OPIC, cancer, paeds Flashcards

1
Q

Delirium vs dementia

A

Delirium:
- reversed sleep wake cycle
- acute onset
- fluctuating consciousness
- no autonomic features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Screening tools for pressure ulcers

A

waterlow
braden
Northton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Grades for pressure ulcers

A
  1. non blanching erythema
  2. partial thickness loss of epidermis/dermis
  3. full thickness loss loss subcut
  4. into muscle/ bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Type dementia if
Cognitive imp then >1yr Parkinsonism

A

> 1yr = Lewy body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Features of Lewy body dementia

A

progressive cognitive impairment but day to day fluctuations
parkinsons symptoms after a year
visual hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

First line meds for dementia + MAO
Second line

A

1st line: acetylcholinesterase inhibitors: rivastigmine, donepezil (not if bradycardia), galantamine
2nd line: NMDA antagonist: memantine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where in brain does Alzheimers affect

A

Hippocampus which is in temporal lobe responsible for memory, learning and emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Do you routinely offer abx for pressure ulcer

A

no unless infection signs

just wound dressing, analgesia, nutrition assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Differentials for dementia

A

delirium
hypothyroid
SOL
stroke
depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of dementia

A

trauma
infection
h/v impairment
metabolic abnormalities
normal pressure hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is lying and standing bp

A

lie down for 5 mins then stand up and measure at 1 min and 3 mins

drop >20 sys or drops <90
or drop >10 diastolic with symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Factors identifying increased risk of frailty

A

High CFS
Lots admissions
Reduced mobility
No. falls
Incontinence
Delirium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ix for increased frailty

A

PRISMA7 questionnaire
Gait speed
Timed up and go test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Incontinence examination

A

review bowel/bladder diary
Abdo ex
PR ex + prostate
External genitalia
Urine dip + MSU
Post void bladder scan
Invasive urodynamic tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aspirin and clopidogrel mx in stroke

A

Start aspirin 300mg straight away (or 24 hours post thrombolysis) for 2 weeks
then stop after 2 weeks
then start clopidogrel 75mg lifelong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Features of stroke which make it different from a stroke mimic

A

stereotyped episodes
sudden
focal
symptoms fit into a vascular territory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is capsular warning syndrome

A

M/S signs without cortical signs (aphasia/apraxia/agnosia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What symptoms in a LACs Lacunar stroke + what blood vessel

A

Either pure sensory
Pure motor
Or ataxic gait

lenticulostriate (to basal ganglia which is in charge of motor control and refinement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What symptoms in a POCs stroke + what blood vessel

A

Homonymous hemianopia with macula sparing
Cerebellar dysfunction
Bstem dysfunction (m/s deficit with cranial nerve deficit)
Bilateral m or s loss
Conjugate eye movement disorder

Either vertebral, basilar, cerebellar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is webers syndrome

A

branch of posterior cerebral artery supplying midbrain

  • ipsilat cn3 palsy
  • contralat weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is lateral medullary syndrome

A
  • ipsilat face pain + temp
  • contralat limb pain + temp
  • ataxia / nystagmus

from posterior inferior cerebellar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is lateral pontine syndrome

A

same as lateral medullary
also ipsilat facial pain + deafness

anterior inferior cerebellar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tumour marker for breast cancer

A

ca153

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mx for MSCC

A

Urgent mri spine within 24 hours
Dexameth 16mg stat or 8mg BD + ppi
Oncology assessment for radiotherapy or decompression surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Antiemetics for chemo induced N+V

A

Metoclopramide
Ondanestron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Most common cancer causes of bone mets

A

Prostate
Breast
Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

WHO performance status

A

0= normal activity
1= restrict when strenuous
2= no work activities
3= symptomatic, chair >50%
4= bed bound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What to give if they need pain meds but CKD

A

oxycodone for mild impairment
fentanyl or buprenorphine if egfr <10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Signs that a pleural effusion is malignant

A

Unilateral
Exudative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Most common causes of malignant pleural effusion

A

Lung cancer
Breast cancer
Lymphoma
Ovarian
Mesothelioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Poor prognostic factors for MSCC

A

rapid onset
loss sphincters
radiosensitive tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Causes of seizures in malignancy

A

Cerebral mets - inc ICP
Infection
Metabolic abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Causative organisms of neutropenic sepsis

A

staph epidermidis
staph aures
ecoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Metabolic issues in TLS and mx for each

A

Hyperkalaemia - gluconate, insulin, dextrose
Hyperuricaemia - iv rasburicase
Hyperphosphataemia - pi binders rarely used
Hypocalcaemia - ca gluconate if symptomatic

IV fluids, frequent observations, daily weights, bloods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Diagnostic ix for SVCO

A

CT contrast thorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Symptoms and signs of hypercalcaemia

A

Confusion, depression
Constipation, N+V, thirsty
Bone pain
Abdo pain, renal colic

Dehydrated
Hyporeflexia
Tongue fasciculations
Abdo distension
Bony tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Causes of malignant hypercalcaemia

A

squamous cell lung ca
acc
myeloma mets
breast cancer mets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What to rule out in malignant patient with constipation

A

MSCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Metabolic abnormality in pyloric stenosis

A

hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Gold standard ix for pyloric stenosis

A

Abdominal USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When to vaccinate pregnant woman for whooping cough

A

16-32 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How long to stay off school if whooping cough

A

48 hours post abx
Or 21 days post onset symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Mx of minimal change disease in child

A

Admit
Monitor fluid status
7 days prednisolone
Penicillin 5 + pneumococcal
Check VZV status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is in the 6in1 vaccine

A

Dip
tetanus
pertussis
polio
haem influ
hep b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Gold standard ix for duchennes

A

genetic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Biggest complication of duchennes

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Red traffic light signs for febrile child <5

A

Chest wall recession
Not wakening
Reduced skin tugor
Mottled skin
Grunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Complications of GORD in infant

A

Recurrent chest infections
Faltering growth
Sandifer syndrome (dystonic neck posturing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Where is hypospadias located

A

On distal ventral surface of penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Mx for neonatal sepsis

A

IV benzylpenicillin + gentamicin
Check CRP 18-24 hours later
If CRP + cultures neg then stop abx at 36 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When to refer to hospital for bronchiolitis

A

rr>60
feeding 50%
clinical dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Murmur in Turners

A

Ejection systolic murmur - bicuspid aortic valve

53
Q

Complications of Turners

A

Ovarian degenesis
Hypothyroidism
Coeliac
Aortic dilatation + dissection
Horseshoe kidney

53
Q

Features of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

microcephaly
short palpebral fissures
hypoplastic upper lip
absent philtrum
reduced IQ
cardiac abnormalities

54
Q

Contraindication to CF lung transplantation

A

burkholderia cepacia

55
Q

When to treat bed wetting

56
Q

Big risk factor for surface deficient lung disease

57
Q

Mx of surfactant deficient lung disease

A

fluids
endotracheal surfactant
cpap
prevention: antenatal betamethasone 24-25 weeks IM + mg during labour

58
Q

Fragile X syndrome features

A

big bollocks large eared autistic man

Learning difficulties
Low set ears
Hypotonia
Autism
Mitral valve prolapse

59
Q

Causative organism for threadworms

A

enterobius vermicularis

60
Q

Mx for threadworms

A

mebendazole single dose if >6 months

61
Q

Neck masses in children:
- thyroglossal
- brachial
- dermoid
- lymphatic malformations
- haemangioma

A
  • thyroglossal : ant triangle - anechoic uss
  • brachial : ant to scm, anechoic on uss
  • dermoid: midline, supra hyoid, heterogenous + multiloculated
  • lymphatic malformations: cystic hygroma is from occlusion of lymphatic channels - hypoehoic on uss + transilluminates
  • haemangioma : grows rapidly
62
Q

Features of roseola infantum

A

human herpes 6
fever then rose pink papule rash days later
school exclusion not needed
can cause convulsions, gbs, thrombocytopenia, myocarditis

63
Q

<3 months old + fever

A

urgent referral to paeds!!

64
Q

Murmur in TOF

A

Ejection systolic murmur left sternal edge (pulmonary stenosis)

65
Q

What to screen for in Kawasaki disease

A

ECHO due to coronary artery aneurysms

66
Q

Newborn hearing tests

A

Otoacoustic emission test

If abnormal then auditory brainstem response test

67
Q

Features of vesicoureteric reflux

A

recurrent utis
raised creatinine

68
Q

Cephalohaematoma vs caput succedaneum

A

Cepahlo: doesn’t cross suture lines, takes months to resolve

Caput: crosses suture lines, resolves in days

69
Q

How to tell difference between androgen insensitivity and CAH

A

CAH diagnosed early with ambiguous genitalia

Androgen insensitivity key symptom is primary amenorrhoea + undescended testes

70
Q

Staging for HIE

A

sarnat staging:
mild: poor feeding, hyperalert
mod: lethargic, hypotonic, seizures
Sev: flaccid, reduced reflexes

71
Q

Big risk factor for pneumothorax in neonate

A

mechanical ventilation

72
Q

Complication of jaundice in neonate

A

kernicterus

73
Q

Gold standard ix + finding for intussusception

A

Abdo uss - target sign

74
Q

Risk factors for dehydration

A

<1
>5 d in 24 hours or >2 vomits
lbw
malnutrition
stopped b feeding

75
Q

Signs of dehydration shock in kids

A

tachyc/pnoea
dec consciousness
mottled skin
inc crt
weak pulse
hypotensive

76
Q

Gold standard diagnostic ix for biliary atresia

A

percutaneous cholangiography

77
Q

1st line vs definitive mx for hirschprungs

A

1st line: colon irrigation
definitive: surgical resection

78
Q

What is kocher criteria

A

For septic arthritis in children

WCC>12
CRP>20 / ESR >40
Temp 38.5
Can’t weight bear

79
Q

Ix for dysplasia of hip + when to screen

A

if <4.5 months uss
if >4.5 months xray

Screen 6 week uss:
1st degree fx
breech after 36 weeks
multiple preg

80
Q

Xray findings for JIA

A

soft tissue swelling
joint effusion
osteopenia

81
Q

Symptoms of HSP

A

Abdo pain
Hematuria/proteinuria
Oligoarthritis
Purpuric rash lower limbs
Low grade fever

82
Q

What is not in the PEWS chart

83
Q

Causative organisms of epiglottitis

A

haem influ b
strep progenies
strep pneumoniae

84
Q

Features of Edwards syndrome

A

trisomy 18
micrognathia
rocker bottom feet

85
Q

Mx for undescended testes

A

if unilat refer around 3 months (before 6 months)
if bilat refer within 24 hours

86
Q

When to return to school after scarlet fever

A

24 hours post abx

87
Q

Mx if UTI + <3 months old

A

urgent paeds referral

88
Q

When to refer child for USS urinary tract

A

<6 months
6 months ->3 years +:
1. sepsis
2. abx not working
3. non secoli
4. abdo mass
5. creatinine inc
recurrent: >3 lower, 2 lower + 1 upper, 1 upper + 1 lower

89
Q

Rash for rubella

A

pink maculopapular rash on face then spreads to body
suboccipital + post-auricular lymphadenopathy

90
Q

Features of congenital hypothyroidism

A

prolonged jaundice
delayed milestones
macroglossia
short
hypotonia

91
Q

Features of rickets

A

dental problems
craniotabes (soft skull)
rachitic rosary
bowing legs in infant + knock knees in child
On xray penia/cupping/fraying/metaphyseal widening

92
Q

Most common cause of headache in child

A

migraine without aura

93
Q

Adrenaline doses in child

A

> 12: 500
6-12: 300
<6years: 150

94
Q

Mx of asthma in child

A

ICS + SABA
low dose MART + Saba
mod dose MART + saba
Referral

95
Q

Features that suggest bacterial vs viral LRTI

A

Bacterial:
>2 years
High temp 38.5
Pain
More acute onset
less wheeze/rhinorrhoea

96
Q

When to admit for croup

A

mod-sev
<3 months
known upper airway abnormality
uncertain about diagnosis

97
Q

What is in Westley croup score

A

stridor
recession
air entry
cyanosis
conscious

If >6 severe

98
Q

Features of meckels diverticulum

A

Painless rectal bleed
Intestinal obstruction
technetium scan if stable, if not mesenteric angiography

99
Q

Omaphalocoele (exophalocoele) vs gastroschisis

A

omaphalocoele: still in sac, associated with downs. Needs c section + staged repair

gastroschisis: ant wall defect where vag delivery and then repair asap

ALP rises in abdo wall defects!!

100
Q

Features of patau

A

13 fingers

trisomy 13
small eyes
cleft lip
polydactyly

101
Q

Features of Williams syndrome

A

friendly little boy who eats starbursts

short
learning difficulties
friendly
starbursts in eyes
aortic stenosis

102
Q

Mx for DDOH

A

pavlik harness if <6 months old
If thats failed or >6 months old thenspica cast in flexion + abduction

103
Q

Diagnostic ix for whooping cough

A

per nasal swab

104
Q

Triad of shaken baby syndrome

A

retinal haemorrhages
subdural haematoma
encephalopathy

105
Q

Glomerular haematuria vs non glomerular haematuria

A

Glomerular:
- dark red
- painless
- oliguria/htn
- small dysplastic abcs + red cell casts with blebs + spikes

Non:
- fresh
- painful
- monomorphic rbc

106
Q

ASD features

A

ejection systolic murmur
fixed splitting of s2
big stroke risk

107
Q

VSD features

A

pan systolic murmur louder in smaller defects

108
Q

Murmur in TOF

A

pan systolic murmur left sternal edge (pulmonary stenosis)

109
Q

Features of TOGA

A

rv heave
loud s2
weak femoral pulses

110
Q

Limp <3 years old

A

urgent specialist assessment

111
Q

Features of benign rolandic epilepsy

A

seizures at night
eeg centrotemporal spikes
great prognosis

112
Q

Most common complication of measles vs most common cause of death

A

otitis media - most common
pneumonia - death

113
Q

Ages for precocious puberty

A

9 males
8 females

114
Q

live vaccines

A

BCG
MMR
oral polio
yellow fever
oral typhoid

115
Q

Immediate TIA mx

A

if <7 days 300mg aspirin + 300mg clodiogrel + review within 24 hours
then 21 days of 75mg clopidogrel + 21 days aspirin 75mg
then 75mg lifelong clopidogrel

116
Q

Complication of stroke

A

haemorrhagic, cerebral oedema, seizures, bowel/bladder dysfunction, aspiration pneumonia, spasticity, immobility/ulcers, cognitive impairment

117
Q

When to refer for bowel cancer

A

+ FIT
Occult bleeding
Rectal mass

118
Q

Artery supply of GI

A

Coeliac trunk t12 - splenic, common hepatic, left hepatic
SMA - right colic, ileocaecal, middle colic
IMA - left colic, rectosigmoid, superior rectal

119
Q

Types of thyroid cancer

A

papillary - most common, lymph node spread
follicular - haematogenous spread
medullary - MEN2, calcitonin secreting hence hypocalcemia
anaplastic

120
Q

Mx malignant ascites

A

low fluid, salt low
drain
perito venous shunt if recurrent

121
Q

Mx malignant bowel obstruction

A

stent
hyoscine hydrobromide
steroids

122
Q

SVCO mx

A

sit up
oxygen
secure airway
stent
morphine
dexamethasone

123
Q

Symptoms of TLS

A

n+v
diarrhoea
muscle cramps
AKI
arrythmias

124
Q

Symptoms MSCC

A

back pain (earliest symptom)
lower limb weaness
sensory loss
umn signs
incontinence

125
Q

Palliative hiccups

A

chlorpromazine or haloperidol

126
Q

Chemo man

127
Q

Mucositis mx

A

Benzydamine hydrochloride mouthwash

128
Q

continuing disability post stroke