Academic Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the important questions to ask about breathlessness in the HPC?

A

Duration, constant or intermittent, lifestyle effects and are there any exacerbating or relieving factors.

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2
Q

What are the causes of breathlessness?

A

These can be divided into chest wall problems and parenchymal disease.

Chest wall: Hyperventilation syndrome, hypothalamic lesions, neuromuscular disease, kyphoscoliosis, ankylosing spondylitis, pleural effusion and bilateral diaphragm paralysis.

Parenchymal disease: COPD, asthma, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis, pneumonia, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, tumours, sarcoidosis, pneumothorax, pulmonary oedema, PE and anaemia.

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3
Q

What does duration of breathlessness indicate?

A

Short: PE, asthma, pneumothorax or pulmonary oedema

Intermediate: Pulmonary oedema, pneumonia, asthma, pleural effusion or anaemia

Long: Chronic airflow obstruction, tumours, IPF or anaemia.

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4
Q

What is orthopnoea?

A

Breathlessness when lying flat but relieved by sitting upright. This is common in patients with severe fixed airway obstruction.

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5
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea?

A

The is a feature of pulmonary oedema from left ventricular failure. It is an attack of severe shortness of breath and coughing that wakens someone from sleep. They may go to the window or have many pillows.

Don’t mistake this for nocturnal asthma.

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6
Q

What does the colour of sputum indicate?

A

White or grey: Smoking, simple bronchitis and asthma

Yellow/Green: Acute bronchitis, chronic bronchitis, asthma, bronchiectasis or cystic fibrosis.

Frothy blood streaked sputum may indicate pulmonary oedema.

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7
Q

Describe the importance of haemoptysis

A

All haemoptysis is important but the most important differential is carcinoma of the bronchus. Repeated small haemoptysis every few days over a period of weeks is likely bronchial carcinoma.

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8
Q

What is stridor?

A

This is a harsh inspiratory and expiratory noise.

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9
Q

What drugs can exacerbate asthma?

A

Aspirin and other NSAIDs, Beta blockers and ACE inhibitors.

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10
Q

What are the pulmonary causes of clubbing?

A

Bronchial carcinoma, empyema, lung abscess, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis, asbestosis and some chronic pulmonary infections

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11
Q

What are the cardiac causes of clubbing?

A

Congenital cyanotic heart disease, tetralogy of fallot and bacterial endocarditis

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12
Q

What non pulmonary/cardiac causes of clubbing are there?

A

Idiopathic/familial, cirrhosis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease and coeliac disease.

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13
Q

Describe some of the features of severe exacerbations of asthma

A

Unable to complete sentences, tachycardia, tachypnoea and peak flow below 50% of predicted.

Life-Threatening asthma presents with silent chest, cyanosis, bradycardia, exhaustion, peak flow below 33% predicted and SATs below 92%.

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14
Q

What is the MRC (Medical Research Council) dyspnoea scale?

A

This describes the disability associated with breathlessness.

1 - Not troubled by breathlessness except on strenuous exercise
2 - Short of breath when walking fast on flat or walking up a slight incline
3 - Walks slower than most people on the level, stops after a mile or so or 15 minutes.
4 - Stops for breath after walking 100 yards or a few minutes on the flat
5 - Too breathless to leave the house or breathless when dressing

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15
Q

What does to NYHA score indicate? (New York Heart Association)

A

This is a score used to assess the severity of functional limitation in a patient with heart failure.

1 - Ordinary physical activity does not cause fatigue, breathlessness or palpitations (no limitation)
2 - Patients are comfortable at rest. Ordinary activity results in fatigue, palpitations, breathlessness, or chest pain. (Slight limitation)
3 - Although patients are comfortable at rest, less than ordinary activity will lead to symptoms (Marked limitation)
4 - Symptoms of congestive heart failure are present at rest and there is increased discomfort with any activity. (Severe limitation)

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16
Q

What are the important aspects of a fracture history?

A

Mechanism of injury, when, where and why.

Always check for locking, weakness, numbness and parenthesia.

Do they have conditions which predispose them to fractures such as Parkinson’s, Osteoporosis, alcoholism, diabetes, thyroid disease or epilepsy.

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17
Q

What drugs are important in an orthopaedic history?

A

Steroids, breast or prostate cancer treatments, anti-epiletics, progesterone only contraception and any drug which may cause falls.

Smoking, alcohol and recreational drugs will slow healing.

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18
Q

What system should be used to read an orthopaedic X-ray?

A
A - Adequacy, anatomy, alignment and asymmetry 
B - Bone density
C - Cartilage
D - Deformity
E - Erosions
S - Soft tissues
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19
Q

How should fractures be treated?

A

Emergency treatment is to work through the ATLS protocols. Pain control, assess NV status, soft tissues and wound status. If it is an open wound they will need the BAPRAS guidelines. Photograph, remove contaminants, clean with a sterile soaked gauze, relocate, splint, treat associated injuries and then radiograph.

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20
Q

How does non-inflammatory arthritis present?

A

This is mainly osteoarthritis and it presents with internal and periarticular derangements in the meniscus, ligaments, tendons and labrum. Neuropathic arthritis is seen in Charcot foot.

Osteoarthritis typically effects the hips, knees, neck and hands. There are symptoms of pain and stiffness which are worse on imitating movement and towards the end of the day. It will worsen with activity. Night pain is a bad sign and there is usually a history of gradual onset.

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21
Q

How does inflammatory arthritis present?

A

This is autoimmune including gout, psoriatic, reactive, ankylosing spondylitis or IBD associated. In rheumatoid there is obvious swelling and deformity of the finger joints.

Inflammatory osteoarthritis such as RA presents with significant early morning stiffness which improves with activity. There is often a symmetrical distribution and a history of an acute onset.

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22
Q

What are the red flag symptoms for arthritis?

A

Unremitting pain, systemic upset or a significant history of steroid use or cancer.

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23
Q

How does osteoarthritis present on X-ray?

A

Reduced joint space, asymmetrical, osteophytes, joint line sclerosis and subchondral cysts.

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24
Q

How should osteoarthritis be treated?

A

Pharmacology should only be offered if lifestyle changes have failed.

Paracetamol and then NSAIDs should be offered as first line. Topical diclofenac and intra-articular joint infections are more specific treatments. Oral steroids should NOT be given.

Surgical options include debridement, osteotomy, arthroplasty (joint replacement) and arthrodesis.

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25
Q

What is the recommended daily intake of sodium and water?

A

70-100mmol of sodium and 1.5-2.5 litres of water are recommended.

Normal serum osmolarity is 280+/- 15mmol/kg

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26
Q

Why is water and sodium retention common in acute illness?

A

The increased physiological stress causes increased ADH secretion and activation of the RAAS system.

The renal function is impaired because there is raised urea, AKI causing reduced GFR, hypokalaemia and increased capillary permeability which causes albumin to leak.

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27
Q

What is a crystalloid IV fluid?

A

Crystalloid solutions are low molecular weight, dissolve completely in water, pass freely between intravascular and interstitial space and carry a risk of interstitial oedema.

Examples include dextrose and plasmalyte.

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28
Q

What is a colloid IV fluid?

A

These solutions have a large molecular weight, do not completely dissolve in water, do not pass freely between intravascular and interstitial compartments and have a significant amount of sodium and chloride. These remain in the intravascular space for a long time.

Examples include Gelatine, albumin and gelofusine.

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29
Q

What are the dangers of IV fluids?

A

The water and sodium excess can cause AKI. Excess chloride also causes renal vasoconstriction which can progress to UTI and cause acute illness.

Normal saline has dangers including hyperchloraemic acidosis, AKI, oedema, reduced gastric blood flow, increased blood loss from wounds and prolonged postoperative recovery.

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30
Q

What are the indicators for IV fluid therapy?

A

Hypovoleamia: Systolic BP less than 100, tachycardia, cold peripheries, capillary refill time longer than 2 seconds, tachypneoic or NEWS over 5.

Balanced solutions should be used because colloids have been shown to have negative effects on these patients and saline is also considered unsafe. Dextrose is a viable option.

31
Q

What are the causes of upper GI bleeding?

A

Most common cause is peptic ulcer followed by oesophagitis. Neoplasms are unlikely and varicies account for 5%. Other causes include angiodysplasia, gastric astral vascular ectasia, hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, portal hypertensive gastropathy and aorta-duodenal fistula.

32
Q

What score is used to determine whether a endoscopy should be done?

A

Glasgow-Blatchford score

This takes into account Hb, blood urea nitrogen, initial systolic BP, sex, tachycardia, malena, recent syncope, hepatic disease and cardiac failure.

33
Q

How should an upper GI bleed be managed?

A

ABCDE (don’t forget glucose)

Bloods: FBC, U&Es, LFTs, INR, blood gas, glucose, group and save and cross match

Consider an endoscope, interventional radiology and surgical resection.

On endoscopy adrenaline injections are used at the site of the bleed and use a clip to mechanically block the bleeding. Thermal coagulation and hemospray are also endoscopic options.

Consider investigations for H pylori and subsequent eradication. PPIs may be appropriate and reduction of NSAIDs.

34
Q

What score is used to assess the mortality of a patient with oesophageal varicies?

A

The Child Pugh score. Usually mortality is around 20% within six weeks as this disease is only seen in cirrhotic patients with venous portal hypertension.

35
Q

What is the management for oesophageal varicies?

A

Fluid resuscitation, terlipressin, prophylactic antibiotics, endoscopy with band ligation and N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate.

Transjugular intrahepatic porto-systemic shunt (TIPSS) is used if ligation fails as this decompresses the varicies.

They will need surveillance and laxatives to prevent encephalopathy.

36
Q

What is meleana as a pose to haematochezia?

A

This is black, tarry stool that are associated with upper GI bleeding.

Haematochezia is the passage of fresh blood from the anus or black cherry coloured if started in the colon.

37
Q

At what anatomical point is an upper and lower GI bleed differentiated?

A

The ligament of Trietz defines the bend which separated the duodenum and the jejunum.

38
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for a lower GI bleed?

A

Ischaemic bowel disease, IBD, meckel’s diverticulum, angiodysplasia, diverticulitis, colonic carcinoma, rectosigmoid carcinoma, haemorrhoids and anal fissures. Infections such as campylobacter can also cause bleeding.

39
Q

How should a massive lower GI bleed be managed?

A

Bloods: FBC, iron studies and faecal calprotectin

Imaging: Flexible sigmoidoscopy, colonoscopy, CT colonoscopy, CT abdomen and MRI abdomen

Massive lower GI bleeds need to be resuscitated (crystalloid and then blood) and the bleeding needs to be stopped. The Oakland score should then be used to assess discharge planning.

40
Q

What are the four sub-types of irritable bowel disease?

A

IBS-A is alternating constipation and diarrhoea
IBS-B is bloating
IBS-C is constipation alone
IBS-D is diarrhoea alone

41
Q

How should IBS and IBD be differentiated?

A

IBS and IBD occur in younger people but can be differentiated with symptoms (blood only in IBD but mucus in both) and feacal cal-protection is a good indicator for under 40s.

42
Q

What are the symptoms of IBS?

A

This usually presents with disturbed bowel habits, pain and bloating. These will often occur after a meal. There may be trigger foods or stress and symptoms are often relieved by having a bowel movement. Blood on paper may indicate anal fissures.

IBS will have a normal faecal cal-protectin and a normal examination.

43
Q

What are the risk factors for IBS?

A

family history, diet, stress, previous campylobacter infection and antibiotic use

44
Q

How should IBS be treated?

A

FODMOP diet, gluten, stress, psychiatric intervention if stress related and symptomatic relief.

45
Q

Describe some of the epidemiological features of Crohn’s disease

A

Crohn’s occurs in younger people and is more common in smokers. There is often a family history and the disease is associated with western lifestyles.

The site of inflammation will determine the symptoms.

46
Q

What are the symptoms of Crohn’s disease?

A

Pain, diarrhoea, loose stool and pain in the RIF (if ileal). The pain is a constant ache (inflammation) or colicky (narrowing, stenosis or stricture).

If there is perianal disease there will be severe pain (abscesses), discharge and bleeding.

Constitution symptoms include fatigue, weight loss, ulcers, redness of the eyes, sore joints and erythematous nodosum.

47
Q

What investigations should be performed for Crohn’s?

A

Bloods: FBC, iron studies, B12, folate and vitamin D, CRP and LFTs

Faecal calprotectin is vital but not 100% specific.

Colonoscopy and small bowel imaging such as MR, CT or video capsule endoscopy.

48
Q

What are the complications of Crohn’s disease?

A

Stenosis, persistent inflammation, short bowel syndrome and fistulas involving the bladder or the vagina.

49
Q

What are the symptoms of ulcerative colitis?

A

It can present with diarrhoea and bleeding but this depends on the site involved. The more distal the site, the more likely blood will be present.

Constitutional symptoms include fatigue, weight loss, extra-intestinal manifestations such as ulcers, red eyes, joint pain and erythema nodosum.

The majority of disease is in the left colon. UC usually occurs in young people who are non-smokers. It is also associated with family history and western diet.

50
Q

What are the investigations for ulcerative colitis?

A

Bloods: FBC, iron, CRP and LFTS

Faecal calprotectin

Colonoscopy

51
Q

What is the treatment for ulcerative colitis?

A

Mesalazine and anti-inflammatories are the most common pharmacological intervention.

Other pharmacological agents include becalmethasone, prednisolone (severe) and hydrocortisone (very severe).

Immunosuppression for IBD is used when steroids fail or to give a break before the next dose of steroids. Azathioprine, allopurinol and methotrexate are used with caution.

Surgical options are local resection and colectomy.

52
Q

What are the risk factors for breast cancer?

A

Female, age, early menarche, nulliparous women, bottle feeding, delayed menopause, HRT, late age of first child, radiation exposure and alcohol.

Always remember obesity and BRCA1/2

53
Q

How should a breast complaint be investigated?

A

Triple assessment (Clinical, radiological and pathological).

Imaging should progress from mammogram, USS, MRI and finally a CT for systemic disease.

A core biopsy is used for histopathology.

54
Q

What are the benign causes of nipple discharge?

A

pregnancy, pituitary adenoma, mammary duct ectasia, intraductal papilloma, mastitis associated with staph aureus and lactational breast abscesses

55
Q

What is gynaecomastia and what are the causes?

A

This is hyperplasia of the stromal and ductal tissue of the male breast. It can be unilateral, concentric and tender.

Always exclude cancer (testicular and others) and then assess drug involvement such as warfarin, spironolactone and PPIs.

56
Q

What are the benign causes of breast lumps?

A

Fibroadenomas (are composed of connective tissue, they are firm, non-tender, hormone dependent and highly mobile), phyllodes tumours and sarcomas are rapidly growing benign tumours.

Breast cysts are common in over 35s and peri-menopause. They fluctuate with the menstrual cycle and will be well demarcated from the surrounding tissues. These should be treated with aspiration. Fibrocystic changes can also present with palpable masses.

57
Q

What are the red flags for breast cancer?

A

Lumps: Hard, irregular and any signs of tethering

Other signs include change in breast shape, distortion, ulceration, skin changes such as peau d’orange, inflammatory changes and nipple inversion.

Pain is not a common presenting symptom.

58
Q

What are the risk factors for colorectal cancer?

A

Western lifestyle, red meat, ulcerative colitis and other inflammatory conditions, FAP and HNPCC.

59
Q

How does colon cancer present?

A

Changes in bowel habit, mucus, bleeding (red or black), intestinal obstruction or perforation. There may be secondary deposits causing jaundice or abdominal distention. Systemic symptoms include anaemia, anorexia and weight loss.

Right sided tumours are less common, present with bleeding and weight loss, and are more aggressive because they are polypoid.

60
Q

How should colon cancer be investigated?

A

Bloods: FBC and CEA (a tumours marker which should only be used as a monitoring tool)

Sigmoidoscopy and colonoscopy. CT and MRI should be used for assessing spread.

61
Q

How should colorectal cancer be treated?

A

Surgery and adjuvant therapy. Palliative treatment is with chemotherapy, radiotherapy and symptomatic relief.

Resection of the rectum with anastomoses or resection of the colon and replaced with a colostomy is the main surgical treatment.

62
Q

What are the series of mutations seen in the vogelstein adenoma-carcinoma sequence?

A

APC - Small adenoma
RAS - Large adenoma
TGF-ß/P13K - Carcinoma

63
Q

What genes are MMR? (Mismatch repair)

A

MLH1, PNS2, MSH2 and MSH6.

MMR testing is mandatory for all colorectal carcinomas and should be done for patients with HNPCC.

Lynch causes loss of MSH2, PMS2 and MSH6

64
Q

What acute conditions are treated with NIV?

A

Type 2 respiratory failure with a respiratory acidosis (pH <7.35)

Causes include COPD exacerbations

65
Q

What acute conditions are treated with CPAP?

A

Type 1 respiratory failure like pulmonary oedema.

In chronic use it is seen in severe obstructive sleep apnoea.

66
Q

What rash is associated with coeliac disease?

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

67
Q

What rash is associated with lupus?

A

Dermatomyositis

This can also be paraneoplastic and is seen in lung cancer. Myositis can cause respiratory failure.

68
Q

How should a rash be described?

A

D - Distribution
C - Configuration
M - Morphology

69
Q

What is onycholysis?

A

Pitting of the nail and separation from the nail bed. This is a sign of psoriasis.

70
Q

What is lichenification?

A

Increased skin markings from chronic scratching.

71
Q

What are the characteristics of a basal cell carcinoma? (BCC)

A

Rolled edge, translucent or shinny and they often have a central depression.

Seborrhoeic keratosis are often mistaken for BCC as they have a warty appearance.

72
Q

What are the five differences between the JVP and the carotid artery?

A
  1. JVP has a double wave form
  2. JVP varies depending on patient position
  3. JVP descends with inspiration
  4. JVP can be occluded with pressure
  5. Hepatojugular reflex elevates the JVP
73
Q

What medications should a patient be put on post MI?

A

Statins, aspirin, clopidogrel, beta blockers and ACE inhibitors.

74
Q

What conditions is adenosine used for?

A

Treatment of supraventricular tachycardias of both broad and narrow complexes.