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Surgery (1-6) Flashcards

1
Q

4 overarching reasons to do surgery

A

diagnostic, prophylactic, therapeutic, palliative

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2
Q

-lysis means…

A

breakdown

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3
Q

-itis means…

A

inflammation

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4
Q

-megaly means…

A

enlargement

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5
Q

-rrhage means…

A

bursting forth

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6
Q

-rrhea means…

A

flow

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7
Q

-sclerosis means…

A

hardening

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8
Q

-stenosis means…

A

narrowing

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9
Q

-malacia

A

softening

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10
Q

-algia means…

A

pain

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11
Q

-dynia means…

A

pain

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12
Q

-coele means…

A

cavity/space

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13
Q

-ectasia means…

A

dilation

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14
Q

-plegia means…

A

paralysis

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15
Q

-ptosis means…

A

displacement

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16
Q

-ptysis means…

A

spitting

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17
Q

-centesis means…

A

puncture to remove

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18
Q

-desis means…

A

fusion

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19
Q

-ectomy means…

A

excision

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20
Q

-stasis means…

A

stopping or controlling

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21
Q

-stomy means…

A

new opening

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22
Q

-otomy means…

A

process of cutting into

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23
Q

-plasty means…

A

reshaping or reconstructing

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24
Q

-pexy means…

A

surgical fixation in one place

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25
Q

-rrhaphy means…

A

join by suture

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26
Q

-plication means…

A

folding of a structure onto itself

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27
Q

cystocentesis means…

A

drain bladder with a needle

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28
Q

enterotomy means…

A

cut into intestine

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29
Q

name Halstead’s 6 principles of surgery

A
  1. aseptic technique
  2. sharp anatomic dissection
  3. gentle tissue handling
  4. careful hemostasis
  5. avoid tension
  6. obliteration of dead space
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30
Q

what are the 3 reasons for Halstead’s principles of surgery

A
  1. reduced dehiscence
  2. rapid wound healing
  3. prevention of infection
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31
Q

name the 5 features/steps of aseptic technique

A
  1. theater preparation
  2. instrument prep
  3. surgeon prep
  4. patient prep
  5. maintain asepsis
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32
Q

what can excessive tension lead to

A

dehiscence (wound bursting open)

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33
Q

why is the obliteration of dead space important?

A

minimize serum and hematoma formation;
maximize healing

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34
Q

why is careful hemostasis important in surgery

A

minimize hematoma and contusion

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35
Q

these are the primary cutting instruments used to incise tissues

A

scalpels

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36
Q

this scalpel blade is the most commonly used in small animal surgery for incision and excision of tissues

A

no. 10 blade

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37
Q

this scalpel blade is ideal for stab incisions into fluid-filled structures or organs

A

no.11 blade

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38
Q

this scalpel blade is small and used for precise incisions in smaller tissues

A

no.15 blade

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39
Q

this grip of a scalpel allows shorter, finer, and more precise incisions; scape is help at 30 degrees to tissue

A

pencil grip

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40
Q

this grip of a scalpel offers the best accuracy and stability for long incisions

A

fingertip grip

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41
Q

these needle holders are ratchet, used for medium to coarse needles

A

Mayo-Hegar

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42
Q

these needle holders are ratchet with scissor blades that allows suture to be tied and cut with the same instrument

A

Olsen-Hegar

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43
Q

these needle holders have a ratchet lock at the proximal end

A

Mathieu

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44
Q

these needle holders have a spring and lock mechanism

A

Castroviejo

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45
Q

name the needle holder grip

no fingers are placed in the rings, and the upper ring rests against the ball of the thumb

A

palmed grip

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46
Q

name the needle holder grip

the upper ring rests on the ball of the thumb and the 4th finger is inserted through the lower ring

A

thenar grip

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47
Q

name the needle holder grip

held with the tips of the thumb placed through the upper ring and the 4th finger through the lower ring. the 2nd finger rests on the shanks near the fulcrum. rings should be kept near the distal finger joint

A

tripod grip

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48
Q

name the needle holder grip

thumb and 2nd finger rest on the shafts of the needl holder

A

pencil grip

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49
Q

name the surgical instrument

variety of shapes, sizes and weights classified according to type of point, blade shape, or cutting edge

A

scissors

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50
Q

name the type of scissor

designed for sharp and blunt dissection or incision of finer tissues

A

Metzenbaum

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51
Q

name the type of scissor

for cutting dense, heavy tissue, such as fascia

A

Mayo

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52
Q

name the type of scissor

used to cut sutures but these are separate instruments from those used to cut tissue

A

Heavy scissors

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53
Q

name the type of scissor

have a concavity on one blade to gently hook the suture away from the skin and facilitate easy removal

A

Skin suture scissors

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54
Q

name the type of scissor

fine, precise cuts, opthalmic procedures and otehr meticulous surgeries, such as perineal urethrostomy

A

Tenotomy scissors or Iris scissors

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55
Q

what grip should you use with scissors

A

tripod grip

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56
Q

name the surgical instrument

tweezer-like, non-locking instruments used to grasp tissue; tips may be pointed, flat, round, smooth, or serrated

A

tissue (thumb) forceps

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57
Q

which hand should tissue (thumb) forceps be held in?

A

non-dominant hand

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58
Q

what grip should be used for tissue (thumb) forceps

A

pencil grip

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59
Q
A
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60
Q

name the type of hemostat forcep

has transverse serrations that extend the entire length of the jaws

A

crile forceps

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61
Q

name the type of hemostat forcep

transverse serrations extend only over the diatal portion of the jaws

A

Kelly forceps

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62
Q

name the type of hemostat forcep

larger, crushing forceps often used to control large tissue bundles, such as during an ovariohysterectomy

A

Rochester-Carmalt forceps

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63
Q

name the term

surgical excision of part of the stomach

A

gastrectomy

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64
Q

define the term

nephrotomy

A

incision into a kidney

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65
Q

define the procedure

paracentesis

A

perforation or tapping of a body cavity with a needle

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66
Q

this is the exclusion of all pathogenic microorganisms before they can enter an open surgical wound or contaminate a sterile field during surgery

A

surgical asepsis

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67
Q

the destruction of all micro-organisms on all inanimate objects

A

sterilization

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68
Q

this is the destruction of pathogenic organisms on inanimate objects

A

disinfection

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69
Q

this is the destruction or inhibition of growth of most pathogenic micro-organisms on animate organisms

A

antisepsis

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70
Q

name 3 sources of contamination that threaten surgical field

A
  1. animal
  2. inanimate
  3. airborne
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71
Q

name the 3 hand scrubbing technique options for surgery

A
  1. timed anatomic brush stroke method
  2. counted brush stroke method
  3. sterilium
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72
Q

what parts of the surgical gown is considered sterile

A

front of gown from chest level to sterile field, sleeves from 2” below elbow to cuff

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73
Q

what skin antiseptic has the most rapid kill rates

A

alcohols

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74
Q

this option for wrapping surgical packs is soft, reusable, inexpensive and absorbent BUT penetrative to bacteria

A

woven

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75
Q

this option for wrapping surgical packs is an effective barrier and water resistant

A

non-woven

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76
Q

name the method of sterilization

for heat-tolerant medical supplies, instruments and packaging; temp, pressure and exposure time is critical; rapid destruction of all known microorgansisms

A

steam sterilization (autoclave)

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77
Q

name the method of sterilization

for disposable items as cannot re-sterilize after use; cobalt-60 gamma rays, electron accelerators, expensive

A

ionizing radiation

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78
Q

list some characteristics of the ‘ideal’ suture material

(total of 9)

A
  1. good handling
  2. low tissue reactivity
  3. non-capillary
  4. not support bacterial growth
  5. knot securely
  6. absorb predictably
  7. easy to sterilize
  8. non-carcinogenic/non-allergenic
  9. affordable
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79
Q

this category of suture gradually loses tensile strength and disappears

A

absorbable

80
Q

what are the 2 ways absorbable suture is removed

A

hydrolysis or phagocytosis

81
Q

name the category of suture

single strand, little drag, high memory, non-capillary

A

monofilament

82
Q

name the category of suture

several braided strands, rough/increased drag, capillary, soft/easy to handle, good knot security

A

multifilament

83
Q

name the category of suture

material found in nature, not predictable absorption, enzymatic degradation and phagocytosis

84
Q

name the category of suture

man made material, predictable absorption by hydrolysis

85
Q

name 4 ways a coating can modify surface characteristics of a suture

A
  1. reduce tissue drag
  2. fill internal space
  3. reduced friction/less secure knots
  4. anti-bacterial
86
Q

name the type of knot

even knot, secure and stable, routine go to knot

A

square knot

87
Q

name the type of knot

uneven knot, potential to damage monofilament materials, used if some tension in tissues

A

surgeons knot

88
Q

how many throws for knots in interrupted patterns

89
Q

how many throws for knots in continuous patterns

A

5 throws to start, 6-7 throws to end

90
Q

what shape of needle for skin?

91
Q

what shape of needle for deeper tissues

92
Q

name the type of needle

used for difficult to penetrate tissue, spex of edges on inside curvature

93
Q

name the type of needle

used for difficult to penetrate tissue, apex of edges on outside curvature

A

reverse cutting

94
Q

name the type of needle

separates tissues, pierces without cutting, for easily penetrated tissue

A

round bodied

95
Q

name the type of needle

combination of reverse cutting and round bodied, used for dense, tough fibrous tissue

96
Q

name the type of needle

has a rounded, blunt point that can dissext through friable tissue without cutting, used for soft, parenchymal organs

A

bluntpoint

97
Q

name the type of suture

natural, absorbed by phagocytosis and enzymatic degradation, loses tensile strength rapidly and unpredictably, prepared from sheep/cattle intestinal mucosa/serosa

98
Q

name the type of suture

synthetic monofilament, rapidly absorbabed by hydrolysis, memory-free, highest initial tensile strength

A

Monocryl (poliglecaprone 25)

99
Q

name the type of suture

multifilament, braided synthetic absorbable, coated to reduce tissue drag and improve knotting, absorbed by hydrolysis

A

Vicryl (Polyglactin 910)

100
Q

name the type of suture

synthetic, monofilament, degraded by hydrolysis but at slow rate to provide extended wound support, low tissue drag

A

PDS, PDSii (Polydioxanone)

101
Q

name the type of suture

non-absorbable, monofilament, high tensile strength, high memory (poor knotting and handling), main use for skin sutures

102
Q

name the type of suture

monofilament, strands flatten at knot to enhance holding, virtually inert in tissues, used to repair large tissue defects

A

polypropylene (prolene, premilene, flurofil)

103
Q

name the type of suture

natural, braided multifilament, good handling characteristics, cardiovascular procedures, non-absorbable but do not retain tensile strength after 6 months

104
Q

what are the 4 possible sources of hemorrhage

A
  1. arterial
  2. venous
  3. capillary
  4. mixed
105
Q

what are the 3 time scales for hemorrhage

A
  1. primary
  2. delayed
  3. secondary
106
Q

name the type of hemorrhage (time scale)

immediately after vessel disruption
due to: surgery, trauma, or disorders of primary hemostasis

107
Q

name the type of hemorrhage (time scale)

occurs within 24h of vessel disruption
due to: ligature slip, inappropriate electrocautery, dislodgment of blood clot, disorders of secondary hemostasis

108
Q

name the type of hemorrhage (time scale)

uncommon, occurs 7-14 days post surgery
due to: erosion of vessel by drain, implant, etc

109
Q

name 4 ways to try to avoid primary hemorrhage

A
  1. anatomical knowledge
  2. accurate dissection
  3. avoid vessel
  4. ligate vessel
110
Q

how much blood can a pre-moistened swab hold

111
Q

how much blood can a pre-moistened laparotomy pad hold

A

50 mL blood

112
Q

this is the spontaneous physiological response to hemorrhage designed to control the loss of blood - platelet activation and circulating clotting factors to produce clot

A

hemostasis

113
Q

name 4 ways that hemostasis reduces surgical morbidity

A
  1. reduces infection
  2. improves wound healing
  3. reduces hematoma formation
  4. prevents life threatening hemorrhage
114
Q

name 8 mechanical methods of hemostasis

A
  1. tourniquets
  2. digital pressure
  3. packing
  4. dressings
  5. hemostatic clamps
  6. ligatures
  7. ligating clips
  8. bone wax
115
Q

name 6 thermal methods of hemostasis

A
  1. electrocautery
  2. electrocoagulation
  3. hypothermia
  4. harmonic scalpel
  5. laser
  6. argon beam coagulation
116
Q

name 6 chemical methods of hemostasis

A
  1. vasoconstrictors
  2. absorbable gelatin
  3. collagen
  4. cellulose
  5. MPH
  6. thrombin fibrin sealants and glues
117
Q

name the mechanical method of hemostasis

for distal extremeties; hemorrhage will start again once removed; do NOT use if vascular compromise

A

tourniquet

118
Q

name the mechanical method of hemostasis

provides temporary hemostasis with finger or saline soaked wipes (dab)

A

digital pressure

119
Q

name the mechanical method of hemostasis

pressure applied to bleeding area; absorbs blood and creates pressure

120
Q

name the mechanical method of hemostasis

definitive hemostasis for smaller vessels; temporary occlude larger vessels for subsequent ligation

A

hemostatic forceps/clamps

121
Q

name 5 factors that influence knot security of ligatures

A
  1. type of material
  2. length of cut ends
  3. knot configuration
  4. number of throws
  5. experience
122
Q

name the type of ligature

square knot with 4 throws tied around the vessel

A

simple (circumferential)

123
Q

name the type of ligature

bite of suture through the vessel; one knot placed on opposite side of vessel from bite

A

Halsted transfixing

124
Q

name the type of ligature

first bite through the wall of vessel, single throw, then tie on opposite side with 4 throws

A

modified transfixation ligature

125
Q

name the type of ligature

tie vessel including some of the surrounding tissue

A

tissue ligature

126
Q

name the type of ligature

suture fixed to the wall of the structure; for serosal surface of intestine; rarely used

127
Q

name the mechanical method of hemostasis

prevents bleeding from cancellous bone; soft and kneadable but non-absorbable

128
Q

name the thermal method of hemostasis

heat is generated by direct current in a metal wire/probe and used to cut tissue or coagulate small blood vessels - current does not pass through the patient

A

electrocautery (diathermy)

129
Q

name the thermal method of hemostasis

heat is generated within tissues using alternating current that passes through the tissue itself; converts to heat energy on contact with vessel so vessel shrinks and lumen occludes

A

electrocoagulation (monopolar or bipolar)

130
Q

name the type of electrocoagulation

current flows from handpiece through patient to a ground plate placed under animal
may be used to cut tissue or coagulate vessels

A

monopolar electrocoagulation

131
Q

name the type of electrocoagulation

forceps handpiece; current flows from 1 tip of forceps to the other, passing through tissue being held between the tips
used to coagulate vessels
ground plate not needed

A

bipolar electrocoagulation

132
Q

name the thermal method of hemostasis

cold saline; lot of capillary ooze (nasal surgery)

A

hypothermia

133
Q

name the thermal method of hemostasis

ultrasound energy induced coagulation

A

harmonic scalpel

134
Q

name the thermal method of hemostasis

light energy, CO2

135
Q

name the chemical method of hemostasis

used for vessels too small to ligate;
ex: epinephrine and silver nitrate crystals

A

topical vasoconstrictors

(styptics)

136
Q

name the chemical method of hemostasis

substrate for clot formation (Surgicel)

137
Q

name the chemical method of hemostasis

thrombocyte adhesion and activation of clotting factors (Lyostypt)

138
Q

name the chemical method of hemostasis

swella and has a direct pressure effect

A

absorbable gelatin

(Gelfoam)

140
Q

name the chemical method of hemostasis

biocompatible, absorbed within 24-48h, expand to 5x their original volume

A

Microporous Polysaccharide Hemospheres (MPH)

141
Q

3 ways to manage intra-operate hemorrhage of minor subcutaneous tissue, fat, and muscle

A
  1. dab with saline soaked swab, digital pressure
  2. electrocoagulation
  3. hemostatic clamps +/- ligature
142
Q

2 ways to manage intra-operative hemorrhage of a bleeding bitch spay

A
  1. triple clamp technique
  2. ligate pedicle (circumferential closest to heart; transfixing more towards ovary)
143
Q

this is the presence of microbes on a wound surface

A

contamination

144
Q

this is when surface microbes are replicating

A

colonization

145
Q

this is defined as >10^5 organisms / gram of tissue

A

bacterial infection

146
Q

this is an infection occurring anywhere in the operative field following a surgical procedure

A

surgical site infection (SSI)

147
Q

name the 4 classic signs of inflammation

A
  1. rubor (redness)
  2. calor (heat)
  3. dolor (pain)
  4. tumor (swelling/oedema)
148
Q

what are the 4 classifications of wunds (NRC)

A
  1. clean
  2. clean-contaminated
  3. contaminted
  4. dirty
149
Q

what is the SSI rate for clean wounds

150
Q

what is the SSI rate for clean-contaminated wounds

151
Q

what is the SSI rate for contaminated wounds

152
Q

what is the SSI rate for dirty wounds

153
Q

name the wound classification

non-traumatic elective surgery; no inflammation; no break in aseptic technique; resp, urogenital, & GI tracts not entered

154
Q

name the wound classification

non-traumatic elective incision; GI, urogenital or resp tracts opened under controlled conditions to prevent contamination; minor break in asepsis during clean procedure; clean surgery in which drain is placed

A

clean-contaminated

155
Q

name the wound classification

fresh traumatic wound; major break in asepsis; spillage from GIT; infected urogenital or biliary tract entered

A

contaminated

156
Q

name the wound classification

perforated viscus or fecal contamination; traumatic wound with devitalized tissue; purulent discharge; wounds with a foreign body

157
Q

name 5 reasons prophylactic antibiosis should be considered with clean and clean-contaminated wounds

A
  1. prolonged procedure (>90min)
  2. endocrinopathy or debilitating disease
  3. remote infections
  4. implants placed
  5. drain placed
158
Q

this is when an antibiotic is administered to protect a patient against an anticipated bacterial infection

A

prophylactic antibiotics

159
Q

this is the use of antibiotics to treat an already established infection

A

therapeutic antibiotics

160
Q

name the likely GI pathogens

oesophageal, gastroduodenal

A

enteric gram negative bacilli & gram positive cocci

161
Q

name the likely GI pathogens

biliary tract

A

enteric gram negative bacilli; Enterococci; Clostridia

162
Q

name the likely GI pathogens

colorectal

A

Enteric gram negative bacilli; Anaerobes; Enterococci

163
Q

name the commonly encountered surgical pathogen(s)

genitourinary

A

enteric gram negative bacilli; Enterococci

164
Q

name the commonly encountered surgical pathogen(s)

neurosurgery

A

Staphylococcus

165
Q

name the commonly encountered surgical pathogen(s)

Oropharyngeal

A

enteric gram negative bacilli; Staphylococcus

166
Q

name the commonly encountered surgical pathogen(s)

orthopedic

A

Staphylococcus

167
Q

name 4 ways to minimize risk of surgical infections

A
  1. good surgical technique
  2. wound lavage
  3. closure of dead space
  4. prophylactic antibiosis
168
Q

name 2 features of infection to distinguish it from inflammation

A
  1. purulent exudate
  2. positive culture
169
Q

this is the progressive loss of lean body mass and adipose tissue caused by an inadequate intake OR an increased demand for protein and calories

A

malnutrition

170
Q

3 or more of the following may lead to the diagnosis of what?

  • weight loss >10% normal body weight
  • anorexia/hyporexia >5 days
  • increased nutrient loss
  • increased nutrient needs
  • chronic illness
  • serum albumin <2.5 g/dl
A

protein-calorie malnutrition

171
Q

this is the administration of adequate nutrients to malnourished patients or patients at risk of malnutrition

A

hyperalimentation

172
Q

name the type of hyperalimentation

nutrients provided intravenously through central or peripheral veins - when you can’t use GIT

A

parenteral

173
Q

name the type of hyperalimentation

nutrients provided to a functional GIT via a tube

174
Q

name the type of hyperalimentation

given through a central vein - 100% of nutrition, protein, fat calorie needs

A

total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

175
Q

name the type of hyperalimentation

given through a peripheral vein - part of nutritional needs

A

partial parenteral nutrition (PPN)

176
Q

name the 5 types of feeding tubes for enteral hyperalimentation

A
  1. naso-oesophageal
  2. pharyngostomy
  3. oesophagostomy
  4. gastrostomy
  5. enterostomy
177
Q

name 5 ways to check that a naso-oesophageal tube is placed in the oesophagus NOT the trachea

A
  1. suck back on syringe (negative pressure)
  2. flush with small volume saline (no cough)
  3. inject 10 mL air (borborugmus at xiphoid)
  4. radiograph
  5. visualize tube going into oesophagus with laryngoscope
178
Q

describe how to place a naso-oesophageal feeding tube

A
  • light sedation/topical local anaesthetic OR general anesthesia
  • measure length from nasal plank to 7/8 intercostal space
  • lubricate tip of tube (normal head position)
  • direct tube from ventrolateral aspect of external nares to caudoventral/medial aspect of nasal cavity
    • when you have advanced tube 2-3cm into nostril, elevate external nares dorsally to open ventral meatus
  • advance tube → swallowing reflex at oropharynx will allow tube to enter the oesophagus
179
Q

describe how to place an oesophagostomy feeding tube

A
  • R lateral recumbency under general anaesthesia with an endotracheal tube in place
    • approach to left side of neck (oesophagus is to the left of midline)
  • aseptic preparation of mid-cervical region
  • pre-measure tube from cervical insertion point to 7/8 intercostal space
    • mark length on tube with pen
  • place curved forceps (Rochester-Carmalt) in oral cavity into the oesophagus and advance tips to mid-cervical region
  • palpate tips on left lateral neck
  • push skin up with tips and incise through the skin into oesophagus using a blade
    • push forceps through incision
  • grasp tube and pull through neck incision out of oral cavity
  • redirect tube down the oesophagus using fingers and pull the spare tube back out of the neck
    • change in tube direction will be seen
  • suture the tube in place (Chinese finger trap), bandage, cap tube, leave column of water in tube
    • radiograph to ensure correct placement
180
Q

name 2 indications for oesophagostomy and naso-pharyngeal feeding tubes

A
  1. disorders/traumas of oral cavity/pharynx
  2. anorexic patients

must be a functional distal GIT

181
Q

name 4 contraindications for oesophagostomy and naso-pharyngeal feeding tubes

A
  1. oesophageal disorder
  2. oesophagitis
  3. megaoesophagus
  4. vomiting or regurgitation
182
Q

name an indication for gastrostomy feeding tube

A

surgery/disease of oral cavity, larynx, pharynx, oesophagus w/ functional distal GIT

183
Q

name a contraindication for gastrostomy feeding tube

A

primary gastric disease

(gastritis, ulceration, neoplasia)

184
Q

name the type of gastrostomy tube

stomach tube

A

Blind Percutaneous Gastrostomy

185
Q

name the type of gastrostomy tube

placed using endoscope

A

Percutaneous Endoscopic Gastrostomy (PEG)

186
Q

name the type of gastrostomy tube placement

via flank, minimally invasive approach
secure surgical gastropexy

A

laparotomy placement

187
Q

name the type of gastrostomy tube placement

ventral midline coeliotomy: direct visualization of placement, secure gastropexy, more invasive procedure

A

surgical placement

188
Q

describe how to surgically place a ventral midline coeliotomy gastrostomy tube

A
  • ventral midline coeliotomy incision
  • stab incision into left abdominal wall
  • pull feeding tube through incision into the abdomen
  • purse-string suture in ventrolateral wall of body of the stomach
  • stab incision in center of purse-string suture
  • insert feeding tube tip into the stomach, inflate bulb of feeding tube, tighten purse-string
  • traction on tube to appose stomach and body wall, sexy stomach to body wall using 4 sutures - synthetic absorbable material (PDS)
  • secure tube to skin surface (Chinese finger trap) and close abdomen
189
Q

nme 4 possible complications of gastrostomy tubes

A
  1. peritonitis
  2. vomiting
  3. peri-stomal infection
  4. migration of feeding tube tip into pylorus
190
Q

name 2 metabolic complications of enteral hyperalimentation

A
  1. hyperglycemia due to rapid glucose absorption
  2. refeeding syndrome
191
Q

name 5 advantages of gastrostomy tubes

A
  1. ease of placement
  2. well tolerated
  3. large bore tubes
  4. ease of feeding
  5. oral feeding can still occur
192
Q

name 5 disadvantages of gastrostomy tubes

A
  1. GA required
  2. specialist equipment
  3. enter peritoneal cavity
  4. needs 7-14 days before removal
  5. sever complications if premature removal
193
Q

name 5 advantages of oesophagostomy tubes

A
  1. easy to place
  2. well tolerated
  3. large bore tube
  4. ability to eat and drink around
  5. removal at any time
194
Q

name 1 disadvantage of oesophagostomy tubes

A

requires GA for placement

195
Q

name 4 advantages of naso-oesophageal tubes

A
  1. easy to place
  2. ease of care and feeding
  3. ability to eat and drink around the tube
  4. removal at any time
196
Q

name 4 disadvantages of naso-oesophageal tubes

A
  1. small tube size
  2. risk of tracheal placement
  3. risk of premature removal
  4. short term

CFC (6 decks)

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