Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

Extra intestinal features of IBD inc disease activity ones

A
  • anterior uveitis
  • primary sclerosing cholangitis
  • pyoderma gangrenosum
  • finger clubbing

disease activity:
- arthritis
- episcleritis
- erythema nodosum
- osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sigmoid vs caecal volvulus and mx of each

A

Sigmoid: coffee bean sign + large bowel obstruction
Caecal: embryo sign + small bowel obstruction

If caecal operative surgery, if sigmoid endoscopic decompression via rectal tube insertion + sigmoidoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Symptoms and signs of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Symptoms:
- RUQ pain
- pruritus
- B symptoms

Signs:
- jaundice
- bruising
- confusion
- hepatomegaly
- ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Management of upper gi bleeds: supportive, variceal, non variceal, PUD

A
  • Supportive: iv fluids, transfusion, analgesia, endoscopy within 24 hours
  • Variceal: terlipressin, abx quinolone, endoscopy + ligation, if doesn’t work then transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt, if still not then sengstaken tube. Prophylaxis via propranolol
  • Non variceal: ppi
  • PUD: adrenaline injections, cauterisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pancreatic cancer symptoms + signs + ix vs cholangiocarcinoma

A

Pancreatic:
- Symptoms: pruritus, weight loss, abdo pain, diabetes, pancreatitis
- Signs: painless jaundice, abdo mass (hepatomeg if mets, enlarged gb, epigastric mass), steatorrhoea, migratory thrombophlebitis (trousseau sign)
- Ix: LFTs (cholestatic pic so inc ALP/yGGT), Ca199, USS abdo, gold standard HRCT shows dilated CBD + pancreatic ducts so double duct sign)

Cholangiocarcinoma:
- Symptoms: persistent biliary colic, anorexia, abdo pain, steatorrhoea, pruritus
- Signs: jaundice, enlarged gb, periumbilical lymphadenopathy (sister Mary Josephs nodes), virchows node
- Ix: LFTs (cholestatic so inc ALP/yGGT), ca199, uss, MRCP gold standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Symptoms and signs of gastric cancer

A

Symptoms:
- early satiety
- abdo pain
- melena
- n+v
- b symptoms

Signs:
- left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy (trosiers sign)
- acanthosis nigricans
- epigastric mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ottawa rules to have an Ankle xray

A

medial or lateral malleolus tenderness
inability to walk 4 steps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Knee injuries:
- meniscal injury
- collateral injury
- cruciate injury

A
  • meniscal: twisting and weight bearing injury where medial more prone. Symptoms worst when straightening knee. Apleys test +
  • collateral: side of knee contact injury with mcl more common
  • cruciate: ACL more common and needs surgical reconstruction. Lachmans + and drawers test. PCL when dashboard injury and post sag sign and drawers test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Causes of post operative pyrexia

A

0-5 days: uti, pneumonia, skin infection
>5 days: vte, wound infection, anastomotic leak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Risk factors for post operative ileus

A

Intestinal handling
Decreased post op movement
Opioids
Electrolyte abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What’s in qSOFA score

A

rr>21
altered mental state
sys bp <100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What diabetic medications do we omit day of surgery

A

metformin (lunch time dose)
gliflozins
sulfonylureas (morning dose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is in WHO checklist

A

Patient has confirmed: Site, identity, procedure, consent
Site is marked
Anaesthesia safety check completed
Pulse oximeter is on patient and functioning
Does the patient have a known allergy?
Is there a difficult airway/aspiration risk?
Is there a risk of > 500ml blood loss (7ml/kg in children)?

1) Before the induction of anaesthesia (sign in)
2) Before the incision of the skin (time out)
3) Before the patient leaves the operating room (sign out)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

IV anaesthetics
- propofol
- thiopental
- etomidate
- ketamine

A
  • propofol: painful injection, hypotension. Also antiemetic effects
  • thiopental: laryngospasm
  • etomidate: adrenal suppression, myoclonus. Used if haem instability as doesn’t cause hypotension
  • Ketamine: hallucinations, also used in haem instability as doesn’t cause reduction in bp
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inhaled anaesthetics:
- isoflurane/sevoflurance
- nitrous oxide

A
  • isof: myocardial depression, malig hyperthermia
  • NO: don’t use in pneumothorax
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Local anaesthetics:
- lidocaine
- cocaine
- bupivacaine

A
  • lidocaine: arrhythmia. Treat toxicity with 20% lipid emulsion
  • cocaine: arrythmias, tachycardia
  • bupivacaine: long duration action, cardiotoxic

Can add adrenaline to these drugs to prolong duration action. Contraind if MAOIs/TCAs or use on extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Muscle relaxants:
- suxamethonium
- atracurium

A
  • suxamethonium: fast onset + short duration action. Hyperkal, malig hyperthermia, apnoea if lack of acetylcholinesterase. Can’t use if eye problems as can inc IOP
  • atracurium: lasts 30 mins, reverse by neostigmine. Facial flushing, tachyc, hypotension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ASA grades

A

1 - normal
2 - mild disease, smoker, social drinker, bmi 30-40
3 - functional limitations/poorly controlled, bmi >40
4 - <3 months cvs accident
5 - likely to die without operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Drugs which cause pancreatitis

A

azathioprine
mesalazine
bendroflumethiazide
furosemide
steroids
sodium valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How to distinguish PAD from spinal stenosis

A

Stenosis pain better walking uphill/leaning forwards
Bicycle test to distinguish - if symptoms present then not spinal stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Simmonds triad (achilles tendon rupture)

A

Palpate
Examine angle of declination at rest
Calf squeeze test

Needs orthodontist referral!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

First line vs gold standard for perianal abscesses

A

1st line: clinical dre
gold: transperineal uss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Management for discitis

A

8 weeks IV abx
ECHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How to tell difference between biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis

A

biliary colic: ruq pain worse after eating only
acute cholecystitis: fever, murphys sign + (when hand on gb ask them to breath in and they stop bc of pain)
ascending cholangitis: also jaundice, hypotension, confusion. Deranged LFTs (inc ALP/yggt)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

First line for gallstones
Gold standard

A

1st line: USS
Gold: MRCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Main blood finding in mesenteric infarction

A

High lactate / wcc

Needs urgent surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

1st line mx for wound dehiscence
Definitive

A

1st line: cover with sterile gauze, Iv abx, iv fluids, analgesia
gold s: theatre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common fractures causing compartment syndrome

A

tibial
suprachondylar (humerus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Location of hernias:
- umbilical
- paraumbilical
- epigastric
- spigelian
- richters

A
  • umbilical: under umbilicus
  • paraumbilical: asymmetrical directly above or below umbilicus
  • epigastric: midline between umbilical and xiphisternum
  • Spigelian: semilunar line
  • Richters: strangulation without bowel obstruction symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bilious vomiting in neonates differentials

A

Nec enterocolitis: 2nd week life
Meconium ileus: 48 hours post, DISTENSION + bilious vomiting
Intestinal atresia: uss, vomit straight after foods
Malrotation: 7 days post, ladds procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Medical diseases needing circumcision

A

phimosis
recurrent balanitis
balanitis xerotica obliterans
paraphimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Management for prostate cancer - local vs mets

A

Local: watchful wait, active surveillance, prostatectomy, external beam radiotherapy, brachytherapy

Mets: ghrh agonists goserelin + cyproterone acetate 3 days before to reduce tumour flare, or bicalutamide androgen rec blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Gold standard ix for renal cell carcinoma

A

CT abdo pelvis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Most common type of renal cell carcinoma

A

clear cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Management for colitis vs crohns

A

colitis:
induce remission: rectal mesalazine, 4 weeks after oral mesalazine, pred. If severe and on IV hydrocortisone and if doesn’t work add on Ciclosporin

Crohns:
induce remission: pred
maintenance: stop smoking, azathioprine, mercaptopurine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Monteggia fracture
Bennetts fracture
Galeazzi fracture
Bartons fracture

A

Monteggia fracture: ulnar fracture + radioulnar dislocation
Bennetts fracture: thumb metacarpal fracture
Galeazzi fracture: radial shaft fracture + radioulnar dislocation
Bartons fracture: colles/smiths with radiocarpal dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ix and mx for suspected renal stones in pregnant woman

A

USS
ureteroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CT scan within 1 hour vs 8 hours criteria

A

1 hour: >1 episode vomiting, suspected fracture, gas <13, seizure, neuro deficit

8 hours: >65, anticoags, dangerous injury, >30 mins amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What kidney stones can you see on xray vs can’t
Which stones are alkaline and which is acidic

A

Can see opaque on xray: calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, struvite

Can’t see radiolucent ones: urate, cystine

Alkaline: stuvite
Uric acid: acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When to send off MSU for uti

A

> 65
hematuria
preg
male
child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Haematuria ix for visible vs non visible

A

if visible + luts and suspect bladder then cystoscopy
if visible and not sure what it is then uss
if visible and suspect rcc then ct urogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Forced eversion vs inversion ankle injury

A

Inversion: anterior talofibular ligament sprain

Eversion: deltoid ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

First line ix for PAD
Gold s

A

1st line: duplex USS
Gold s: CT angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

First line ix for acute limb ischaemia
Gold s

A

1st line: handheld doppler arterial uss
gold s: CT angiogram

45
Q

Age for abdominal USS screening

46
Q

When to do endovascular revascularisation (angioplasty + stent) vs surgical revascularisation (bypass, endarterectomy)

A

endovasc revasc: short segment stenosis <10cm, aortic iliac disease, high risk patients

surgical: long segment lesions >10cm, multifocal lesions, common femoral artery, infrapopliteal

47
Q

Management of superficial thrombophlebitis

A

compression stockings
lmwh 30 days (if contraindicated then 8-12 days oral nsaids)

48
Q

Management for carotid artery disease

A

dual anti platelet - clopidogrel and aspirin
carotid endarterectomy If stenosis >50% + SYMPTOMS

Needs carotid duplex uss or ct angiography

49
Q

Leriche syndrome triad of symptoms

A

ED, buttock pain, absent femoral pulses/atrophy of legs

50
Q

Symptoms buergers disease

A

25-35 year old man who smokes
painful blue fingers + ulcers

51
Q

Nipple eczema vs pagets disease

A

nipple eczema starts at areolar then involves nipple

paget is nipple first then areola

52
Q

Side effects of hormonal breast cancer treatment

A

Tamoxifen (ER antagonism, pre menopausal) : hot flushes, endometrial cancer

Anastrozole (aromatase inhibitor reduces oestrogen synthesis, post): osteoporosis, arthralgia

Trastuzumab Herceptin

53
Q

Fat necrosis sign on USS
Breast cyst sign

A

Fat: hyper echoic
Cyst: halo

54
Q

Symptoms of mammary duct ectasia vs intraductal papilloma

A

Ectasia: post meno yellow discharge
Papilloma: pre meno bloody discharge

55
Q

Risk factors for testicular cancer

A

undescended testes,
fx
infertility
Klinefelter’s syndrome
mumps orchitis

56
Q

What to prescribe if mixed voiding and storage symptoms in man who hasn’t responded to alpha blocker tamsulosin

A

tolterodine
darifenacin

57
Q

Test to find out function of pancreas in chronic pancreatitis

A

faecal elastase - used if imaging inconclusive

58
Q

What is boerhaaves syndrome

A

spontaneous rupture of oesophagus after lots of vomiting which can cause mediastinitis.
Needs CT contrast swallow and thoracotomy and lavage if <12 hours or T tube insertion to create fistula between skin and oesophagus

59
Q

Contraindications to laparoscopic surgery

A

shock
inc icp
intestinal obstruction uncorrected coagulopathy

60
Q

Complications of gastrectomy

A

dumping syndrome
rebound hypoglycaemia
early satiety
iron deficiency anaemia
osteoporosis
vit b12 deficiency

61
Q

Complications of diverticular disease

A

Fistulas - colovesical (pneumaturia)
Strictures (laprotomy)
Peritonitis
Haemorrhage
Abscess (if <5cm abx, if >5cm drain)

62
Q

Most common cause of large bowel obstruction

63
Q

When to stop ppi before ogd

A

2 weeks before

64
Q

Cancers associated with Lynch syndrome

A

colorectal
endometrial
pancreatic
gastric

65
Q

Sign of bowel necrosis on CT

A

Pneumatosis intestinalis
Less contrast infiltration

66
Q

Abdo pain post op pre 5 days vs post 5 days

A

pre: ileus
post: anastomotic leak

67
Q

What is toxic megacolon

A

Chronic dilatation of colon where high risk of perforation

68
Q

Management of acute diverticulitis

A

Home with oral abx, liquid diet, analgesia
If no improvement in 72 hours admit for iv ceftriaxone and metronidazole

69
Q

Thrombosed haemorrhoid management

A

if <72 hours excise
If >72 hours bulk forming, ice, analgesia

70
Q

Biopsy findings of gastric cancer

A

signet ring cells

71
Q

Do you remove gallstones if assymptomatic

72
Q

Staging for cancer in pelvis

A

mri (ct + staging laproscopy îs for more abdomen)

73
Q

Prevention of each kidney stone

A

ca - thiazides
struvite - ammonium chloride
urate - allopurinol
cystine - penicillamine

74
Q

gold standard for venous insufficiency

A

duplex uss
apbi after this

75
Q

fontaine classification for pad

A
  1. assymp
  2. intermittent claudication
  3. rest pain
  4. necrosis or gangrene
76
Q

Most common risk factor for transitional cell bladder cancer

A

smoking
(others aniline dyes, rubber, cyclophosphamide, schistosomiasis)

77
Q

First line ix for bladder ca
Gold s

A

1st line: urine dip (haematuria?)
Gold s: cystoscopy + biopsy

78
Q

Causative organisms for epididymo orchitis

A

Chlamydia trachomatis
neisseria gonorrhoeae
ecoli

79
Q

GS ix for AVN hip

80
Q

GS ix for psoas abscess

81
Q

Features of staph aures

A

gram +
coag +

82
Q

Abdominoperineal resection vs low anterior resection

A

abdop: anus, rectum and sigmoid
ant: if malig in upper 2/3 rectum

83
Q

Tibial shaft fracture cast type

A

above knee cast

84
Q

Salter Harris fracture types

A

1: physis
2: physis + metaphysis
3: physis + epiphysis
4. physis + epiphysis + metaphysis
5: crush injury of physis

3,4,5 need surgery

85
Q

Prolapsed disc signs

A

L3 root compression: sensory anterior thigh, weak hip flexion/knee extension, reduced knee reflex, + femoral stretch

L4: ant knee + med malleolus sensory loss, weak knee extension, reduced knee reflex, + femoral stretch

L5: sensory loss dorsum foot, weak foot dorsiflexion, + sciatic stretch

S1: sensory loss posterolat leg + lat foot, weak planter flexion, reduced ankle reflex, + sciatic stretch

86
Q

Prolapsed disc mx

A

nsaid + ppi
if no improvement after 6 weeks mri

87
Q

Artery causing AVN head if NOF

A

medial circumflex artery

88
Q

Sign of osteoporotic vertebral fracture on xray

89
Q

NV testing for hand nerves

A

radial: thumb extension
ulnar: thumb adduction
median: thumb abduction

90
Q

Common sites for osteomyelitis in adults vs child

A

adult: epiphysis
child: metaphysis

91
Q

Mx for Gardens 1/2 NOF

A

cannulated screw!!

92
Q

What is neuralgia paraesthetica

A

compression lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

93
Q

Mx malignant hyperthermia

A

iv dantrolene

94
Q

MRSA mx

A

nasal mupirocin + chlorhexadine 5 days

95
Q

Types of post op haemorrhage

A

prim within op
reactive within 24 hours
secondary 7-10 days

remember to assess perfusion as bp is a late sign!!

96
Q

Classes of haemorrhagic shock

A

1: <750ml
2: 750-1500ml, hr 100-120,
3: 1500-2000ml, 30-40% blood loss, bp decreased
4: >2000ml, >40%, HR/RR>40, UNCONSCIOUS

97
Q

Metabolic abnormality if too much iv fluids

A

Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

98
Q

Meds that cause ED

A

b blockers
ssris
antiepileptics

99
Q

Complications of TURP

A

T ur syndrome : hyponat, fluid overload
U rethral stricture/UTI
R etrograde ejaculation
P erforation of the prostate

100
Q

GS ix in appendicitis in F vs M

A

F: uss
M: CT (unless thin + classic symptoms)

101
Q

How to minimise bleeding risk pre-op

A

stop anticoag + d assay
coag screen, fbc
hydrate + monitor fluid balance

102
Q

cannonball metastases

103
Q

Periop steroid mx

A

Hydrocortisone 100 mg by IV injection should be given at induction of anaesthesia in adult patients with adrenal insufficiency from any cause, followed by a continuous infusion of hydrocortisone until the patient can take double their usual oral glucocorticoid dose by mouth

104
Q

Sepsis 6

A
  1. IV access + bloods + cultures
  2. Escalate to senior
  3. Monitor NEWS + urine output
  4. Give IV fluids
  5. Give abx + source control
  6. Give oxy
105
Q

Sepsis screening

A
  1. think if looks unwell, risk factors, or NEWS2>4
  2. confirm infection suspected
  3. look for organ dysfunction via sofa, news2
106
Q

Axillary node screening for breast cancer

A

palpable nodes before surgery = clearance
non palp = offer uss axillary before surgery = + clearance
if uss - then sentinel node biopsy
if can’t find sentinel node then 3 random nodes test

107
Q

Mx PAD (chronic limb ischaemia)

A

supervised exercised programme to make collateral arteries
clopidogrel + statin
endovascular angioplasty + stent or open bypass

108
Q

A-E mx for acute limb ischaemia

A

supportive - oxygen, analgesia, fluids etc
unfractionated heparin
contact vascular surgeons for revascularisation via thrombectomy/thrombolysis etc