Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

If O2 sats are below 90, do

A

ABG

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2
Q

Normal bicarb =

A

24

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3
Q

Cardiac output =

A

Stroke volume x Heart rate

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4
Q

Stroke volume =

A

End Diastolic Volume - End Systolic Volume

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5
Q

Total peripheral resistance =

A

Mean arterial pressure - Mean venous pressure

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6
Q

Blood pressure =

A

Cardiac Output x Total Peripheral Resistance

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7
Q

Immediately perform __ in pericardial tamponade

A

pericardiocentesis

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8
Q

In preparation for immediate exploratory laparotomy, do a bunch of things simultaneously:

A
2 large bore IV lines
Type and cross
Give fluids and blood
Insert foley
Administer IV antibiotics
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9
Q

Surgery is always done for ___ head injuries, even if the patient is asymptomatic!

A

comminuted or depressed skull fracture

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10
Q

All patients with open skull fractures should receive

A

tetanus toxoid and prophylactic antibiotics

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11
Q

Management of basal skull fracture =

A

CT scan of head/nec
CSF leak sill stop by itself
Facial palsy may occur 2-3 days later

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12
Q

All epidermal hematomas require

A

emergency craniotomy

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13
Q

Epidural hematoma = injury to

A

middle meningeal artery

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14
Q

Subdural hematoma = injury to

A

bridging veins

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15
Q

Only do an emergency craniotomy in case of subdural hematoma if

A

there are lateralizing signs and midline displacement

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16
Q

Surgery cannot help in this head injury that is caused by acceleration-deceleration injuries to the head

A

diffuse axonal injury

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17
Q

Gradual dilatation of one pupil and a decreasing responsiveness to light is an important sign of

A

elevating intracranial pressure

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18
Q

DO NOT EVER DO THIS

A

perform an LP before getting a head CT. If you perform a lumbar puncture on a person with increased intracranial pressure, you will HERNIATE THE BRAIN, KILL THE PATIENT, GET CHLAMYDIA AND DIE.

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19
Q

Hyperventilation causes vaso___ and decreased blood volume in the brain, causing ICP to ___

A

constriction; lower ICP

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20
Q

First line measures for high ICP are

A

elevated head of bed
hyperventilation
avoid fluid overload

second line: mannitol, sedation/hypothermia

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21
Q

Anisocoria =

A

unequal size of pupils

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22
Q

When is surgery the answer for acute abdomen?

A

Peritonitis
Abdominal pain/tenderness plus sepsis signs
Pneumoperitoneum
Acute intestinal ischemia

rule out pancreatitis first

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23
Q

Treatment for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is

A

immediate paracentesis; diagnosis is made when fluid contains neutrophils greater than 250 cells per cubed mm

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24
Q

Treat SBP with

A

ceftriaxone and albumin at 1.5g/kg on day 1 and day 3 of hospitalization

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25
First study of choice for esophageal perforation is
gastrografin contrast esophagram
26
Most accurate test for adult with GI obstruction is
CT scan of abdomen and pelvis with contrast
27
When diagnosing acute diverticulitis, don't forget to order
a pregnancy test in women of reproductive age!
28
___ is absolutely contraindicated in acute diverticulitis
Colonoscopy
29
When palpation of the LLQ causes pain n the RLQ, think
acute appendicitis (Rovsing's sign)
30
It's important to administer ___ before appendectomy
IV antibiotics: - cipro and metronidazole - ampicillin/sulbactam - levofloxacin and clinda - cefoxitin or cefotetan
31
If chronic UC has been present for more than 20 years, ___ is indicated
elective surgery | also if high dose chronic steroids are needed or toxic megacolon is present
32
What three major GI arteries arising from the abd aorta supply the gut?
celiac axis, the SMA, and the IMA SMA is most commonly affected by ischemia
33
The best initial and most accurate test for ischemic colitis is
CT abdomen showing thickening of the bowel in a segmental pattern
34
Therapy for ischemia colitis
IV fluid hydration and bowel rest
35
In chronic mesenteric ischemia, ___ is both therapeutic and diagnostic
computed tomography angiography
36
Development of symptoms (postprandial abd pain, unrelenting nausea, anorexia, weight loss) after a recent dramatic weight loss
Median Arcuate Ligament Syndrome treat by surgical decompression of the celiac artery
37
Always do what to an intra-abdominal abscess?
Drain it!
38
Which two ducts merge to form the common bile duct?
Common hepatic duct and Cystic duct
39
CT scan of obstructive jaundice caused by a tumor will show
double duct sign (aka simultaneous dilatation of both the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct)
40
Treat acute cholecystitis is
``` NG suction NPO IV fluids antibiotics then cholecystectomy after 6-12 weeks ```
41
Reynold's pentad:
``` jaundice RUQ pain fever AMS shock ```
42
Treat acute ascending cholangitis with
IV antibiotics Emergency decompression of the common duct ERCP or percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram Surgery isn't often necessary
43
The most accurate test for fecal incontinence is
anorectal manometry
44
Do not perform surgery in patients with multiple
derangements in hepatic risk factors
45
The most lethal cause of post-op disorientation if not recognized and treated early is
hypoxia, so order an ABG
46
The leakage of fecal, gastric, or duodenal contents to the outside opstoperatively is ___
not an indication for emergency surgery! observe stable patients
47
Manage malignant hyperthermia by
IV dantrolene, 100% O2, acidosis correction, cooling blankets watching for development of myoglobinuria
48
Manage bacteremia and fever >104 with
blood cultures x3 and empiric abx
49
The most important step before surgery at birth is
check for congenital anomalies and look for VACTERL constellation
50
If excessive salivation or chocking spells are noted shortly after birth, it could be
esophageal atresia
51
What causes esophageal atresia?
Ventrally displaced location of the notochord in an embryo
52
Confirm diagnosis of esophageal atresia with
NG tube, which becomes coiled in the upper chest on x-ray
53
If anal atresia is suspected, look for
a fistula nearby; if no fistula present, perform a colostomy
54
The primary abnormality of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is
hypoplastic lung with fetal type circulation
55
Treat CDH with
endotracheal intubation low pressure ventilation sedation NG suction
56
Where is the defect in gastroschisis?
To the right of the umbilical cord due to failure of neural crest cells to migrate
57
Incomplete fusion during the fourth week of development results in
omphalocele
58
Which trisomies are a/w omphalocele?
Edwards syndrome and Patau syndrome
59
Exstrophy of the urinary bladder requires
Surgical repair in the first 1-2 days of life! Transfer to a specialized center
60
What can present with double bubble sign?
Annular pancreas malrotation duodenal atresia
61
Intestinal atresia is not associated with
other congenital abnormalities
62
A sign of sepsis in newborns is
rapidly dropping platelet count
63
The most common pathogens in necrotizing enterocolitis are
E. coli and Klebsiella pneumonia
64
Feeding intolerance + bilious vomiting + CF =
meconium ileus
65
In meconium ileus, ___ is both diagnostic and therapeutic
gastrografin enema
66
Diagnose hypertrophic pyloric stenosis with
sonogram showing target sign
67
Treat pyloric stenosis by
first correcting metabolic abnormalities and dehydration, then performing a pyloromyotomy
68
Persistent progressively increasing jaundice in 6-8 week old babies =
biliary atresia
69
Treat biliary atresia with
HIDA scan after 1 week of phenobarbital, then surgery if that doesn't work
70
diagnose Hirschsprung Disease with
full-thickness biopsy of rectal mucosa
71
When does intussusception show up?
6-12 months of age, chubby healthy looking kids with brief episodes of colicky abdominal pain
72
Lower GI bleeding in a child of pediatric age =
Meckel diverticulum
73
When a fracture is suspected, order
2 views at 90 degrees to one another and always include the joints above and below the broken bone
74
When a fracture is displaced severely or angulated or cannot be aligned, what should you do?
Open reduction and internal fixation
75
When does an open fracture need to be reduced?
within 6 hours from time of injury
76
Neuro dysfunction, petechial rash, respiratory distress, fracture =
fat embolism
77
Fixing a long-bone fracture within ___ reduces the incidence of respiratory distress from embolic phenomena
24 hours
78
Which type of shoulder dislocation is possible in a patient with a recent seizure?
Posterior shoulder dislocations. Otherwise, anterior shoulder dislocations are the most common
79
What type of xray should you order in a patient with a recent seizure and shoulder pain?
axillary or scapular views of the affected shoulder
80
Painful wrist + dinner fork deformity =
Colle's fracture
81
Direct blow to the ulna or radius results in a combo __ and __ fracture
diaphyseal and displaced dislocation. Treat w/ ORIF
82
Suspected scaphoid fracture, treat w/
thumb spica cast
83
Treat femoral neck fractures with
femoral head replacement
84
Intertrochanteric fractures are treated with
open reduction and pinning
85
Femoral shaft fractures are treated with
intramedullary rod fixation
86
Posterior dislocation of the hip (knees hit dashboard in MVA) =
orthopedic emergency! Leg is internally rotated and shortened
87
Symptoms caused by tapping the nerve over the flexor retinaculum and awaiting parasthesias =
Tinel's sign for CTS
88
Flexing the wrist gently and holding the position =
Phalen's test for CTS
89
Signs of a __ injury include inability to dorsiflex (extend) the wrist
oblique distal humerus, complicated by radial nerve paralysis
90
The most important intervention for a urologic obstruction is
a ureteral stent or percutaneous nephrostomy
91
A child who has hematuria from a trivial trauma has ___ until proven otherwise
undiagnosed congenital urologic anomaly
92
A teenager drinks large volumes of beer and develops colicky flank pain
Ureteropelvic Junction Obstruction | -only symptomatic with diuretics
93
Treat subclavian steal syndrome with
bypass surgery
94
Classic symptoms of subclavian steal syndrome are
visual symptoms, equilibrium problems, and claudication in the arm during arm exercises