blocking the lumen.

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26
Q

What are the investigations for colorectal cancer?

A

Bloods: Hb, U&Es and LFTs

Colonoscopy: This is the gold standard investigation as it can identify the majority of the differentials as well as tumours. Biopsies can also be taken.

CT colonoscopy: This is useful for colonic lesions and polyps under 6 mm and those unfit for colonoscopy.

CT chest and abdo can be used for staging lymph node involvement.

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27
Q

What is the treatment for colorectal cancer?

A

Resection of the primary tumour:

  • Right hemicolectomy for right sided and transverse colon tumours
  • Left hemicolectomy for left sided tumours
  • Anterior resection or Hartmann’s procedure for rectal and sigmoid tumours

The secondary metastases may also need resection such as in the liver or lung.

Chemotherapy: This may be used for palliation, prior to surgery if metastatic spread or post surgery for lymph node involvement.

Neo-adjuvant radiotherapy/chemo-radiotherapy:

Attempt to shrink the primary tumour pre-operatively in rectal cancers or used in palliative therapy setting if rectal tumour symptoms are troubling.

Colonic Stents: Can be used in obstructive colonic tumours - particularly left sided/recto-sigmoid tumours but these often become displaced.

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28
Q

How is bowel obstruction classified?

A
  1. Mechanical
  2. Paralytic ileus - lack of intestinal mobility of the small bowel which is caused by peritonitis, post-operative and metabolic factors (low potassium, uraemia or diabetic coma)
  3. Pseudo-obstruction - due to lack of intestinal motility of large bowel which is likely neurogenic
29
Q

What are the causes of bowel obstruction?

A
  1. Luminal: Faecal impaction, intussusception (Telescoping of the bowel into another), gallstone ileum (large gallstones lodged in ileo-caecal valve) and occasionally parasites such as ascaris worms.
  2. In the bowel wall: Tumours, Crohn’s disease causing strictures, diverticulitis strictures and congenital atresia in newborns
  3. Outside the bowel walls: Strangulated hernia (internal or external), adhesions and volvulus
30
Q

What are the symptoms of bowel obstruction?

A

Symptoms include pain (colicky central if SBO or lower abdominal in LBO), abdominal distention (particularly in large bowel obstruction and volvulus), absolute constipation (no passage of flatus or faeces), partial obstructions may still pass flatus and vomiting (early symptom in small bowel obstruction and may be green if bile in nature or smell of faeces).

31
Q

What are the investigations for bowel obstruction?

A

Bloods: FBC, U&Es, CRP, Amylase, Lactate and Clotting.

AXR : Diameter of centrally located bowel loops greater than 3 cm suggests small bowel obstruction. Valvulae conniventes are lines across the entire width of the bowel.

Large bowel obstruction on AXR may also have small bowel dilation but also colon loops wider than 6 cm or 9 cm in the caecum. Haustra will not transverse the whole diameter and there may be no air in the rectum.

CT scan and contrast studies

32
Q

What is a volvulus?

A

‘Twisting of a loop of bowel around its mesenteric axis’ which results in obstruction and may occlude the vessels at the base of the mesentery.

Causes include abnormally mobile loops of intestine, abnormally loaded loop in chronic constipation and loop fixation at it’s apex by adhesions.

Sigmoid volvulus is more common in the elderly and those with constipation. Often occurs in women and clinically present with colicky abdominal pain, rapid and gross abdominal distention and non-tender unless there is vascular damage. On AXR there may be the coffee bean sign which shows a proximally dilated large bowel.

Caecal volvulus is usually associated with congenital malrotation with a mesenteric rather than fixed in RIF. Clinically it presents with acute onset RIF pain, rapid abdominal distention and may be non tender but tender if ischaemia develops.

AXR may show the kidney bean sign and swelling with no other dilated large bowel loop and often ectopically placed into the centre of the abdomen or the lower upper quadrant.

33
Q

How should volvulus be managed?

A

Sigmoid volvulus should be decompressed and untwisted with sigmoidoscopy. If unable to untwist an ischaemic segment then laparotomy to untwist the bowel +/- sigmoid colectomy if ischaemic to prevent reoccurrence. The patient should be offered a sigmoid colectomy for recurrent volvulus.

Caecal volvulus should be managed with a laparotomy to untwist the bowel +/- right hemicolectomy but also required to prevent recurrence.

34
Q

How should appendicitis be investigated?

A

Urine: HCG to rule our ectopic pregnancy and assess evidence for UTIs or renal colic.

Bloods: FBC, CRP, U&Es, LFTs and amylase and clotting

USS: Very sensitive for appendicitis and can assess for other differentials such as ureteric stones, ovarian pathologies and biliary problems

CT abdomen and pelvis to confirm diagnoses and rule out cancer

35
Q

What is the treatment for acute appendicitis?

A

IV fluids, IV antibiotics, Septic six, theatre for laparoscopic or open appendicectomy or right hemicolectomy if there is a tumour or necrotic caecum.

36
Q

What benign conditions cause discolouration of urine?

A

Menstruation, jaundice, ingestion of foods such as beetroot or dyes, drugs (rifampicin, metronidazole, nitrofurantoin, warfarin and phenytoin), some gram negative bacteria, rhabdomyolysis and rare metabolic disorders (porphyria and alkaptonuria).

37
Q

What are the risk factors for testicular cancer?

A

Undescended testicles, family history (5-10x as likely), abnormal testicle development such as klienfelters, age (15-35) and race as it is more common in white men.

38
Q

What are the types of testicular cancer?

A

Seminoma: These tumours can occur in all age groups but are more likely in older people. Seminomas are not as aggressive as non-seminomas.

Non-seminoma tend to develop earlier in life and grow and spread easily. Several different types of nonseminoma tumours exist such as choriocarcinoma, embryonal carcinoma, teratoma and yolk sac tumours.

39
Q

How are testicular tumours staged?

A

S stage looks at the presence of tumour markers such as AFP, bHCG and LDH.

S0 means normal markers
S1 means slightly evaluated
S2 means moderately raised
S3 means markers are very high

Stage 1 is the earliest stage of testicular cancer. This means the cancer is only in the testicle and hasn’t spread to any nearby lymph nodes or other organs. This can be split into 1A and 1B depending on the size of the tumour.

This should be treated with radical orchidectomy followed by surveillance. Chemotherapy should be considered after surgery if there is a high risk of recurrence.

Stage 2 cancer cells have spread from the testicle into nearby lymph nodes in the abdomen or pelvis. This is divided into 2A, 2B and 2C which depends on how many lymph nodes are involved and the size of those lymph nodes.
Seminomas which are 2A radiotherapy and chemotherapy, 2B radiotherapy or chemotherapy and 2C should be given chemotherapy. Non-seminomas are treated with chemotherapy after the removal of the testicle.

Stage 3 means lymph nodes and other organs have been affected.
Chemotherapy should be provided after the testicle has been removed. This should be followed by seminoma surveillance. If it was a non-seminoma the patient may be offered retroperitoneal lymph node dissection if nodes remain.

40
Q

What is Murphy’s sign?

A

Pressure applied to the RUQ during inspiration causes pain and cessation of the inspiratory effort. This is suggestive of gallbladder inflammation.

41
Q

What is Kehr’s sign?

A

Left shoulder pain referred from the diaphragm which is suggestive if free intraperitoneal blood as seen in splenic injuries.

42
Q

What is McBurney’s point?

A

Tenderness with palpation of the abdomen 2/3 of the way between the umbilicus and the right iliac crest which is suggestive of appendicitis.

43
Q

What is Psoas sign?

A

Patient flexes the right hip against resistance and experiences RLQ pain which is suggestive of appendicits.

44
Q

What is Rovsing’s sign?

A

Palpation into the LLQ causes RLQ pain

45
Q

What is Grey-Turner’s sign?

A

Ecchymosis of the left flank suggestive of hemorrhagic pancreatitis

46
Q

What is Cullen’s sign?

A

Ecchymosis of the periumbilical area which is suggestive of hemorrhagic pancreatitis

47
Q

What is Lloyd’s sign?

A

Percussion of the flank elicits pain as seen in renal inflammation

48
Q

Describe some common radiations of pain?

A
  1. Peptic ulcer disease presents with epigastric pain radiating to the back
  2. Biliary disease presents with RUQ pain which radiates to the back
  3. Pancreatitis presents with central pain radiating to the back
  4. Appendicitis presents with central pain localising in the RIF
  5. Renal pain begins in the loin and radiates to the loin
  6. Ovarian problems may cause iliac fossa pain which radiates to the thighs
49
Q

What are the causes of pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

This is seen in haemaglobulinopathies, congenital hyperbilirubinaemia’s and transfusions. It is unconjugated bilirubin which should be found in a direct Coombs test. The patient will have normal LFTs and increased urobilinogen.

50
Q

What are the causes of hepatic jaundice?

A

This is caused by drugs, viral infections, autoimmune diseases and cancer (primary or secondary). The patient will have a mixture of conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin and globally deranged LFTs.

51
Q

What are the causes of post-hepatic jaundice?

A

Stones, cancer, stricture and parasites are the main causes. The patient will have high levels of conjugated bilirubin. They will have bilirubin in the urine and classical cholestatic LFTs.

52
Q

How should jaundice be investigated?

A
  1. Urinalysis
  2. Bloods: LFTs, Hb, U&Es, viral serology and tumour markers
  3. Radiology: USS, CT, MRI and MRCP
  4. Endoscopy: EUS/ERCP
53
Q

How do alpha blockers work in the treatment of LUTS?

A

Block alpha adrenergic nerves in the smooth muscle of the prostate and bladder neck causing muscle relaxation. They include tamsulosin and doxazosin.
They are used for patients which have voiding type LUTS. Side effects include postural hypertension, retrograde ejaculation and tiredness.

54
Q

How do 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors work in the treatment of LUTS?

A

Block the conversion of testosterone to DHT. They are used for voiding LUTS and side effects include erectile dysfunction, low libido and retrograde ejaculation. Examples include finasteride and dutasteride.

55
Q

What drugs are used to treat overactive bladder?

A

anticholinergics and beta 3 agonists

56
Q

How do anticholinergics work in treating overactive bladder?

A

Blocking the M3 receptor in the bladder to reduce contractions. Indications are OAB symptoms. Side effects are dry mouth and eyes, confusion, acute narrow angle glaucoma and urinary retention. Examples include oxybutynin hydrochloride and solifericin.

57
Q

How do Beta 3 agonists work in treating overactive bladder?

A

Bind to beta 3 adrenergic receptors in the bladder and is used as a second line therapy after anticholinergics or in the elderly. Side effects include arrhythmias, headache, dizziness, constipation, back pain and flu like symptoms. Example is Mirabegron.

58
Q

What classification system is used to distinguish malignancy from renal cysts?

A

The Bosniak classification for cysts is used to debate chances of malignancy. A grade 3 cyst has a 50% chance of being malignant and a grade 4 is 100% likely to be malignant.

59
Q

What classification score is used to determine the grade of prostate cancer?

A

The Gleason score is used to grade prostate cancer. There are two numbers with the lowest combined score possible 3. 10 is the worst. Any score of 6 or above is a tumour, the higher the number the more risky. The second number is more important as it suggest the aggressiveness. So 3 + 4 is worse than 4 + 3. Following this the TNM score should be investigated.

60
Q

What are the most common sites of prostate metastases?

A

Pelvic bones and spine

61
Q

What is the definition of microscopic haematuria?

A

> 3+ RBC on microscopy which indicates glomerular and non-glomerular causes.

62
Q

What are the glomerular causes of microscopic haematuria?

A

IgA nephropathy, vasculitis or glomerulonephritis which are autoimmune. There are also inherited conditions which can cause glomerular microscopy haematuria such as Allports, polycystic kidneys and transmembrane disease.

63
Q

What are the non-glomerular causes of microscopic haematuria?

A

Non glomerular causes include infection, stones, trauma, malignancy, BPH, menstruation or endometriosis. Rare infections include TB and schistosomiasis.

64
Q

How will IgA nephropathies present in addition to microscopic haematuria?

A

One episode of frank haematuria and URTI

65
Q

Other than microscopic haematuria how might someone with vasculitis present?

A

Rash, nosebleeds, haemoptysis and joint pain. Granulomatosis with polyangitis is the common culprit

66
Q

What is Alport’s syndrome?

A

This is a basement membrane disorder of type IV collage. It is X linked and also presents with sensorineural deafness.

67
Q

How is Gonorrhoea treated and how does it present?

A

Gonorrhoea has an incubation period of 2-5 days and presents with urethral discharge in 80%, also increase frequency and dysuria.

Asymptomatic in 10%.
Untreated it can cause prostatitis, epididymitis, acute urethritis, later urethral strictures and sexually acquired reactive arthritis. It is known as disseminated gonoccal infection when other organs are infected as seen in SARA.

Treatment is with ceftriaxone IM injection but there may be resistance so check sensitivities.

68
Q

What are the non-gonorrhoeal causes of urethritis?

A

Non-gonococcal urethritis is caused by chlamydia, mycoplasma genitalium, trichomoniasis vaginalis, adenoviruses and herpes simplex virus. These will need a further urine sample and micro investigations. These are usually treated with doxycycline.

69
Q

What are the treatments for prostate cancer?

A

Radical prostatectomy is removal of the prostate, seminal vesicles and possibly the lymph nodes as well. This can be open or laparoscopic and is usually robot assisted.

TURP: The prostate is cored out from the inside to keep the urethra and bladder intact. Most prostate cancer occurs in the peripheral zone so TURP is used for BPH not curative for cancer.

Radiotherapy: External beam radiotherapy and hormone manipulation can be curative. Bachytherapy is where pellets are inserted into the prostate to deliver the radiotherapy.

Hormone manipulation: Oestrogen suppresses testosterone. Castration also reduces the testosterone. ANtiandrogens can also be used as well as GnRH agonists, antagonists and modern include enzalutamide.

Chemotherapy: Docetaxel and Cabazitaxel are used for symptomatic relief and as a first line treatment.

Radium 223 is used to manage bone metastases.