Academic Week 7 Flashcards

1
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

Cardiogenic shock is inability of the heart to circulate blood which causes tissue hypoxia. This is defined as a systolic BP under 90 with urine output lower than 20ml/hr and normal or elevated LV filling pressure. The pathophysiology is caused by reduced stroke volume.

Cardiogenic shock can be non-obstructive or obstructive. Non obstructive causes are MI, arrhythmia, acute valvular failure, acute VSD and drug overdose. Obstructive causes are tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, constrictive pericarditis, restrictive cardiomyopathy, and PE.

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2
Q

What is hypovolaemic shock?

A

Hypovolaemic shock is loss of over 20% of intravascular fluid volume which is classified as haemorrhagic or non-haemorrhagic. Haemorrhagic causes include trauma, GI bleed, aortic dissection and PPH whereas non-haemorrhagic causes include GI loss, burns, acute pancreatitis, and renal fluid loss such as adrenal insufficiency, salt wasting nephropathies and drug induced diuresis.

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3
Q

What is distributive shock?

A

Distributive shock is where there is capillary leakage and vasodilation causes. This is seen in sepsis, neurogenic shock, and anaphylactic shock. Sepsis is life-threatening organ dysfunction due to a dysregulated response to infection, septic shock is sepsis and low BP despite adequate fluid replacement.

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4
Q

What is neurogenic shock?

A

Neurogenic shock is autonomic failure (usually because of a brain injury) as the loss of sympathetic vascular tone causes peripheral dilation and hence distributive shock. The causes include traumatic brain injury, spinal cord injury, cerebral haemorrhage, poisoning and spinal anaesthesia. This is a rare cause of shock.

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5
Q

What is anaphylactic shock?

A

Anaphylactic shock is a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction characterised by systemic vasodilation and increased capillary leakage. Common causes are drug reactions, bee stings, food allergies and contrast medium.

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6
Q

How should cardiogenic shock be treated?

A
  • MI = PPCI, ACS treatment and diuretics
  • Arrythmias = cardioversion
  • Valvular failure = repair
  • Drug OD = Dependent on the drug
  • Tension pneumothorax = decompression
  • Tamponade = pericardiocentesis
  • PE = Anticoagulation and thrombolysis (altepase)
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7
Q

How is hypovolaemic shock treated?

A
  • Initial resuscitation
  • Blood
  • Haemostasis
  • Aggressive fluid for burns and pancreatitis
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8
Q

How is distributive shock treated?

A
  • Sepsis: Sepsis 6
  • Neurogenic: Atropine and vasopressors
  • Anaphylaxis: adrenaline IM, steroids and nebs
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9
Q

Define opiate and opioid

A

An opiate is a substance which produces morphine like effects (analgesia and euphoria) and can be blocked by antagonists such as naloxone. An opioid is used to describe synthetic morphine-like drugs with non-peptide structures. All opioids are considered opiates but not all opiates are opioids.

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10
Q

How do opioids work?

A

The mechanism of action is through inhibition of excitatory neurones which reduces pain. They also stimulate the descending inhibitory pathways which prevent pain transmission.

Opioids excite neurones in the periaqueductal grey matter (PAG) and the nucleus reticularis paragigantocellularis (NRPG). These actions lead to inhibitory effects on transmission from the dorsal horn. Opioids also have a direct inhibitory effect on the dorsal horn and peripheral terminals of nociceptive afferent neurones.

There are three receptors which mediate the main pharmacological effects of opiates:

  • U-receptors (Mu) are responsible for most of the analgesic effects and the main unwanted side effects
  • Ō receptors (delta) may contribute to the analgesic effects but more important in the periphery
  • K-receptors (kappa) contribute to analgesic effects at spinal level. Activity of these receptors produces few side effects and does not contribute to development of tolerance.

These are all g-protein coupled receptors. They inhibit adenylyl cyclase expression which reduces cAMP formation which in turn affects cell function. They also promote opening of potassium channels and inhibit opening of voltage gated calcium channels which reduces neuronal excitability and transmitter release. The overall effect is inhibition at a cellular level.

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11
Q

What is the antagonist to opioids?

A

Naloxone

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12
Q

What type of pain should opioids be used for?

A

Opioids are effective in both acute and chronic pain but are less useful in neuropathic pain. The main adverse effect is respiratory depression which is mediated by the action of u-receptors. Respiratory depression is associated with decrease in the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to CO2. One of the most troublesome side-effects of opioids and can occur at therapeutic doses.

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13
Q

What are the additonal side effects and therapeutic effects of opioids?

A

Pupil constriction is an adverse effect mediated by u and k receptor stimulation of the oculomotor muscles. Pinpoint pupils are an important diagnostic feature of opioid toxicity.

Reduced GI motility is an adverse effect because opioids increase tone and reduce motility in much of the GI tract leading to constipation. All three receptors are involved in reduced GI motility as the local effect of opioids on neurones in the myenteric plexus is inhibitory.

Euphoria is a therapeutic effect although it may factor in development of dependence. Opioids produce a strong feeling of contentment which helps to reduce anxiety and agitation associated with pain. This is mediated by u-receptors and balanced by the dysphoric effects of the k-receptor. This means the level of euphoria differs depending on the opioid.

Nausea and vomiting are related to chemical stimulation of the chemoreceptor trigger zone. It usually occurs are initiation or dose change.

Inhibition of the cough reflexes is a possible benefit and is especially seen in codeine, the mechanism of action for this is unclear. Itching is an adverse effect caused by histamine release from mast cells unrelated to action of the opioid receptors. Hypotension is another adverse effect which is thought to occur with large doses due to the action on the medulla.

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14
Q

How does tolerance develop to opioids?

A
  1. Opioids inhibit adenyl cyclase expression
  2. Leading to reduced cAMP formation
  3. A secondary rise in adenyl cyclase then occurs
  4. cAMP formation recovers in the presence of morphine
  5. Tolerance occurs
  6. Increased doses of opioid are required to achieve the same effect
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15
Q

How does naloxone work?

A

Naloxone is a short acting pure opioid antagonist with affinity for all 3 opioid receptors. It produces a rapid reversal of the effects of both endogenous and synthetic opioids. Clinical use is to treat respiratory depression resulting from opioid toxicity. Care should be taken as it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid addicts and chronic users. Naltrexone is a long-acting opioid antagonist which is used for previous opioid addicts who have been detoxified.

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16
Q

Define syncope

A

Syncope is defined as the sudden transient loss of consciousness and postural tone with spontaneous recovery. The loss of consciousness occurs within 10 seconds of hypoperfusion of the reticular activating system in the mid brain.

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17
Q

What is a syncopal prodrome?

A

Syncopal prodrome is common although loss of consciousness may occur without any warning symptoms. Typical presyncope symptoms include dizziness, light-headedness, faintness, weakness, fatigue, and visual/auditory disturbances.

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18
Q

What are the causes of syncope?

A

Syncope can be neurally mediated, orthostatic, cardiac arrhythmia, structural cardio-pulmonary or non-cardio-vascular.

Neural: Vasovagal, carotid sinus, situation such as cough or micturition
Orthostatic: Drug induced or autonomic nervous system failure
Cardiac arrhythmia: Brady (sick sinus and AV block) or Tachy (VT or SVT) or long QT syndrome.
Structural Cardio-pulmonary: Aortic stenosis, HOCM, pulmonary hypertension
Non-cardio-vascular: Psychological, hyperventilation or neurological

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19
Q

What are the causes of cardiac syncope?

A

Cardiac syncope is caused by severe obstruction to cardiac output or rhythm disturbance. Exertional syncope is a common manifestation of all types of heart disease in which output is fixed. Aortic stenosis is a fixed cardiac output cause of syncope. HOCM may present with VT. VT is the most common cause of cardiac syncope and generally occurs in known organic heart disease or long QT. It is unlikely for coronary artery disease to present with syncope.

Complete heart block can cause syncope and this is known as Stokes-Adam syndrome.

A trifascicular block is a combination of right bundle branch block, left anterior or posterior fascicular block and first AV block (prolonged PR interval). This is a precursor to complete heart block which can cause syncope.

In vasovagal syncope the normal sympathetic tone is inhibited which causes hypotension and bradycardia causing the syncope.

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20
Q

What is micturition syncope?

A

Micturition syncope is often seen in younger men after rising from the bed early in the morning and men who with sudden LOC during or immediately following voiding. The mechanism is similar to the vasovagal response caused by mechanoreceptors in the bladder. Risk factors include fatigue, alcohol, recent UTI or bladder pathology.

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21
Q

What is defaecation syncope?

A

Defaecation syncope usually occurs in older people and is caused by mechanoreceptors in the gut wall and risk factors include alcohol, fatigue, decreased food intake and GI pathology.

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22
Q

What is cough syncope?

A

Cough syncope usually follows a severe bout of coughing. The mechanism of syncope is through the pulmonary mechanoreceptors. The severe coughing increases intrathoracic pressure which decreases the venous return and thus cardiac output. Cough syncope may be related with Mobitz II and obstructive cardiomyopathy.

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23
Q

Describe carotid sinus hypersensitivity

A

Carotid sinus hypersensitivity presents with profound bradycardia and hypotension with compression of the carotid sinus in susceptible individuals. This causes spontaneous fainting in, usually, older men. The mechanism is through the carotid sinus and activating the parasympathetic and inhibiting the sympathetic tone through the vagal and sympathetic efferent fibres. There are three types including the cardioinhibitory type, vasodepressor type and mixed type.

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24
Q

What is orthostatic syncope?

A

Orthostatic syncope is a decline of systolic (>20) and diastolic (10) upon assuming an upright posture. This hypotension leads to light-headedness, blurring of vision, and weakness. These symptoms are usually worst in the morning, after meals or exercise.

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25
Q

What are the main neurological causes of syncope?

A

The main causes of neurological syncope are stroke and TIA which effect the vertebrobasilar system. Rarely it can be caused by an occlusion or stenosis of the subclavian artery. This is subclavian steel syndrome and syncope occurs upon raising the arms. Migraine related syncope is usually seen in young women and has a strong menstrual association.

26
Q

How can seizure and syncope be differentiated?

A

Seizures have a sudden onset, last minutes, often have a headache after, may be confused, may be incontinent, may have bitten their tongue and have a prodrome of an aura.

Syncope has a more gradual onset, lasts seconds, unlikely to be associated with headache, rarely have confusion, early incontinent, rarely bite their tongue and may have a prodrome of dizziness

27
Q

What are some of the investigations for syncope?

A

BP measurement should always be done both lying and standing to check for orthostatic hypotension. Lying measurement should be taken after 5 minutes. Consider a heart rate monitor such as a Holter monitor or a loop recorder. Holter is used for 24-48 hours and is useful to assess infrequent cardiac events. An event loop recorder is for patient who are aware of when the abnormality is about to occur so they can turn the recorder on.

A carotid sinus massage is done as part of the tilt test and should be done supine and upright and make sure not to occlude the carotids. Do not do if there is a history of stroke or recent MI. Any carotid disease may be serious. The head-up tilt test is used to reproduce the symptoms in a clinical setting.

Electrophysiological studies are indicated for patients where there is a suspicion of structural heart disease and unexplained syncope. This is especially useful for diagnosing sick sinus syndrome, heart block, SVT and VT.

28
Q

How should syncope be managed?

A

Treatment of syncope is aimed at preventing recurrences and reduce mortality risk. Arrhythmias are treated with cardiac pacemakers, physiological pacing, elimination of contributing drugs and catheter ablation in selected patients. Lifestyle changes such as caffeine, alcohol, and sugary drinks as these are hypotensive.

Pharmacological intervention for orthostatic hypotension is by expanding intravascular volume (Synthetic mineralocorticoid such as fludrocortisone) and increasing peripheral vascular resistance with midodrine (alpha 1 adrenoreceptor agonist) or droxidopa (which becomes norepinephrine in the body).

29
Q

How is arterial blood pressure defined and how is it maintained?

A

Arterial blood pressure is defined as the force exerted by the blood against the walls of the blood vessels. It must be adequate to maintain tissue perfusion during activity and at rest. This reflects cardiac output and vascular resistance.

Systemic arterial blood pressure is maintained by the CNS and kidneys. The optimal pressure is diastolic of less than 80 and systolic less than 120. CVS risk increases from 115/75. Increasing blood pressure is associated with a progressive increase in the risk of stroke and cardiovascular disease in an exponential pattern.

30
Q

How is systemic hypertension defined?

A

Systemic hypertension is currently defined as a usual BP of 140/90mmHg or higher, for which the benefits of drug treatment have been definitively established. This threshold is lower in patients who are at high risk and treatment is commenced at 130/80, especially if they have coronary artery disease or renal disease. Patients with isolated systolic hypertension also need to be treated.

31
Q

What is the likely pathology of primary hypertension in patients of different age groups?

A

Primary hypertension in under 40s is usually due to high RAAS and sympathetic activation whereas 40-60 is due to increased vascular resistance and over 60s is caused by increased arterial stiffness, reduced GFR and sodium retention. This informs which antihypertensives are recommended by NICE.

Increasing pulse pressure implies increasing stiffness in the large conduit arteries, primarily the thoracic aorta. Hypertension is associated with obesity, excess alcohol, excess salt intake, lack of exercise and environmental stress.

32
Q

How should a patient with hypertension be examined and investigated?

A

When examining a patient with hypertension take BP in both arms, examine the eyes, calculate the BMI and waist circumference, auscultate the heart, lung, carotids, aorta, and femoral areas. Also palpate the thyroid gland, perform a thorough examination of the heart and lungs, and lowers extremities for oedema and pulses.

Investigations for primary hypertension are fasting blood glucose, complete blood count, lipid profile, serum creatinine with eGFR, serum sodium, serum potassium, serum calcium, TSH, urinalysis and an ECG. Optional tests include ECHO, uric acid and urinary albumin to creatinine ratio.

33
Q

What does CHAPS stand for in secondary hypertension?

A
C: Cushing’s
H: Hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s)
A: Aorta Coarctation
P: Phaeochromocytoma
S: Stenosis of renal arteries

Other causes include drug reactions such as NSAIDs, oestrogens, mineralocorticoids, antiparkinsonians, anabolic steroids, and amphetamines. Thyroid causes, hyperparathyroidism and acromegaly can also cause secondary hypertension.

34
Q

How should secondary hypertension be investigated?

A

Investigations for phaeochromocytoma include urinary catecholamine metabolites (24 hours) and plasma free metanephrines. Hyperparathyroidism should be investigated with serum calcium and PTH whereas acromegaly should be investigated with growth hormones levels. Erythropoietin use in renal disease is likely to cause secondary hypertension. Aldosteronism should be investigated with a aldosterone: renin ratio and a CT scan of the adrenal glands.

OSA, renal parenchymal disease and renovascular disease are very rare causes of secondary hypertension.

BP measurement: This should be measured twice after 5 minutes of rest and the patient should be seated in a chair. Tobacco and caffeine should be avoided for at least 30 minutes. The patients should have their standing BP taken after 3 minutes of standing. Postural hypotension should always be checked before starting an antihypertensive.

35
Q

What are the risk factors for hypertension?

A

Modifiable cardiovascular risk factors include current cigarette smoking, diabetes, dyslipidaemia, hypercholesterolaemia, obesity, inactivity, and diet.

Non-modifiable risk factors include CKD, family history, increased age, low economic status, male sex, OSA and psychosocial stress.

36
Q

Which anti-hypertensives can be used in pregnancy?

A

Antihypertensives that should be used in pregnancy include hydralazine, Nifedipine, labetalol (not in first trimester) and Methyldopa.

37
Q

Define palpitations

A

Palpitations are defined as a thumping, pounding or fluttering sensation in the chest. This can be intermittent or sustained and either regular or irregular. Often noticed when patient is quietly resting and described as missed or skipped beats. This is also known as an uncomfortable awareness of heartbeat or undue awareness of heart action.

In terms of pathophysiology this is an alteration in heart rate, heart rhythm, augmentation of myocardial contraction and many palpitations are only seen in panic attacks with psychopathology.

38
Q

How can the features of palpitations be used in diagnosis?

A
  1. Missed or thumping indicates ectopic beats
  2. Very fast and regular = SVT or VT
  3. Sudden onset = SVT or VT
  4. Offset with vagal manoeuvres = SVT
  5. Fast and irregular = AF or Flutter
  6. Severe dizziness or syncope = VT or Brady-arryhthmia
39
Q

What structural conditions can cause palpitations?

A

Structural conditions associated with palpitations include reduced EF, valvular heart disease, congenital heart disease, mitral valve prolapse, atrial myxoma, hypertension and pacemaker induced tachycardia.

40
Q

What are the miscellaneous causes of palpitations?

A
  • Hyperkinetic circulatory states: Fever, anaemia, thyrotoxicosis, hypoglycaemia and phaeochromocytoma
  • Drugs: Thyroxine, anti-depressants, and vasodilators
  • Caffeine, cocaine, amphetamines, alcohol, and tobacco
  • Physiological: Pregnancy and spontaneous muscle contractions of the chest wall
41
Q

What are the red flags for palpitations?

A
  1. Patient with IHD and/or LV dysfunction are at greater risk of ventricular arrhythmias
  2. Associated symptoms of syncope, pre-syncope or light-headedness supports potential ventricular arrhythmias
  3. Other associated symptoms of chest pain, breathlessness, polyuria or sweating
  4. Precipitating factors of exercise, stress, alcohol, and drugs
  5. Associated IHD or valvular heart disease
42
Q

How should palpitations be investigated?

A
  • Blood tests
  • ECHO
  • Further imaging with a HOLTER monitor or a LOOP recorder for infrequent arrhythmia
  • Does the arrhythmia need to be induced with a treadmill or adrenaline?
43
Q

Which arrhythmias can be ablated?

A

Supra-ventricular tachycardia, Wolff-Parkinson-White, Atrial Flutter, Atrial Fibrillation, Atrial tachycardia, and Ventricular tachycardia.

44
Q

How should AF be treated?

A

Treatment for AF include beta blockers or calcium channel blockers for rate control, cardioversion is an option, anticoagulation, CHA2DS2-VASc score for congestive heart failure and assess for a murmur with an ECHO.

AF with symptomatic rigid ventricular rate unresponsive to drug therapy or when drugs are not tolerated should be ablated and then paced. AF and bradycardia are also suitable for pacing as well and when curable AF is not suitable or possible.

45
Q

What are the three types of heart failure?

A

There are three types of heart failure:

  • HFrEF – reduced ejection fraction
  • HFpEF – preserved ejection fraction
  • HFmREF – mid-range ejection fraction

Ejection fraction is correlated to mortality in heart failure, but preserved ejection fraction does not mean a preserved cardiac output.

46
Q

provide an overview of the pathology of heart failure

A

Heart failure begins with diastolic dysfunction which is often missed. This increases the end diastolic pressure in the left ventricle and thus promotes pulmonary congestion, hypoxia, and ischaemia. Heart failure is a systemic disorder, and all aspects should be examined including appetite (gut oedema), peripheral oedema, nephrotic syndromes, and breathlessness. Hepatic congestion and hepatic ischaemia contribute to pre-renal failure.

47
Q

How should heart failure be assessed after diagnosis?

A
  • Renal: Na/K/Urea/Creatinine/eGFR
  • Hepatic: Bilirubin/ALT/ALP/albumin
  • Inflammatory/infection: CRP
  • Others: FBC/PLT/WCC
  • Weight, urine chart, assess for arrhythmias and rarely an arterial line may be needed

Imaging is with ECHO for assessment of LV function, valve 9acute decompensation), effusion, tamponade, VSD, chordae rupture and other pathologies.

48
Q

How should heart failure be treated?

A

Lifestyle changes with fluid restriction and dietary change such as avoiding fruit, caffeine, soup, and cereal. Dietician input is useful for salt intake and alcohol behaviour. Cardiac rehabilitation is beneficial. Psychological impact should never be ignored. Devices such as pacemakers and ICD can be offered alongside medication and lifestyle changes.

Pharmacological treatment is with diuretics (symptomatic relief), ACE/ARB, BB and MRA (mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists such as spironolactone). This is triple therapy. IV iron replacement, hydralazine, anticoagulants, and anti-arrhythmic drugs may also be required.

Diuretics in HF: Loop diuretics such as frusemide are used initially. These are protein bound drugs, so lack of protein means less effect. CKD therefore is a major factor as there are less tubules for frusemide to work upon. A small dose of thiazide diuretic will improve this effect.

The only definitive treatment is a heart and lung transplant. These are not perfect and immunosuppression means the median survival is 12 years.

49
Q

What are the main causes of chest pain?

A
  • Cardiac: MI, pericarditis, myocarditis, endocarditis, aortic dissection, and MVP
  • Pulmonary: Pneumonia, pleurisy, PE and tension pneumothorax
  • MSK: Trauma, fracture, metastases
  • GI: Gastritis, oesophagitis, PUD, oesophageal rupture, cholecystitis and pancreatitis
  • Others: Muscular pain, arthritis and radiculopathy
50
Q

What are the ECG changes in NSTEMI?

A

ECG changes in an NSTEMI are new horizontal or down sloping ST depression in two contiguous leads and/or T inversion in two contiguous leads.

51
Q

What is the GRACE score?

A

The GRACE score incorporates age, HR, BP, creatinine, and heart failure class, features of cardiac arrest, ST-segment deviation, and elevated cardiac enzymes. This assesses the risk of death within the next 6 months and in hospital.

52
Q

What is a classical presentation of pericarditis?

A

Remember widespread ST concave elevation with PR depression is likely pericarditis. The pain is usually worse when lying flat and with inspiration.

53
Q

Describe, in detail, the common causes of stable chest pain

A

Angina is a symptom of myocardial ischaemia that is recognised clinically by its character, location, and ability to be provoked. Angina is usually caused by obstructive CAD that is restricting oxygen delivery to cardiac myocytes. Asymptomatic patients may have collateral blood supplies, the stenosis may only affect a small area of the myocardium or there is an old infarction in the area of the stenosis.

Syndrome X is angina without epicardial CAD. Angina with evidence of ischaemia but angiography is normal. This is a diagnosis of exclusion and is microvascular ischaemia and should be treated with vasodilating drugs.

Stable angina is most likely in males of increasing age. Other cardiovascular risk factors include smoking, diabetes, hypertension, dyslipidaemia, family history, other CVS disease and a history of established CAD.

Angina is unlikely in prolonged chest pain, unrelated to activity and brought on by breathing. It is also less likely in patients with additional symptoms of dizziness, palpitations, tingling or dysphagia.

54
Q

How should stable angina be investigated?

A

Initial investigations for stable angina are FBC (anaemia), U&Es, TFTs, glucose, ECG and CXR if alternative diagnosis is suspected. First line is a CT coronary angiogram, then non-invasive functional testing, and finally invasive coronary angiography.

55
Q

Where is the femoral pulse felt?

A

The femoral artery is halfway between the ASIS and the pubic tubercule.

56
Q

How are aortic dissections classified?

A

There are two ways to categorise aortic dissection:
Stanford:
- Type A – Dissection involving arch
- Type B – Not involving arch

Debakey:

  • Type 1 – Full length of the aorta including the arch and bifurcation
  • Type 2 – Only arch
  • Type 3 – Only the descending aorta

Chronic aortic dissection presents with vague non-specific symptoms. Congenital long QT syndrome is associated with SCN5A… which is a mutation in a sodium transporter in the cardiac cycle.

57
Q

To whom is breast screening offered?

A

Breast screening is offered to all women aged 47-70 every three years with mammography.

58
Q

To whom is cervical screening offered?

A

This is offered to all women between 25-64 and consists of a smear test. 25-49 every three years and 50-64 every 5 years. This tests for HPV and cytology and may result in colposcopy If needed.

59
Q

To whom is bowel cancer screening offered to?

A

60-74 home kit stool sample test which is tested for blood. This is done every two years and if this is positive, they will be referred for a colonoscopy. FIT (faecal immunochemical test) is performed.

60
Q

To whom is AAA screening offered to?

A

Offered to all men aged 65 for an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. If AAA is less than three centimetres then no follow up, larger than 5.5 needs surgery, in between needs follow up.

61
Q

What are the key blood tests to diagnose diabetes?

A

A HbA1c over 48 needs to have a repeat test before diabetes is diagnosed. Fasting glucose over 7 or random/2 hour greater than 11.1.

62
Q

How should different hip fractures be managed surgically?

A

Intracapsular:

  1. Minimally or non-displaced intracapsular fractures (Gardens I/II) – Cannulated hip screws
  2. Displaced intra-capsular fractures (Gardens III/IV) – Hemi-arthroplasty or total hip replacement
  3. Total Hip Replacements are offered to patients who are able to walk independently outside with no more than the use of a stick, they have no cognitive impairment and are medically fit for the procedure
  4. Intertrochanteric fractures should be managed with a dynamic hip screw or intra-medullary nail
  5. Subtrochanteric fractures tend to be managed with intra-medullary nails