Resp, Rheum, Gastro, ID Flashcards

1
Q

Severe copd medication

A

Roflumilast = pde4 inhibitor

If FEV1<50% and >2 exacerbations in 12 months despite other meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

LTOT indications

A

po2 7.3-8 and one of the following:
polycythaemia
peripheral oedema (cor pulmonale)
pulmonary htn

It induces pulmonary vasodilation which improves pulmonary htn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Factors which improve copd survival

A

lung vol reduction surgery
stop smoking
ltot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Asthma diagnosis

A

feno (>50 adults, >35 child)
eosinophilia (adults only)

then once this is found then confirm with spriometry improving fev1 by 12% and 200ml or fev1 >10% predicted or if PEF variability if >20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Complications of chest drain

A

surgical emphysema
post surgical reexpansion of pulmonary oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

lung fibrosis affecting upper zones

A

silicosis
pneumworkers
ank spond
radiation induced
tb
allergic alveoli’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

lung fibrosis affecting lower zones

A

ipf
drugs
ra/sle
asbestos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

xray findings of pulmonary fibrosis

A

patchy opacities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what type of lung cancer do you get cavitating lesions

A

squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Asbestos lung diseases

A

pleural plaques (benign only)
pleural thickening
asbestosis - related to length of exposure, lower lobe fibrosis (sob, clubbing, basal inspired crackles, restrictive)
mesothelioma - not related to length of exposure

remember lung cancer (not mesothelioma) is still the primary malignancy associated with asbestos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

mesothelioma symptoms

A

sob / chest pain
dry cough
never hemopytsis
weight loss
pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MRC scale

A

0 - sob only when stren ex
1 - when hurrying/walking up slight hill
2 - walks slower than most people same age or stop for breath
3 - stops for breath 100m
4 - too sob to leave house

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pneumonia vs bronchitis features

A

acute bronchitis has no xray changes
no focal chest signs in bronchitis but may have wheeze
no sputum, sob, wheeze normally in bronchitis
less systemic symptoms in bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acute bronchitis mx

A

if crp >100 give doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Indication for cxr for asthma exacerbation
Indication for abg

A

CXR: life threatening, suspected pneumothorax, not responding to treatment

ABG: oxy <92

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When to admit for asthma exacerbation

A

life threatening
severe if not responding to initial treatment
previous near fatal
preg
attack despite use of steroids at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mx for pneumothorax:
- no risks + assymp
- high risk + assymp
- no risks + symptomatic
- high risk + symptomatic

A
  • no risks + assymp: conservative and review 2-4 days as outpatient
  • high risk + assymp: monitor inpatient then follow up 2-4 weeks outpatient
  • no risks + symptomatic: ambulatory device, needle aspiration, if aspiration fails then chest drain
  • high risk + symptomatic : chest drain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

High risk characteristics for pneumothorax

A

underlying lung disease
>50 + smokes
bilateral
significant hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which lung cancer causes SIADH, cushings and Lambert eaton

A

SCLC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which cancer causes hypercalcaemia, hyperthyroidism and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

A

Squamous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which cancer causes gynaecomastia, and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Contradindications for lung cancer surgery

A

Mets
Poor health
fev1<1.5
malig pleural effusion
vc paralysis
svco

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Indications for NIV BIPAP in copd exacerbation

A

resp acidosis ph 7.25-35
t2resp failure
pul oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Obstructive lung disease fev1 and fvc findings and common conditions

A

fev1 SIGNIFICANTLY reduced
fvc reduced or normal

copd/asthma/bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Restrictive lung disease fev1 and fvc findings and common conditions

A

Fev1 reduced
FVC SIGNIFICANTLY reduced

pul fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Features of sarcoidosis

A

Erythema nodosum
Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy seen on CXR
Arthralgia
SOB, non productive cough
Hypercalcaemia
Lupus pernio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is TLCO and causes of raised/decreased

A

rate of gas diffusion from alveoli to blood

inc: asthma
dec: pul fibrosis, pneumonia, ppe, emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Common features of pneumonia types:
- strep pneum
- legionella
- mycoplasma
- klebsiella
- staph aures

A
  • strep: cold sores, rust sputum
  • legionella: hyponat, deranged lfts, dec lymphocytes. Urinary ag and erythromycin
  • Mycoplasma: erythema multiforme, dry cough - serum serology, doxy
  • Klebsiella: alcoholics, red jelly sputum, upper lobes
  • staph aures: cavitating lesion!!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is lights criteria

A

if any of 1 of these then likely to be exudative:

Pleural LDH/serum LDH 0.6>
Pleural protein/serum protein >0.5
Pleural Fluid LDH >2/3 upper normal limit of serum LDH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Complication of NIV

A

pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Causes of non resolving pneumonia

A

Complication: empyema, abscess
Host: immunocomp
Abx: indeq dose/aborption
Organism - resistant
Second diagnosis: pe, cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Severity of copd

A

1: mild: fev1 >80%
2: mod: fev1 50-79%
3: sev: 30-49%
4: v sev: <30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Medicine for pulmonary fibrosis

A

pirfenidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Medicines which can cause extrinsic allergic alveolitis

A

amiodarone
methotrexate
bleomycin
nitrofuratoin
penicillamine
cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Symptoms of osteomalacia

A

Bone pain
Bone tenderness
Proximal myopathy
Waddling gait
Inc ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Causes of osteomalacia

A

Vit D deficiency
CKD
Antiepileptics
Liver cirrhosis
Coeliac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Malignant bone tumours:
- osteosarcoma
- ewings sarcoma
- chondrosarcoma

A
  • osteosarcoma: most common esp in children. Occurs in long bones. Xray shows conman triangle + sunburst appearance
  • ewings sarcoma: most in children. Occurs in pelvis and long bones. Xray shows onion skin appearance.
  • chondrosarcoma: tumour of cartilage, in middle aged.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Feltys syndrome

A

RA
Splenomegaly
Neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Extra articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis

A

A- anaemia, amyloidosis, arteritis
C- cord compression, cvs disease, carpal tunnel syndrome
P- pericarditis, pleural disease, pulmonary disease
S- sjogrens, scleritis, splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Poor prognostic factors of RA

A
  • presence of anti ccp/ rf
  • poor functional status when presenting
  • sudden onset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Symptoms of psoriatic arthritis

A

Assymmetrical dactylitis esp DIPJs
Enthesitis
Sacroilitis
Psoriatic plaques
Nail pitting/onchylosis
Arthritis mutilans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Risk factors for pseudo gout

A

Haemochromatosis
Hyperparathyrodisim
Low Mg/Pi
Acromegaly
Wilsons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Osteomyelitis with someone with sickle cell causative organism

A

salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Ehlers Danlos vs Marfans

A

Both autosomal dominant

Marfans is a fibrillen defect. Causes tall, high arched palate, arachnodactyl, scoliosis, aortic aneurysm (so needs regular echo), blue sclera

Ehlers Danlos is type 3 collagen affected. Causes fragile skin, recurrent joint dislocation, easy bruising, aortic regurgitation, SAH, retinal haemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What cancer does sjogrens increase the risk of

A

NHL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pseudogout vs gout crystals

A

Gout: - bifringent monosodium urate

Pseudogout: + bifringent pyrophosphate crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Organism causes of reactive arthritis

A

Salmonella
Shigella
Campylobacter
Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When to skip DEXA scan and go straight to bisphosphonates

A

Vertebral fracture
On steroids + ( >65 or previous fragility fracture)
>75 + fragility fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Features of ankylosing spondylitis

A

Anterior uveitis
Apical lung fibrosis
Aortic reorg
AV block
Amyloidosis
Achilles tendonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Most common xray feature of ankylosing spondylitis

A

Sacroilitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What causes anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy in GCA

A

Occlusion of posterior ciliary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Features of polymyositis

A

Proximal muscle weakness
Respiratory muscle weakness / ILD
Dysphagia
Dysphonia
Raynauds
Inc CK
Anti Jo + mi2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Malignancies associated with polymyositis

A

Lung
Breast
Ovarian
Gastric

53
Q

Features of stills disease

A

Arthralgia
Salmon pink maculopapular rash
Pyrexia worse in afternoon
Lymphadenopathy
Inc ferritin
Diagnosis of exclusion when RF/CCP ruled out

54
Q

Raynauds syndrome vs phenomenon

A

Syndrome: idiopathic

55
Q

Isolated ALP rise in person with bone pain +/- cranial nerve deficits

A

Pagets (disease of excessive clast + blast so uncontrolled bone turnover)

56
Q

Xray findings for pagets

A

Osteolyisis
Lytic lesions
Thickened skull

Bossing of skull
Bowing of tibia

57
Q

Rash on soles/palms in reactive arthritis

A

Keratoderma blenorrhagica

58
Q

Skin features of dermatomyositis

A

Photosensitivity
Macular rash on back/shoulder
Heliotrope rash in periorbital region
Grottens papules on extensor surfaces
Dry + scaly hands with plaques

59
Q

Causes of stridor in post thyroidectomy

A

Haematoma in pre tracheal fascia
Recurrent laryngeal nerve damage
Removal parathyroid = hypocalc = laryngospasm

60
Q

PSC vs PBC

A

PSC: intrahepatic and extrhepatic bile ducts become fibrotic so less bile leaves liver leading to liver inflammation and cirrhosis

PBC: interlobular bile duct inflammation in liver causing cholestasis and back pressure into liver leading to dec exretion of cholesterol/bile acids/bilirubin leading to inflammation hence liver cirrhosis

61
Q

Features of PSC

A

RUQ pain
Fatigue
Cholestasis: jaundice, pruritus, inc ALP/bilirubin
Liver cirrhosis

62
Q

Ix for PSC

A

MRCP
pANCA +

Cholestyramine

63
Q

Gene associated with coeliac

64
Q

Biopsy findings for coeliac

A

villous atrophy
crypt hyperplasia
intraepithelial lymphocytes
infiltration of lymphocytes in lamina propria

65
Q

Urgent 2ww OGD criteria

A

Dysphagia
Upper abdo mass
>55 + weight loss + dyspepsia

66
Q

Features of acute liver failure

A

RUQ pain
Jaundice
Hepatic encephalopathy
Hepatorenal syndrome
Inc INR
Hypoalbuminaemia

67
Q

Action of terlipressin

A

ADH analogue causing splanchnic vasoconstriction hence inc BP

68
Q

Grades for hepatic encephalopathy

A
  1. irritable, constructional apraxia, reversed sleep cycle, poor memory
  2. confused, lethargic, asterix
  3. drowsy, incoherent
  4. coma
69
Q

Mx for hepatic encephalopathy

A

lactulose
rifaximin prophylaxis

70
Q

When to recheck urea breath test

A

If still symptoms

71
Q

Features of haemochromatosis

A

Arthralgia
Fatigue
Erectile dysfunction
Bronze appearance
Liver cirrhosis
Inc ferritin + transferrin, dec TIBC

72
Q

What is achalasia

A

Failure of oesophageal peristalsis and relaxation of LOS

73
Q

Ix and Mx of achalasia

A

Ix: oesophageal manometry (excessive LOS tone), barium swallow (bird peak - dilated oesophagus), cxr (widened mediastinum)

Mx: pneumatic balloon dilatation, Heller cardiomyotomy, botulin injection to sphincter

74
Q

What cancers associated with hepatitis

75
Q

Features of autoimmune hepatitis

A

Liver cirrhosis
Acute hepatitis
Amenorrhoea
ANA/SMA/LKM1 ab
Liver biopsy shows necrosis

76
Q

ALT, ALP, ALT: ALP in paracetamol overdose

A

High ALT, low ALP, high ALT: ALP

77
Q

Features of Wilsons disease

A

liver cirrhosis
neuropsychiatric + speech
Excessive salivation
Kayser Fleischer rings
RTA
Blue nails
Inc Cu and dec ceruloplasmin

78
Q

Alcoholic liver diseasee LFTS

A

Inc yGT
High AST:ALT

79
Q

Ascites SAAG levels <11 vs >11 causes

A

> 11 means portal htn so liver cirrhosis, liver mets, RVH, Budd chairi

<11 means hypo albumin so peritoneal malignancy, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction

80
Q

What is Budd chiari

A

Hepatic vein thrombosis where inc risk of polycythemia vera, pregnancy, thrombophilia and COCP

81
Q

Budd chiari symptoms

A

sudden onset severe abdo pain
ascites
hepatomegaly

82
Q

Features of PBC

A

Middle aged woman with abdo pain
Inc bile acids: steatorrhoea, pruritus
Inc bilirubin: jaundice
Inc cholesterol: xanthalasma
liver cirrhosis end stage

rule of m’s!! Middle aged, igM, Mitrochondrial ab

83
Q

Ix + mx for PBC

A

Lfts cholestatic (inc alP/bili)
AMA antimitrochondrial ab
IgM
Liver biopsy diagnostic

Ursodeoxycholic acid, colestyramine, fat soluble vitamins, liver transplant

84
Q

Associations of PSC vs PBC

A

PSC: UC, cholangiocarcinoma, cirrhosis, strictures

PBC: sjogrens, RA, hypothyroidism, hepatocellular carcinoma

85
Q

Complications of liver cirrhosis

A

Hepatorenal syndrome
Encephalopathy
SBP
Malnutrition
Varices

86
Q

Symptoms and signs of liver cirrhosis

A

Confusion
Bruising
Pruritus
Fatigue
Weight loss

Asterixis
Jaundice
Hepatomegaly
Ascites
Palmar erythema
Spider naevi
Gynaecomastia
Caput medusa

87
Q

HIV + diarrhoea only - causative organism

A

cryptosporidium parvum (if not started on antiretroviral therapy then this should resolve)

88
Q

Features and mx of campylobacter

A

Prodrome fever/headache
Abdo pain (mimics appendicitis)
Bloody diarrhoea

Clarithromycin if immunocompromised

89
Q

Most common organism causes of acute food poisoning

A

staph aures
bacillus cereus esp if rice
clostridium perfringens

90
Q

Abx for cellulitis if
1. allergy to penicillin
2. on face
3. pregnant

A
  1. clarithromycin
  2. coamoxiclav
  3. erythromycin
91
Q

Combination test for HIV

A

p24 ag and HIV antibody test

(4th generation hiv test)

92
Q

AIDS defining illnesses (CD4<300)

A

kaposis sarcoma (hhv8, brown spots + resp issues)
tb
cervical lymphoma (ebv, single lesion on ct)
CMV
Pneumocystitis jirovecci pneumonia (dry cough, desaturated on exercise, pneumothorax, hepatomegaly - cotrimazole if CD4 <200)
Cryptosporidium (diarrhoea only)
Oesophageal candidiasis
Toxoplasmosis (ring enhancing lesions on CT - needs pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine (remember if no HIV no treatment)
Hairy leukoplakia

93
Q

Contact with HepB patient mx

A

If responded to vaccine just booster
If haven’t responded to vaccine then booster + hep bh immune globulin

94
Q

Mx of tetanus prone wound

A

If <10 years since vaccine just debridement
If >10 years, tetanus booster vaccine, if high risk wound also tetanus Ig

95
Q

Gold standard Ix and Mx for typhoid fever

A

Ix: stool culture
Mx: IV ceftriaxone, need 3 neg cultures before work

96
Q

Definition of pyrexia of unknown origin

A

> 38C
ill for >3 weeks
1 week inpatient ix

think infection (tb/endocarditis), malig, autoimmune

97
Q

Causative organism of dengue fever

A

arbovirus (flavivirus)

98
Q

Features of dengue fever

A

Sudden onset fever
Severe myalgia
Retro-orbital headache
Pleuritic chest pain
Maculopapular rash 5 days post fever

99
Q

Features of HepC

A

Initial transient rise in ALT/jaundice
Fatigue
Arthralgia
Then 80% go on to develop chronic cirrhosis
HCV ag +
Responds well to antivirals
Hepatocellular carcinoma big complication

100
Q

What to do if hep b + pregnant

A

babies born need complete course of vaccination + hepbIg

101
Q

Is there inc risk of hepatocellular cancer in HepA

A

No

Most common hep in world via faecal oral. RNA. IgM ab.

102
Q

Which type of hepatitis is only DNA virus

103
Q

Features of allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

A

bronchiectasis
eosinophilia
inc igE
sputum: eosinophils + fungal hyphae
needs steroids

104
Q

Features of lymes disease

A

borrelia burgdorferi
erythema migraines
headache
fatigue
arthralgia
heart block
facial nerve palsy
Needs doxycycline

105
Q

Mx of alcoholic ketoacidosis

A

iv thiamine and 0.9% nacl

106
Q

Prophylactic abx if ascites + low ascitic fluid protein <15

A

oral ciprofloxacin

107
Q

What kind of pulmonary fibrosis in ankylosing spondylitis

A

apical fibrosis

108
Q

Why is clubbing a bad sign in COPD

A

Don’t get clubbing in COPD, think cancer!!

109
Q

How long do u need symptoms to have chronic fatigue syndrome diagnosis

110
Q

Borders for chest drain

A

Base of axilla, lateral pectoralis major, 5th intercostal space, anterior latissimus dorsi

111
Q

Best marker for assessing function of liver

A

prothrombin time

112
Q

Features of diphtheria

A

grey pharynx /tonsils
sore throat
fever
complete heart block
needs IM penicillin

113
Q

Mx legionella pneumonia

A

erythromycin

114
Q

What is a parapnuemonic effusion

A

pleural effusion for pneumonia

115
Q

Organism causes of lung abscess

A

aures
kleb
pseudo

116
Q

How to know if COPD patient is retainer

A

inc pco2
normal ph
high bicarb

117
Q

Fat embolism triad

A

petechial rash
sob
confusion

118
Q

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy

A

clubbing
arthralgia
periostea new bone formation

119
Q

Example of a SAMA, LABA, LAMA

A

SAMA: ipratropium
LABA: formeterol
LAMA: tiotropium

120
Q

Signs of severe c diff infection

A

WCC > 15 * 10 9/L
a significant rise in creatinine
hypotension
ileus
toxic megacolon

121
Q

Lymphoma associated with H pylori

A

B cell MALT lymphoma

122
Q

Lymphoma associated with coeliac

A

enteropathy T cell associated lymphoma

123
Q

Prophylactic abx for ascites

A

oral cipro

124
Q

Ix for liver cirrhosis

A

fbc (thrombocytopenia)
lfts (dec albumin)
clotting (inc inr)
liver screen (Ama/sma, caerulop, hep b/c, iron studies)
uss (nodules, ascites, enlarged portal vein)
fibroscan
endoscopy every 3 years
afp every 6 months

125
Q

Abx choice if allergic to penicillin + bite

A

doxy + metron

126
Q

Do you give abx for pyrexia unknown origin

127
Q

Symptoms of typhoid fever

A

fever
malaise
abdo pain
constip/diarr
dry cough
rose spots
bradycardia
hepatosplenomegaly

128
Q

LP findings for meningitis

A

bacterial: dec glucose, inc protein
viral: dec protein
tb: dec glucose, inc protein

129
Q

Features diphtheria

A

grey mucus membrane
cervical lymphadenopathy
heart block
needs IM penicillin + antitoxin

130
Q

xray findings for psoriatic arthritis

A

periarticular erosions
bone resorption
pencil cup (central joint erosions)

131
Q

hypersensitivity type of sle