Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Affected cranial nerves for acoustic neuroma

A

cn8: vertigo, unilat sensorineural h loss, unilat tinnitus
cn5: absent corneal reflex
cn7: facial nerve palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ix for acoustic neuroma

A

urgent ent referral
mri cerebellopontine angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Symptoms of GBS

A

Ascending leg pain then weakness
LMN = hyporeflexia
Resp muscle + facial muscle weakness
Autonomic involvement: retention, diarrhoea, ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gold standard ix for GBS

A

LP - inc protein and normal wcc

+ decreased velocity nerve conduction studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Migraine mx : acute vs prophylaxis

A

acute: triptan + paracetamol, or triptan + nsaid (nasal If 12-17)
prophylaxis: topiramate (avoid if childbearing age!!) or propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Symptoms of MS

A

visual: optic neuritis, uhthoffs phenomenon, internuclear ophthalmoplegia

sensory: pins, trigeminal neuralgia, lhermittes sign

motor: spastic weakness esp in legs

cerebellar signs

urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

GS ix for MS

A

MRI t2 gadalonium contrast brain = white matter plaques

LP + csf electrophoresis = oligoclonal bands of igG + inc protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does ulnar nerve do

A

hypothenar eminence
finger abduction
thumb adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What vision defect does pituitary tumour cause

A

bitemporal hemianopia upper quadrant defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Features of focal seizure:
- temporal
- frontal
- parietal
- occipital

A
  • temporal: aura (epigastric sensation, deja vu, hallucination), lip smacking
  • frontal: movements, Jacksonian march, post ictal weakness
  • parietal: parasthesia
  • occipital: flashes/floaters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Triad for wernickes

A

ocular dysfunction
confusion
ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Triad for korsakoffs

A

amnesia
confusion
confabulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mx for focal seizures

A

lamotrigine
levetiracetam

if not then carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Types of aphasia:
- wernickes
- brocas
- conduction
- global

A
  • brocas: can understand but speech not fluent - in inferior frontal (superior left MCA)
  • wernickes: receptive, can’t understand - in superior temporal (inferior left MCA)
  • conduction: can understand speech but can’t repeat - in arcuate fasciculus
  • global: can’t understand or repeat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Symptoms of syringomyelia

A

Cape like loss spinothalamic (temp/pain/crude touch)
spastic weakness of Lower limbs
neuropathic pain
upgoing plantars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Imaging for TIA

A

MRI diffusion weighted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mx for brain abscess

A

iv cephalosporin + metronidazole
craniotomy to debride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Features of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

teenage girls
absence seizures
tonic clonic seizures
myoclonic seizures
exacerbated by sleep deprivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Meds for parkinsons

A

levodopa + carbidopa
entacapone
rasagiline
ropinirole/ rotigotine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ix for encephalitis

A

EEG: lateralised periodic discharges at 2hz
csf: high wcc, high protein
MRI: medial temporal (HSV) and inferior frontal changes of petechial haemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When to withdraw epilepsy meds

A

if >2 years no seizure, over 2-3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Features of Charcot Marie tooth disease

A

hereditary motor and sensory polyneuropathy
distal weakness + atrophy
high arched feet
foot drop so high steppage gait
hyporeflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Symptoms of MND

A

Assymmetrical weakness upper limbs first
Wasting hands
Slurred speech/face weakness
Resp issues
UMN + LMN signs
Fasciculations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Symptoms of MG

A

fatiguable weakness
diplopia, ptosis
Jaw fatigue
Speech/swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Triggers for MG

A

pencillamine
b blockers
procainamide
lithium
phenytoin
gentamicin/macrolides/quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Ix for MG

A

Fatigue recovery test
Ice test
Tensilon test - iv edrophonium reduces muscle weakness
Achr, musk, lrp4
ct thorax
single fibre emg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Contraindications for tensilon test

A

arrhythmia
asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Features of Huntingtons disease

A

auto dom condition where degeneration cholinergic and gabaergic neurones in basal ganglia

personality change
chorea
dystonia
saccadic eye movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Med for huntingtons

A

tetrabenazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What artery supplies wernickes and brocas areas

A

Middle cerebral artery (usually left)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mx for restless leg syndrome

A

ropinirole
treat iron deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Symptoms of subacute combined degeneration of sc

A

dorsal column: fine touch/prop/vib loss legs first

spinocortical: weakness, spasticity, hyperreflexia, brisk knee reflexes, absent ankle jerk, extensor plantar

spinocerebellar: ataxic gait, + rombergs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sign for cervical myelopathy

A

Hoffman’s sign: flick finger and + if other fingers twitch

needs decompressive surgery!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What to do if first seizure

A

discharge
refer to urgent outpatient neuro clinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

bloods 4 seizure vs pseudoseizure

A

prolactin / lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Causes of horners

A

central (anhidrosis everywhere): stroke, swelling, syringomyelia

pre-gang (face only): thyroid, trauma, tumour

post-gang: carotid art dissection, cs thrombosis, Cluster headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Symptoms of CJD

A

rapid onset dementia
myoclonus
aphasia
anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ix for CJD

A

LP - protein or normal
EEG - biphasic high amp sharp waves
MRI - hyperintense signals in basal ganglia/thymus + cortical ribboning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

1st line for myoclonic seizures

A

levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Venous thrombosis mx

A

abx
lmwh acutely
warfarin long term

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Mx for syphilis induced argyll Robertson pupil

A

IM benzathine benzylpenicillin
oral probenecid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

tuberous sclerosis vs neurofibromatosis

A

tuberous: auto Dom where benign tumours everywhere, epilepsy, developmental delay, depigmentation spots, patches on lumbar spine, butterfly rash on nose, fibromata beneath nails

neurofibromatosis: auto dom where phaeochromocytomas, axillary freckles, cafe au lait spots, acoustic neuromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Triad for brain abscess

A

headache
fever
focal neurology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Symptoms of brown sequard syndrome

A

ipsilat dorsal column loss
contralat spinothalamic loss
ipsilat corticospinal loss (umn signs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Indications for CT in 1 hour

A

gcs <13
suspected fracture
neurological deficit/seizure
vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Indications for CT within 8 hours

A

amnesia/LOC +

  • > 65
  • bleeding disorder
  • anticoagulant
  • dangerous injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

CT head indications for child

A

LOC >5 mins
drowsy
3 or more vomiting
skull fracture suspected
neurological deficit
bruising
dangerous mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Signs of increased ICP

A

dec conscious
headache
n+v
papilledema
dilated pupils (cn3 comp)
cushings triad (irreg breathing, bradycardia, widening pulse pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Complications of SAH

A

Vasospasm
Recurrence
Hydrocephalus
Hyponatraemia due to SIADH
Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Definitive mx for SAH

A

coiling if aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

CT results for acute vs chronic subdural haemorrhage

A

Acute will be hyper dense (white)
Chronic will be hypodense (dark)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Subdural haemorrhage symptoms

A

FLUCTUATIONS in conciousness
Headache
Weakness/ visual field defects (unilat dilated = cn3 compression)
Seizures
Papilledema
Ataxia
N+V if inc ICP
Cognitive/behaviour problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Mx bad subdural

A

Decompession via burr holes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Extradural mx

A

craniotomy + evacuation of haematoma

55
Q

Antiemetic for vestibular neuronitis

A

prochlorperazine

56
Q

Webers test

A

in conductive goes to bad ear
in sensor goes to good ear

57
Q

Mx for rosacea

A

brimonidine gel if flushing only
ivermectin if pustules/papules +/- doxycycline
refer for laser if telangiectasia

58
Q

Mx for severe urticaria where cetirizine hasn’t worked

A

oral steroids

59
Q

What is head impulse test

A

+ means disruption during head movement + corrective saccades = peripheral cause

60
Q

Features of SCC skin lesion

A

rapid growth
necrotic centre
tethering of skin
raised edges

61
Q

Features of lichen planus

A

itchy papules on palms/soles
white lines (wick hams striae)
koebner phenomenon
oral mucosa involvement
nail thinning
needs POTENT topical steroids

62
Q

Triggers for erythema multiforme

A

hsv
penicillins/allopur/carba/cocp
mycoplasma pneumonia

63
Q

Primary vs secondary haemorrhage for tonsillectomy

A

primary within 8 hours and needs theatre
secondary if 5-10 days and needs admit + abx

64
Q

Fever pain criteria

A

fever within 24 hours
attends rapidly
no cough
purulence
inflamed tonsils

65
Q

Centor criteria

A

no cough
exudate
lymphadenopathy
fever

66
Q

Causes of TEN

A

phenytoin
sulphonamides
allopurinol
penicillins
carbamazepine
NSAIDs

67
Q

GS mx for TEN

68
Q

Hypersensitivity type in scabies

69
Q

Glue ear in adults

A

2ww referral for nasopharyngeal cancer

70
Q

Conditions causing acanthosis nigricans

A

t2dm
gastric cancer
pcos
obesity
cushings

71
Q

Referral for laryngeal cancer

A

> 45 with
- persistent hoarseness
- unexplained neck lump

72
Q

Oral cancer referral

A

ulcer >3 weeks
unexplained lump
erythroplakia/erthroleukoplakia

73
Q

Features of pyoderma gangrenosum

A

lower limbs
painful ulcer purple
systemic upset
Common in ibd, sle, haem conditions

74
Q

Mx for extensive fungal nail infections = dermatophyte vs candida

A

dermatophyte (trichophyton) : terbinafine
yeast (candida): itraconazole

75
Q

Mx pleomorphic adenoma

A

surgical removal as risk malignant transformation + facial nerve palsy

76
Q

Features of glandular fever

A

epstein barr virus
sore throat
enlarged tonsils
splenomegaly
2 weeks post mono spot test (heterophile ab)

77
Q

Most common malignant thyroid malignancy

78
Q

Maintenance check for thyroid cancer

A

thyroglobulin yearly (calcitonin if medullary)

79
Q

Causative organisms for sinusitis

A

strep pneum
haem influ
rhinovirus

80
Q

Mx acute sinusitis

A

if >10 days nasal steroids
If v unwell 7 days coamox/phenoxymethylpeniclin

81
Q

Mx if conservative mx for perforated ear drum not worked

A

myringoplasty

82
Q

Types of tympanogram

A

A: normal: bell curve
B: middle ear effusion: flat line
C: eusch tube dysfunction: peaks at start

83
Q

Indications for amoxicillin in otitis media

A

> 4 days
<2 years + bilateral
perforation
<3 months
systemically unwell

84
Q

Surgical mx for cholesteatoma

A

ossiculoplasty otherwise erodes into bone causing mastoiditis, perforation, meningitis

85
Q

Features of pityriasis rosea

A

post viral infection
herald patch on trunk
then scaly macules in fir tree appearance
Self limiting for 6 weeks

86
Q

First line mx for seborrhoeic dermatitis

A

topical ketoconazole

86
Q

Features of pityriasis versicolor

A

hypo pigmented patches
itchy
in immunosupressed
ketoconazole shampoo

87
Q

Causes of erythema nodosum

A

NO - idiopathic
Drugs - penicillin
Oral cocp/preg
Sarcoidosis/tb
Uc/crohns
Micro (mycoplasma)

88
Q

Mx dermatitis herpetiformis

89
Q

When to give IV fluids for burns

A

> 15% adults
10% child

90
Q

Parkland formula

A

volume of fluid= total body surface area of the burn % x weight (Kg) x4

Half the fluid given within first 8 hours

91
Q

Prognostic marker for melanoma

A

breslow thickness (Strat granulosum -> deep-set point)
ulceration
subtype
mitotic rate

92
Q

Eron classification for cellulitis

A
  1. no systemic toxicity
  2. toxicity or Comorb
  3. signif
  4. sepsis
93
Q

Bullous pemphigoid vs pemphigus vulgaris

A

bullous: itchy + tense blisters in older. Needs dressing, steroids + tetracycline
pemphigus: flaccid + mucosal involvement - needs steroids, dressing

94
Q

Grades for diabetic retinopathy

A

bg: cotton wool spots, retinal haemorrhages, micro aneurysms, hard exudates

pre-prolif: blot haemorrhages, venous bleeding, intraretinal microvascular abnormality

prolif: neovascularisation, vitreous haemorrhage

95
Q

How to differentiate orbital from preseptal cellulitis

A

reduced visual acuity
proptosis
painful eye movements

96
Q

GS ix for macular degeneration

97
Q

Features of central retinal vein occlusion on fundoscopy

A

several retinal haemorrhages (looks like cheese + tomato pizza)
dilated tortuous veins
cotton wool
hard exudates

98
Q

GS ix for glaucoma

A

goldmann applanation tonometer for open, gonioscopy for closed

99
Q

GS mx for closed angle glaucoma

A

laser iridotomy

100
Q

Carotid artery dissection symptoms

A

localised headache
neck pain
neurological signs (horners)

101
Q

Risk factors for retinal detachment

A

myopia
diabetes
age
previous cataracts surgery

102
Q

Features of retinal detachment

A

flashes/floaters
then shadow vision loss
RAPD
Absent red reflex + pale retinal folds

103
Q

Causative organism for amoebic keratitis

A

acanthamoebic keratitis

104
Q

Complication of IIH

105
Q

What does internuclear ophthalmoplegia show

A

lesion in medial longitudinal fasciculus
impaired adduction on same side of lesion + horizontal nystagmus on contralateral side that is abducting

106
Q

Causes of papilloedema

A

space-occupying lesion: neoplastic, vascular
malignant hypertension
idiopathic intracranial hypertension
hydrocephalus
hypercapnia

107
Q

Fundoscopy for papilloedema

A

venous engorgement: usually the first sign
loss of venous pulsation
blurring of the optic disc margin
elevation of optic disc
loss of the optic cup
Paton’s lines: concentric/radial retinal lines cascading from the optic disc

108
Q

Keith wagener classification

A
  1. mild narrowing arterioles
  2. focal constriction bv + av nicking
  3. cotton wool patches, exudates, haemorrhages
  4. papilloedema
109
Q

Tests for squint

A

hirschbergs test: light should be central and symmetrical on cornea
Single cover test: when covering an eye if the contralateral eye moves then bad
Cover-uncover test: when cover eye then uncover it and it moves back to its squint position

110
Q

Features venous sinus thrombosis

A

young female
sudden onset headache
n+v
facial pain
raised d dimer

111
Q

Triggers for autonomic dysreflexia

A

urinary retention
faecal impaction

112
Q

FEV1/FVC for neuromuscular diseases

A

FEV1/FVC > 0.7, FVC < 0.8

113
Q

what criteria determines likelihood of stroke after tia

114
Q

HINTs exam

A

Head impulse: In peripheral vertigo, this test will show a corrective saccade (positive result) if the vestibulo-ocular reflex is disrupted. This occurs when the head is turned toward the affected side, causing the eyes to make a saccade to re-fixate on the target. If the reflex is intact (in a healthy individual or on the unaffected side), the eyes will stay fixed on the target when the head turns toward the normal side.

Nystagmus: In peripheral vertigo, horizontal nystagmus may also be present, unlike the direction-changing nystagmus seen in central vertigo cases.

Test of skew: When a patient focuses on their nose while their eyes are alternately covered, vertical misalignment may occur in central vertigo, leading to corrective movements. This finding is absent in peripheral causes.

115
Q

AION fundoscopy findings

A

swollen pale optic disc with blurred margins

116
Q

Mx if parkinsons drugs don’t work

A

deep brain stimulation (stroke risk)

117
Q

Meds generalised seizures

A

sodium valp M, lamotrigine F

118
Q

Testing for resp support in neuromuscular diseases

A

FVC
if <20 then needs intubation

120
Q

Mx absence seizures

A

sodium valproate
ethosuximide

121
Q

Triad for normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

urinary incontinence
dementia and bradyphrenia
gait abnormality (may be similar to Parkinson’s disease)

122
Q

Neuroimaging changes for normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

hydrocephalus with ventriculomegaly in the absence of, or out of proportion to, sulcal enlargement

123
Q

Mx IIH

A

weight loss
acetazolamide
optic nerve sheath decompression

124
Q

Mx benign tremor

A

avoid caffeine/stress
propranolol
primidone
gabapentin

125
Q

CN3 palsy

A

down and out

126
Q

Most common organism for otitis media

A

haem influ

127
Q

Mx staph scalded skin syndrome

A

iv erythromycin
fluids
emollients

128
Q

Where to treat carotid endarterectomy

A

when >50% stenosis on the contralateral side

129
Q

Cloudy hazy cornea

A

anterior uveitis

130
Q

Cycloplegic examples

A

atropine + cyclopentolate are antimusc

131
Q

Mx for open angle glaucoma >24mmhg

A

laser trabeculoplasty

132
Q

MOA eye drugs

A

latanoprost: increases outflow
pilocarpine: increases outflow
acetazolamide : reduces aq production
timolol: reduces aq production
brimonidine : both

133
Q

central retinal artery mx

A
  1. ocular massage
  2. dec iop via: acetazolamide, timolol, iv mannitol, ant chamber paracentesis
  3. dilate artery: carbogen, subling isosorbide dinitrate, oral pentoxifylline
    definitive: thromboylsis or steroids
134
Q

Complications of chicken pox

A

otitis media
pneumonia
nec fasciitis if given with nsaids
encephalitis