Neonatology Flashcards
Covers: Assessment of the Normal SA Neonate; The Compromised SA Neonate; Normal and Compromised LA Neonate; FPT and Septicemia; Normal Development and Maturation; FA Production; GI Disorders
Small animal neonatal rectal temperatures are typically lower or higher than those of adult animals?
(Lower)
What does the apgar score indicate?
(Viability of the neonate)
Do you want a higher or lower apgar score for your neonates?
(Higher, means better viability, vitality and prognosis)
What are the three neonatal reflexes that should be tested and strong in small animal neonates?
(Nursing, rooting, and righting)
A respiratory rate greater than what value in a small animal neonate is indicative of something pathologic?
(40 breaths per minute)
(T/F) Puppies and kittens should gain weight everyday until somewhere around 4-5 months of age.
(T)
What is the major source of maternal antibodies in puppies and kittens?
(Colostrum)
Does breeding two cats of the same blood type prevent neonatal isoerythrolysis in kittens?
(Yes)
When should you introduce gruel to small animal neonates?
(3-4 weeks of age)
Weaning should be completed in puppies and kittens by what time period?
(6-8 weeks)
What body system should be matured by 8 weeks in puppies and kittens?
(Cardiovascular system)
At what age can puppies and kittens thermoregulate?
(4 weeks or greater)
What must the rectal temperature be before you should feed a puppy/kitten?
(> 96 degrees F)
What is the maximum comfortable stomach capacity for a small animal neonate?
(4ml/100g)
What are the small animal neonates’ worst enemies (the three Hs)?
(Hypothermia, hypoglycemia, and hypovolemia)
When do small animal neonates gain the ability to thermoregulate? Answer is a range of weeks.
(4-6 weeks of age)
Why can bloat and/or aspiration pneumonia result from hypothermia in a small animal neonate?
(Hypothermia induces paralytic ileus of the GI tract which leads to aspiration pneumonia and/or bloat)
In a hypothermic small animal neonate, what temperature do they need to be before you can give them warm milk to aid in warming them up?
(>/= 96 degrees F)
What is the shock bolus dose for a small animal neonate?
(30-40 ml/kg)
When does deworming start in canine neonates?
(2 weeks of age, continues every 2 weeks until year-round control is started)
(T/F) The fetal neurologic system is fully developed in precocial species.
(T)
Physical (warmth, buoyancy) and chemical (inhibitory neurosteroids) factors are used to keep the fetus in what state while in-utero?
(Sleeping state)
What event during parturition initiates hypoxia and hypercarbia in the neonate which stimulates respiration?
(Rupture of the umbilical cord)
As pulmonary blood flow increases in a neonate, right-sided heart pressure decreases or increases (choose one) while the left-sided heart pressure decreases or increases (choose one).
(Right sided heart pressure decreases while left sided heart pressure increases)
What fetal structures close as a result of the change in pressure within the neonatal heart? Two answers.
(Foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus)
Why do foals have a low tolerance for premature births?
(Bc their HPA axis does not start to active until 5 days prior to birth and the HPA axis is very important for postnatal life)
(T/F) It is normal for a foal to be hypoglycemic in the first few hours of life.
(T)
What is the purpose of the large animal neonatal GI tract being permeable to macromolecules in the first 12 to 24 hours post birth?
(Most importantly, to readily absorb the immunoglobulins from the mother’s colostrum)
(T/F) The urachus is always sealed fully at birth.
(F, can seal after birth and that can be normal)
Which of the following is true about a typical normal foal at birth?
A - They are initially bradycardic (60-80 bpm) then tachycardic (150-175 bpm)
B - They are initially tachycardic (150-175 bpm) then bradycardic (60-80 bpm)
C - They are born with a normal neonatal heart rate (80-100 bpm)
D - They are initially bradycardic (60-80 bpm) then have a normal neonatal heart rate (80-100 bpm)
(A) - They are initially bradycardic (60-80 bpm) then tachycardic (150-175 bpm)
Which of the following is false about a normal foal at birth?
A - Their normal range of temperature is 99-101.8 oF
B - Immediately postpartum their temperature may drop to 98.6 F
C - Immediately postpartum their temperature may increase to 102.5 F
D - Their temperature is generally poorly regulated
(C) - Immediately postpartum their temperature may increase to 102.5 F
Foals are considered definitively premature if they are born before what day of gestation?
(320 days)
What is the term for if a foal is born at a normal gestation length but has a small body size, low birth weight, rounded forehead, silky hair coat, floppy ears, flexor and articular laxity due to incomplete ossification, and generalized weakness?
(The foal is dysmature, born to term but with signs of prematurity)
How much IgG consumption is considered adequate transfer of passive immunity in a foal?
(If they received > 800 mg/dL)
How much IgG consumption is considered partial failure of transfer of passive immunity in a foal?
(If they received < 800 mg/dL but > 400 mg/dL)
How much IgG consumption is considered complete failure of transfer of passive immunity in a foal?
(If they received < 400 mg/dL)
Which of the following tests can be used in foals to estimate IgG concentrations?
A - Serum total protein concentrations
B - Serum total globulin concentrations
C - Serum GGT concentrations
(B, has similar sensitivity and specificity to the snap test; A is useful in non-dehydrated calves and C is used in carnivores or calves)
Which of the following is not normal for a cria?
A - Body temperature of 100-102 oF
B - Heart rate 60-90 bpm
C - Respiratory rate 10-30 bpm
D - All of the above are normal
(D)
What are the two primary signs that clients can use to monitor the health of their criations?
(Weight gain and activity)
(T/F) Crias born at night often have problems and are considered immediately as high risk.
(T)
A total solids of 5.2 in a cria is considered adequate TPI, partial FTPI, or complete FTPI (choose one).
(Partial FTPI, complete is < 5 g/dl and adequate is above 5.5 g/dl)
What causes the clinical signs of infection?
(The host inflammatory response to the presence of pathogenic microorganisms)
What diagnostic test is strongly indicated in severely ill foals who you suspect have septicemia?
(Blood culture → allows for identification of infectious agent and antimicrobial susceptibility testing)
What blood glucose values have been associated with a poor prognosis for survival in foals? Two answers.
(< 50 mg/dL or >180 mg/dL)
What blood chemistry value is an indicator of impaired perfusion and if elevated post 24 hours of life is a clear indicator of need for critical care in a foal?
(Lactate)
(T/F) A low serum amyloid A value rules out the possibility of a bacterial infection.
(F, normal values (even below 10 mg/L) do not rule out the possibility of infection, instead used as a trend while treating)
What is one of the most important therapies when it comes to treating a septicemic foal?
(Nursing care such as providing a clean, dry, warm environment)
(T/F) There are no equine colostrum replacers available.
(T)
Why do you have to administer antibodies parenterally in a foal who has FTPI if they have been alive for more than 24 hours?
(Bc the GI tract will no longer be permeable to immunoglobulins like it is in the first 24 hours of life)
The combination of what two classes of antibiotics is typically used in a septicemic foal?
(Beta-lactams and aminoglycosides)
What is the maintenance rate of resuscitation fluids in a foal?
(2 ml/kg/hr)
What can isotonic fluids be supplemented with to correct hypoglycemia in a septicemic foal?
(50% dextrose, 50-100ml per liter of fluids)
When do puppies and kittens’ eyes and ears open? Range of days.
(10-14 days)
When is the dam responsible for stimulating urination and defecation for puppies and kittens?
(From birth to 2 weeks of age)
What is the socialization period for puppies?
(4-12 weeks of age)
When are the fear periods for puppies? Two answers.
(4 weeks of age and 8-10 weeks of age → should avoid strong negative stimuli at these times)
What should be avoided during the puppy fear periods?
(Strong negative stimuli)
What is the socialization period for kittens?
(3-16 weeks of age)
Do puppies or kittens have a longer socialization period?
(Kittens)
If a dam experiences protein energy malnutrition during her pregnancy, what will result in her calves?
(The calves will be less able to generate heat to maintain body temperature)
What body condition is associated with an increased risk of dystocia?
(Overconditioned)
A deficiency in what mineral results in cardiomyopathy which leads to stillbirths and poor suckling?
(Selenium)
A deficiency in what mineral results in weak calves, increased number of stillbirths, and swayback in kids and lambs?
(Copper)
What is done to prevent pregnancy toxemia in small ruminants? Be specific.
(Increase grain ingestion during the last 6 weeks of gestation, 1-2 lbs per head per day)
Small ruminants experience hypocalcemia/hypercalcemia (choose one) during late gestation so calcium is supplemented in/removed from (choose one) their diet.
(Hypocalcemia; supplemented by adding limestone/calcium carbonate to their mineral mix)
Dairy cow energy is restricted 60 days prior to parturition, termed the dry period, but during the last how many weeks of gestation are they placed on a transition diet to prepare them for their lactation diet?
(The last 2-3 weeks)
The administration of what type of medication stimulates maturational events in the fetal lungs, kidneys, liver, and GI tract which is important to do if planning on inducing a dam?
(Glucocorticoids)
When should ruminant neonates be able to get into sternal recumbency after birth?
(Within 5 minutes)
When should small ruminant neonates be standing after birth?
(Within 10-20 minutes)
When should calves be standing after birth?
(Within 20-30 minutes)
When should piglets be standing after birth?
(Within 3-5 minutes)
When should calves be nursing after birth?
(Within 45-90 minutes)
When should small ruminant neonates be nursing after birth?
(Within 30-45 minutes)
When should piglets be nursing after birth?
(Within 25-35 minutes)
How much colostrum should a calf consume within the first 2 hours of life?
(7.5% of their body weight, will then consume another 7.5% within the next 6-12 hours of birth)
How much colostrum should small ruminant neonates and piglets consume within the first 2 hours of life?
(5% of the body weight)
Of the pathogens listed below, all of which can be passed via colostrum, which is destroyed when colostrum is frozen?
A - Caprine arthritis encephalitis
B - Ovine progressive pneumonia
C - Johne’s disease
D - Mycoplasmosis
E - Bovine leukemia virus
(E, but freezing also destroys cellular function so frozen colostrum will only provide humoral immunity and not cellular (it’s not included in the basic t-mobile plan :P cause…cellular…i’m tired))
A food animal neonates temperature falling below what temperature is considered hypothermia?
(98 degrees)
How many times a day should newborn ruminants be fed?
(4 times a day; dairy calves are an exception, 3 is best)
When should newborn piglets be fed if they do not have a sow to naturally feed on?
(Every 3 hours)
When should you drop down from 4 feedings to 3 feedings a day in food animal neonates?
(At 4 days of age)
When should you drop down from 3 feedings to 2 feedings a day in food animal neonates?
(At 2 weeks of age)
What portion of the milk replacer should be increased during the winter?
(Fat, winter milk replacer should have a higher fat content than summer milk replacer)
What should the percentage of fiber content be in milk replacer?
(Less than 1%)
What should be the first two ingredients of milk replacer that indicate a higher quality than other replacers that do not have these first two ingredients?
(Whey and dried powdered milk)
When are iron injections administered in piglets to prevent iron deficiency when they deplete their liver iron stores by 7 days post birth?
(Iron injections are given at 2 days after birth)
