Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

List the pre-op considerations

A
  • history including SHx and whether patient fit for GA
  • examine patient
  • organise investigations
  • ASA score (1-6)
  • gain consent - give patient the benefits, risks, alternative options (ensure they are competent)
  • prophylaxis - VTE and abx
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2
Q

What is ASA grading?

A

shorthand to communicate the broad level of systemic function for a patient

grading can help to decide which pre-op investigations are useful

ASA grading between 1-6

1 = healthy patient, 6 = declared brain dead and the organs are being removed for donor purposes

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3
Q

If you smoke, but are otherwise completely healthy, what is your ASA grade?

A

smoking automatically puts the ASA grade up by 1 so ASA 2

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4
Q

What is the 2-level DVT Wells score?

A

If patient is suspected to have a DVT we use his scoring system to assess

If score >= 2 DVT is likely therefore organise proximal leg US within 4 hours

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5
Q

What are the clinical features listed in the Wells score?

A
  • active cancer
  • Paralysis, paresis or recent plaster immobilisation of the lower extremities
  • bedridden for 3 days or major surgery within 12 weeks
  • entire leg swollen
  • calf swelling >= 3cm larger than symptomatic side
  • pitting oedema in symptomatic leg only
  • collateral superficial veins
  • previous DVT
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6
Q

What are the risk factors for DVT?

A
  • active cancer/chemotherapy
  • aged over 60
  • known blood clotting disorder (e.g. thrombophilia)
  • BMI over 35
  • dehydration
  • one or more significant medical comorbidities (e.g. heart disease; metabolic/endocrine pathologies; respiratory disease; acute infectious disease and inflammatory conditions)
  • critical care admission
  • use of hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
  • use of the combined oral contraceptive pill
  • varicose veins
  • pregnant or less than 6 weeks post-partum
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7
Q

What happens in a VTE risk assessment?

A

All patients admitted to hospital are assesssed for individual risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk

Decision can be made whether to start VTE prophylaxis or not - start ASAP

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8
Q

What are the mechanical VTE prophylaxis types?

A
  • compression stockings

- flowtron boots (intermittent pneumatic compression device)

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9
Q

What are the pharmacological VTE prophylaxis types?

A
  • LMWH (enoxaparin) - caution in renal patients
  • fondaparinux sodium (SC)
  • patients with CKD are offered unfractionated heparin (rather than LMWH)
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10
Q

What surgical procedures require VTE prophylaxis for all patients?

A

hip and knee replacement post surgery

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11
Q

What is Virchow’s triad (factors that contribute to thrombosis)?

A

endothelial injury
hypercoaguable state
blood stasis

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12
Q

How much of the human body is made of fluids?

A

60%

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13
Q

When we administer fluids, which compartment are we influencing?

A

intravascular fluid (plasma) of the extracellular compartment

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14
Q

How much K+ and Na+ do we need everyday?

A

K+ 0.5 mmol/kg/day

Na+ 1-2 mmol/kg/day

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15
Q

What factors affect fluid prescription?

A
  • pre-existing = renal failure, BP, congestive CF (pulmonary oedema), liver failure, age and fragility
  • post-op = NBM, blood loss, V&D, obstruction, ileus
  • end organ damage = AKI, pulmonary oedema, sepsis
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16
Q

How can fluid status be assessed?

A
  • OBS - pulse, BP, RR, O2 sats, stool chart
  • daily weights
  • exam = JVP, cap refill, skin turgor, tongue, mucus membranes
  • investigations - blood tests (renal function - U&Es)
  • imaging
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17
Q

What is the normal urine output?

A

0.5 ml/kg/hr

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18
Q

What is a fluid challenge?

A

bolus of 500ml crystalloid (0.9% saline) over less than 15 minutes

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19
Q

What are the different types of fluids?

A

-5% dextrose
-crystalloids - 0.9% NaCl + Hartmann’s solution
(Can add K+ into bags)

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20
Q

If someone is acutely bleeding what fluids do we give them?

A

blood products - packed red cells, FFP (clotting factors), platelets, factor concentrates

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21
Q

On admission, what routine bloods are required?

A

G&S and clotting screen

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22
Q

Why is nutrition so important in surgical patients?

A

these patients are metabolically stressed and have increased energy requirements

malnutrition leads to infections, decreased healing, wound breakdown, death

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23
Q

What is the difference between enteral and paraenteral feeding?

A

enteral = refers to delivery of food via the GIT

paraenteral = refers to the delivery of calories and nutrients into a vein (bypasses GIT)/venous system via PIC or central line

24
Q

What are the different types of enteral nutrition tubes?

A
  • nasogastric
  • nasoduodenal
  • gastrostomy
  • jujunostomy
  • nasojejunal
25
Describe the WHO pain ladder
Step 1 = mild pain - non-opioids (paracetamol +/- NSAIDs) Step 2 = moderate pain - weak opioids (codeine, tramadol) Step 3 = severe pain - strong opioids (morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl)
26
What local anaesthetic can be given to patients?
lignocaine or lidocaine (1% = 10mg/ml) safe dose = 3mg/kg (with adrenaline for vascularised areas like scalp) = 7mg/kg
27
List some post-op complications
Immediate (hrs) - bleeding, pain, ischaemia, infection - aspiration Early (days) - infection - VTE/PE - MI - ileus - pressure sores - electrolyte abnormalities Late (weeks) - scar related - wound dehiscence - MI/HF - nutrition related
28
Colorectal cancer 2 week referral criteria
- significant change in bowel habit - rectal bleeding - palpable rectal masses - unintentional weight loss
29
What are the red flag sx for gastro hx?
- unintentional weight loss - Fe deficiency anaemia - haematemesis - malaena - significant change in bowel habit
30
If someone has suspected colorectal cancer what happens?
- they have a colonoscopy - if any masses, need to take biopsies (6-8-biopsy is sent to the histopathologist - cancer nurse specialist counsels the patient - radiologist stages the cancer by CT thorax, abdomen, pelvis (TNM) - MDT meeting is organised
31
Who are the core members of the MDT for colorectal cancer?
- suregon - oncologist - cancer nurse specialist - radiologist - histopathologist
32
How long is the rectum and how many sections is it made up of?
15cm, split into 1/3s
33
What is a right sided hemicolectomy?
Resection of the bowel if there is a cancer in the caecal, ascending or proximal transverse colon Ileo-colic anastamosis
34
What is a left sided hemi-colectomy?
Resection of the bowel if there is a cancer in the distal transverse or descending colon Colo-colon anastamosis
35
What is an anterior resection?
removal of the upper rectum colo-rectal anastomosis
36
What is an APER (abdomino-perineal excision of rectum)?
if a cancer is present in the anal canal, the whole rectum is removed patient will have a permanent stoma/colostomy
37
What LFTs do the liver cells reflect?
ALT, AST
38
What LFTs do the common bile duct cells reflect?
ALP, GGT (if obstruction = increased bilirubin)
39
What are the 3 types of abdominal pain?
somatic visceral referred
40
Characteristics of somatic pain?
- due to irritated fibres in parietal peritoneum - easy to localise - intense constant pain - aggravated by activity, relived by rest - occurs late
41
Characteristics of visceral pain
- dull, achy, cramping pain - patient cannot stay still - occurs early - only pathological organ involved
42
Characteristics of referred pain
- occurs at site distant from site of stimulation - mechanism unclear - does not cross the midline
43
what is colorectal cancer?
malignancies that arise from beginning of colon, caecum through to the end of the rectum does not include anus or small bowel
44
what are the mutations involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence?
1st - mutation in APC (tumour suppressor) 2nd - mutation in KRAS (protooncogene) 3rd - mutation in p53 4th - mutation in SMAD4
45
where does rectal cancer usually spread?
lungs
46
where do other colorectal cancers usually spread to?
liver
47
what is the NHS screening test of choice for colorectal cancer?
FIT test (from the age of 56) done every 2 years
48
what is the gold standard for colorectal cancer diagnosis?
colonoscopy with biopsy
49
what investigation for diagnosing colorectal cancer is used in those declining endosocopy?
CT pneumocolon - CT scan of colon, non invasive requires bowel prep - laxative inflation of the bowel and then CT scan
50
tests for suspected clolorectal cancer
``` bloods FBC serum ion, transferrin, TIBC U&Es LFTs clotting CEA ```
51
what are the 3 stoma types?
colostomy ileostomy urostomy
52
what are the features of a colostomy ?
LIF solid stool in bag flushed
53
what are the features of ileostomy?
located in RIF liquid faeces spouted - doesnt touch skin
54
what are the features of urostomy
RIF - typically after cystectomy urine in the stoma bag
55
what are the 2 main herediatry syndromes that causes colorectal cancer?
Lynch syndrome FAP both autosomal dominant
56
what other cancers is lynch syndrome associated with?
``` endometrial ovarian small bowel stomach gallbladder liver brain renal tract ```
57
what management is required in a child known to have FAP?
screening from the age of 12 (colonoscopies) prophylactic ileostomy (before the age of 25)