Surgery

Question 1

When is an equine castration usually performed? Answer is a range in years.

Answer 1

(1-2 years)

Question 2

Through what layers are you incising in an open castration? Three answers.

Answer 2

(Skin, SQ, and parietal tunic of the testis)

Question 3

What size of horse is open castration typically used for and why?

Answer 3

(Larger horses, they will have larger vasculature and spermatic cord which can be more difficult to use the emasculator on together as you would in a closed castration)

Question 4

Through what layers are you incising in a closed castration? Two answers.

Answer 4

(Skin and SQ)

Question 5

What is the purpose of the small incision made into the parietal tunic in a modified closed castration?

Answer 5

(Allows access to the vasculature)

Question 6

What incision will you perform first in a paired scrotal approach if your patient is in right lateral recumbency?

Answer 6

(The right incision → whatever is on the bottom so you don’t cover the next incision site with blood)

Question 7

What operative site is typically chosen in ruminants and camelids for a c-section? Be specific.

Answer 7

(Left flank)

Question 8

What operative site is typically chosen in swine for a c-section?

Answer 8

(Paramedian)

Question 9

What operative site is typically chosen in mares for a c-section?

Answer 9

(Ventral midline)

Question 10

Do you have less tension on the surgical site for a c-section in a ruminant if they are standing or in dorsal recumbency (choose one)?

Answer 10

(Standing)

Question 11

What complication do you risk when performing a dorsal recumbent c-section in a ruminant?

Answer 11

(Bloat/regurg)

Question 12

What is the major concern with sedating or administering an epidural in a standing c-section patient?

Answer 12

(That they will go down in the rear during sx)

Question 13

Why are sutures partial thickness when closing the uterus after a c-section?

Answer 13

(To make sure you are not incorporating the placenta)

Question 14

What type of suture pattern should be used for closing the uterus after a c-section?

Answer 14

(Inverting patterns such as cushings, lembert, or utrecht)

Question 15

In which approach will you have to suture the peritoneum and transversus abdominis with simple continuous, the external and internal abdominal oblique muscles with simple continuous, and the skin/fascia with ford interlocking?

Answer 15

(Flank approach)

Question 16

What layers need to be closed in a ventral midline approach?

Answer 16

(Linea alba (which can be done with interrupted horizontal mattress, cruciate, or simple continuous) and the fascia/skin (typically with ford interlocking))

Question 17

What structure and everything caudal to it will receive analgesia if you perform a lumbosacral epidural in a pig?

Answer 17

(Caudal to the umbilicus, this includes the hind limbs so they may go down)

Question 18

(T/F) If suture is absorbable, that means it is entirely gone from the body by 60 days.

Answer 18

(F, it means it will have a rapid loss of tensile strength at some point before 60 days, may remain past 60 days but will have no tensile strength)

Question 19

Do natural or synthetic suture types have a more predictable tensile strength loss?

Answer 19

(Synthetic)

Question 20

Do natural or synthetic suture types have memory?

Answer 20

(Synthetic)

Question 21

What are the trade offs for using monofilament versus multifilament?

Answer 21

(Multi - improved handling but nidus for infection and absorbs fluid, mono - not a nidus for infection and does not absorb fluid but not as easy to handle)

Question 22

Describe surgical gut/catgut suture. Type, filament, and absorbability.

Answer 22

(Natural, multifilament, absorbable suture)

Question 23

What is the primary difference between chromic gut and catgut?

Answer 23

(Chromic gut has decrease tissue reaction compared to catgut; also has increased tensile strength and resistance to degradation)

Question 24

Why is the loss of tensile strength for chromic gut increased in infected wounds?

Answer 24

(Chromic gut is degraded by macrophages and there are a lot of macrophages in infected wounds)

Question 25

Describe vicryl suture. Type, filament, and absorbability.

Answer 25

(Synthetic, multifilament, absorbable)

Question 26

Does vicryl degrade faster in an alkaline or acidic environment?

Answer 26

(Alkaline)

Question 27

Describe monocryl suture. Type, filament, and absorbability.

Answer 27

(Synthetic, monofilament, absorbable)

Question 28

Describe PDS suture. Type, filament, and absorbability.

Answer 28

(Synthetic, monofilament, absorbable)

Question 29

How are vicryl, monocryl, and PDS degraded?

Answer 29

(By hydrolysis)

Question 30

Describe silk suture. Type, filament, and absorbability.

Answer 30

(Natural, multifilament, nonabsorbable)

Question 31

Describe nylon suture. Type, filament, and absorbability.

Answer 31

(Synthetic, monofilament, nonabsorbable)

Question 32

Describe polypropylene suture. Type, filament, and absorbability.

Answer 32

(Synthetic, monofilament, nonabsorbable)

Question 33

Which of the following suture materials is the least thrombogenic.
Vicryl
Catgut
Silk
Polypropylene

Answer 33

(D)

Question 34

Describe braunamid suture. Type, filament, and absorbability.

Answer 34

(Synthetic, multifilament, nonabsorbable)

Question 35

What type of needle would you reach for if suturing viscera, muscle, and/or SQ?

Answer 35

(Taper needle)

Question 36

What type of needle would you reach for if suturing skin, SQ, and/or intradermal?

Answer 36

(Reverse cutting)

Question 37

(T/F) In a case of mammary neoplasia in a dog, there is no difference in outcome based on the surgical procedure chosen and performed unless there is incomplete resection.

Answer 37

(T)

Question 38

What is the most common feline mammary neoplasia?

Answer 38

(Adenocarcinoma)

Question 39

You are presented with a 1 year old intact female cat with no litter and not currently pregnant with very large mammary glands; besides neoplasia, what would be on your differential list?

Answer 39

(Fibromatous hyperplasia)