Pharmacology (1-24)

Question 1

what does rINN stand for

Answer 1

recognised international non-prprietary name

Question 2

what does BAN stand for

Answer 2

British Approved Name

Question 3

what does USAN stand for

Answer 3

United States Approved Name

Question 4

this determines what the body does to the drug (Absorption, Distrbution, Metabolism, Excretion)

Answer 4

pharmacokinetics

Question 5

name the 4 parts of pharmacokinetics

Answer 5

1. Absorption
2. Distribution
3. Metabolism
4. Excretion

Question 6

this is defined as what the drug does to the body / the relationship to drug concentration at the effect site

Answer 6

pharmacodynamics

Question 7

name the pharmacokinetic model

helps understanding but is not directly relevant for clinical practice

Answer 7

one-compartment model

Question 8

name the pharmacokinetic model

describes movement between compartments; drug is only removed from central compartment

Answer 8

two-compartment model

Question 9

name the pharmacokinetic model

most commonly used to describe clinical scenarios

Answer 9

three-compartment model

Question 10

name the pharmacokinetic model

drug is eliminated from the body, elimination occurs from central compartment

Answer 10

open model

Question 11

name the pharmacokinetic model

drug is recirculated / drug is released into GIT via bile and then reabsorbed into plasma (enterohepatic recirculation)

Answer 11

closed model

Question 12

reaction order?

rate at which drug concentration changes is constant and independent of drug concentration; rate of elimination is constant

Answer 12

zero order kinetics: 𝚫C/𝚫t = -K0

Question 13

reaction order?

rate of drug elimination changes and is proportional to drug concentration; drug concentration decays exponentially; applies to most commonly used drugs

Answer 13

first order kinetics: 𝚫C/𝚫t = -KC

Question 14

name 4 pH environments that may lead to ion trapping effect with drugs

Answer 14

1. gastric pH
2. fetal pH
3. milk pH
4. urine pH

Question 15

what is the Henderson Hasselbach equation for acids

Answer 15

pH - pKa = log(ionized/nonionized)

Question 16

what is the Henderson Hasselbach equation for bases

Answer 16

pH - pKa = log (nonionized/ionized)

Question 17

how to find the pKa of a drug

Answer 17

pH at which 50% of the drug is ionized

Question 18

this is the passage of a drug from site of administration to blood stream; influenced by solubility, physiochemical properties, site of administration, and bioavailability

Answer 18

absorption

Question 19

name the 3 types of parenteral administration

Answer 19

1. intravenous
2. intramuscular
3. subcutaneous

Question 20

name the route of administration

most rapid onset of action, rate of administration usually slow

Answer 20

intravenous

Question 21

name the route of administration

bypasses GIT, achieves sytemic levels more rapidly, advantageous when animal is inappetant or vomiting

Answer 21

parenteral

Question 22

name the route of administration

often the only option for owners, influenced by speed of gastric emptying and presence of food

Answer 22

oral

Question 23

this refers to the removal of a percentage of the drug as it passes through the liver via the portal vein before it reaches the systemic circulation and effect site

Answer 23

first pass effect

Question 24

what effect does vasoconstriction have on absorption of agent from a site

Answer 24

reduces it

Question 25

this is an indication of total exposure to the drug, used to define bioavailability, and used to calculate clearance

Answer 25

area under the curve (AUC)

Question 26

this defines the extent to which an administered does of a drug enters the systemic circulation intact; referred to as F

Answer 26

bioavailability

Question 27

what is the bioavailability of intravenous drugs

Answer 27

100%

Question 28

this feature of pharmacokinetics is influenced by movement across membranes, blood flow to different organs, lipid solubility, and plasma protein binding

Answer 28

distribution

Question 29

this is the main plasma protein drugs bind to

Answer 29

albumin

Question 30

what is the equation for volume of distribution for a drug

Answer 30

Vd = Dose / C0

Question 31

this is the peak plasma concentration after equilibrium is achieved and before elemination has begun

Answer 31

C0

Question 32

this enhances drug access to sites of metabolism

Answer 32

lipid solubility

Question 33

this enchances possibility of renal excretion of drug

Answer 33

water solubility

Question 34

this part of drug elimination occurs mainly in the liver (but also in plasma, kidney, gut and lung); in phase 1 or phase 2 reactions

Answer 34

biotransformation

Question 35

what are the 3 types of phase 1 biotransformation reactions?

Answer 35

1. hydrolysis
2. reduction
3. oxidation

Question 36

what are the 3 types of phase 2 biotransformation reactions

Answer 36

1. acetylation
2. glucoronidation
3. conjugation to amino acids

Question 37

what is the main organ for drug excretion?

Answer 37

kidney

Question 38

what are the 3 main factors for drug excretion by the kidney

Answer 38

1. water solubility
2. GFR
3. Active Transport

Question 39

what are the 2 factors for reabsorption of a drug

Answer 39

1. lipid solubility
2. ionisation (ion trapping)

Question 40

what are the 3 less common routes of drug elimination?

Answer 40

1. biliary
2. skin
3. pulmonary

Question 41

this is the time taken for the plasma drug concentration to fall by 50%

Answer 41

half-life of elimination

Question 42

what is the equation for half-life in terms of K (slope of the PDC/time curve)

Answer 42

t 1/2 = 0.693 / K

Question 43

name 3 factors affecting half-life of a drug

Answer 43

1. access to sites of biotransformation or elimination
2. interaction with other drugs
3. physiologica/pthological states

Question 44

what is the equation for the relationship between half-life and clearance?

Answer 44

t 1/2 = 0.693 x Vd / Cl_B

Question 45

this is defined as the volume of blood cleared of the drug by all elimination processes per unit of time (mL/min) - encompasses biotransformation and excretion processes

Answer 45

clearance

Question 46

this is where the levels of drug remain stable or consistent from dose to dose

Answer 46

steady state

Question 47

how many half-lives does it take to reach 95% steady state

Answer 47

5

Question 48

how many half-lives does it take to reach 99% steady state

Answer 48

7

Question 49

name the 3 ways steady state can be achieved

Answer 49

1. intravenous continuous infusion
2. loading dose followed by a regular dose at fixed intervals
3. fixed interval of a regular does

Question 50

what is the fluctuation within steady state if the dose interval is the same as the half-life

Answer 50

50%

Question 51

what is the fluctuation within steady state if the dose interval is twice the half-life

Answer 51

75%

Question 52

name the formula for acids

(pharmacology summary of Formulae)

Answer 52

pH - PKa = log[ionized/non-ionized]

Question 53

name the formula for bases

(pharmacology summary of Formulae)

Answer 53

pH - PKa = log[non-ionized/ionized]

Question 54

name the formula for bioavailability

(pharmacology summary of Formulae)

Answer 54

F = AUC oral / AUC IV

Question 55

name the formula for volume of distribution

(pharmacology summary of Formulae)

Answer 55

Vd = dose/C_0

(where C_0 = concentration at time 0)

Question 56

name the formulas for half-life

(pharmacology summary of Formulae)

Answer 56

t 1/2 = 0.693/K
t 1/2 = 0.693 x Vd/Cl

Question 57

name the formula for clearance

(pharmacology summary of Formulae)

Answer 57

Cl = Vd x K

Question 58

name the formula for dose

(pharmacology summary of Formulae)

Answer 58

Dose = [Cmax] x Vd

Question 59

this is a macromolecular structure with which the drug reacts; may be a protein, enzyme, nucleic acid, or less specific

Answer 59

drug receptor

Question 60

this is a drug that binds to a physiological receptor and mimics the effect of the endogenous ligand

Answer 60

agonist

Question 61

this type of agonist can achieve maximal response even if not all the receptors are occupied

Answer 61

full agonist

Question 62

this type of agonist is incapable of achieving maximal response even if all the receptors are occupied

Answer 62

partial agonist

Question 63

this is the tendency of the ligand (drug) to bind to the receptor

Answer 63

affinity

Question 64

this is a term used to describe how good the drug is at eliciting a response

Answer 64

efficacy

Question 65

this is a relative term that is often used to compare two drugs - comparing the concentration required to elicit the same response

Answer 65

potency

Question 66

this is the concentration of the drug required to produce 50% of maximal response

Answer 66

EC 50

Question 67

these drugs habe affinity but have no instrinsic activity & block the effect of the agonist

Answer 67

antagonist

Question 68

name the type of antagonist

most important, effects are reversible/surmpuntable by increasing amount of agonist

Answer 68

competitive antagonist

Question 69

name the type of antagonist

cannot be overcome by increasing amount of agonist; ex: Aspirin

Answer 69

non-competitive antagonist

Question 70

at equilibrium, the number of receptors occupied by the drug is related to the concentration of the drug & described by this equation

Answer 70

Hill-Langmuir equation

Question 71

this defines the capacity of a drug to preferentially produce one particular effect

Answer 71

selectivity

Question 72

this is an absolute term; a drug with this tends to only act on one particular receptor type

Answer 72

specificity

Question 73

this is the ratio of the dose giving an undesirable effect over the dose required to give the desired effect

Answer 73

therapeutic index

Question 74

name 4 types of drug receptors

Answer 74

1. ion chanell cell surface transmembrane receptor
2. G protin couple receptor
3. protein kinase
4. cytosolic receptor

Question 75

this type of drug receptor mediates action of a variety of proteins such as insulin

Answer 75

protein kinases

Question 76

this is when a receptor is exposed to a ligand and the response reaches a peak then begins to fall off (despit the continued presence of ligand)

Answer 76

receptor desensitization

Question 77

this is when receptors become internalized and degraded within the cell

Answer 77

receptor down-regulation

Question 78

this is a term used to denote the rapid loss of responsiveness to a drug following intial dosing

Answer 78

tachyphylaxis

Question 79

what are drug dosing regimens based on?

Answer 79

normal healthy individuals

Question 80

name 4 things that may cause a dosing regimen to need individualization

Answer 80

1. age
2. species
3. health status
4. concurrent treatment

Question 81

certain states of the animal may cause drug dose regimens to need individualization bc they may result in these 3 changes

Answer 81

1. changes in Vd
2. changes in plasma protein binding
3. changes in metabolism

Question 82

name 4 routes of ectotoxicity for ectoparasiticides

Answer 82

1. incorrect disposal
2. leakage from fish farms
3. excretion in feces or urine
4. topical products washed off

Question 83

name the 5 points of the BSAVA/BVA/BVZA 5-point plan for responsible ectoparasiticide use

Answer 83

1. educate clients to check & prevent parasites
2. understand the risks
3. risk-based prescribing
4. ensure appropriate use & disposa
5. record & monitor use

Question 84

what is the mode of action for systemic macrocytic lactones?

(ectoparasiticide)

Answer 84

bind to glutamate & GABA-activated chloride channels

(leading to paralysis and death)

Question 85

do systemic macrocytic lactones have repellent or knock-down activity?

Answer 85

no

Question 86

name the two main groups of systemic macrocytic lactones

Answer 86

1. Avermectins
2. Milbemycins

Question 87

what are the 2 main parasites that systemic macrocytic lactones act against

Answer 87

1. Mites (Sarcoptiforms & Demodex & other)
2. Fleas
   (NOT ticks)

Question 88

what species are systemic macrocytic lactones used clinically for?

Answer 88

range of species

Question 89

these are licensed for flea control in dogs and cats in the US; derived from Saccharopolyspora spinosa; selective for insects

Answer 89

Spinosyn macrocytic lactones

(Spinosad and Spinetoram)

Question 90

what type of pyrethroid is Permethrin

Answer 90

type 1 (non alpha-cyano)

Question 91

what type of pyrethroid is Cypermethrin, Deltamethrin, and Flumethrin?

Answer 91

type 2 (alpha-cyano)

Question 92

what is the mode of action of Pyrethrins & Pyrethroids?

(ectoparasiticides)

Answer 92

affect voltage-gated sodium channels

(causing hyper-exciitability and death)

Question 93

what species are Pyrethrins & Pyrethroids used clinically on?

Answer 93

dogs, small mammals, horses, farm animals, poultry

Question 93

do Pyrethrins & Pyrethroids have repellent or knock-down activity?

Answer 93

yes, good

Question 94

what adverse effects can type 1 Pyrethroids have?

Answer 94

1. excitation
2. tremors
3. hyperthermia

Question 95

what adverse effects can type 2 Pyrethroids have?

Answer 95

1. salivation
2. extensor tone
3. incoordination
4. seizures
5. apnea

Question 96

what is the mode of action for oxadiazines?

Answer 96

blocks neuronal sodium channels

(causing paralysis and death)

Question 97

do oxadiazines have repellent or knowck-down activity?

Answer 97

no

Question 97

what species are oxadiazines used for clinically?

Answer 97

dogs and cats

Question 98

what is the mode of action for phenylpyrazoles?

(ectoparasiticide)

Answer 98

bind to GABA & glutamate-activated chloride channels

(leading to hyper-excitability and death)

Question 99

name two types of phenylpyrazoles

(ectoparasiticide)

Answer 99

1. fipronil
2. pyriprole

Question 100

what species are phenylpyrazoles used for clinically?

Answer 100

dogs and cats

Question 101

does phenylpyrazoles have repellent or knowck-down activity?

Answer 101

no

Question 102

which ectoparasiticide is topical and spreads in sebum?

Answer 102

phenylpyrazoles

Question 103

what two species are phenylpyrazoles highly toxic to?

Answer 103

rabbits and fish

Question 104

what is the mode of action for neonicotinoids?

(ectoparasiticide)

Answer 104

bind to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

(leading to hyper-excitability, paralysis and death)

Question 105

do neonicotinoids have repellent or knock-down activity?

Answer 105

no (except nitenpyram has knock-down effect)

Question 105

what species are neonicotinoids used for clinically?

Answer 105

dogs, cats, small mammals

Question 106

name 3 types of neonicotinoids

Answer 106

1. nitenpyram
2. imidacloprid
3. dinotefuran

Question 107

what is the mode of action for isoxazolines?

(ectoparasiticide)

Answer 107

bind to GABA and glutamate-activated chloride channels

(causing hyper-excitability and death)

Question 108

what parasites are isoxazolines efficient on

Answer 108

1. fleas and other insects
2. Sarcoptes, Demodex & other mites
3. ticks

Question 108

do isoxazolines have repellent or knock-down activity?

Answer 108

NO

Question 109

what species are isoxazolines used to treat clinically?

Answer 109

dogs, cats, poultry

Question 110

what percent are isoxazolines passed out unchanged in feces?

Answer 110

80-90%

Question 111

what is the mode of action for formamidines?

(ectoparasiticide)

Answer 111

1. monoamine oxidase inhibitor
2. octopamine receptor agonist
3. Alpha2 receptor agonist

(causing increased nerve activity and death)

Question 112

what parasties are formamidines effictive against?

Answer 112

1. Sarcoptes, Demodex & other mites
2. ticks

Question 113

do formamidines have repellent or knock-down activity?

Answer 113

yes, good

Question 114

what species are formamidines used to treat clinically?

Answer 114

small animals, farm animals

Question 115

what 3 animals are formamidines contraindicated for?

Answer 115

1. cats
2. horses
3. chihuahuas

Question 116

what is the mode of action for carbamates and organophosphates?

Answer 116

form complexes with acetylcholinesterases

Question 117

do carbamates and organophosphates have repellent or knock-down activity?

Answer 117

yes, rapid

Question 118

name 5 adverse effects of muscarinic overstimulation from organophosphate poisoning

Answer 118

1. Salivation
2. Lacrimation
3. Urination
4. Defecation
5. GI cramps
6. Emesis

(SLUDGE)

Question 119

name 4 adverse effects of nicotinic overstimulation from organophosphate poisoning

Answer 119

1. Mydriasia Tachycardia
2. muscle Weakness
3. Twitching
4. Fasciculation
   (high BP, paralysis)

(MT WTF)

Question 120

which ectoparasiticide can cause irreversible chronic neurotoxicity from long term sub-clinical exposure (ataxia, paresis, paralysis)

Answer 120

carbamates and organophosphates

Question 121

what species are calcium polysulfides and thiosulphates (lime sulphur) used to treat clinically

Answer 121

cats, horses, SA camelids

Question 122

what parasites are calcium polysulfides and thiosulphates (lime sulphur) effective against in cats?

Answer 122

1. Demodex gatoi
2. Lynxacarus
3. Notoedres
4. Cheyletiella
5. Trombicula
6. lice

Question 123

what parasites are calcium polysulfides and thiosulphates (lime sulphur) effective against in horses?

Answer 123

1. Chorioptes
2. lice

Question 124

what parasites are calcium polysulfides and thiosulphates (lime sulphur) effective against in SA camelids?

Answer 124

1. Chorioptes
2. Sarcoptes

Question 125

do calcium polysulfides and thiosulphates (lime sulphur) have repellent or knock-down effects?

Answer 125

NO

Question 126

name 4 adverse effects of calcium polysulfides and thiosulphates (lime sulphur)

Answer 126

1. skin irritatio
2. malodorous
3. yellow stains
4. oral ulcers if ingested

Question 127

name the topical ectoparasiticide formulation

hydrophobic polymers (resist wetting and degradation);
silicons oils and fatty acids (gradual release and diffusion);
can cause physical injury or skin irritation

Answer 127

collars

Question 128

name the topical ectoparasiticide formulation

raid systemic absorption/diffusion through skin and coat; sebum may be important for diffusion;
can have aversion or irritation, effects on furniture and surfaces, and environmental impacts

Answer 128

spot-on or pour-on

Question 129

name the topical ectoparasiticide formulation

good application and distribution, but more difficult to apply;
vulnerable to wetting and bathing;
disliked by animals;
increased risk of eye exposure, inhalation, and ingestion as well as human exposure

Answer 129

sprays and dips

Question 130

this is an agent that kills microbes or inhibits their growth without damaging the host

Answer 130

antimicrobials

Question 131

these are microbial products that kill or inhibit other micro-organisms

Answer 131

antibiotic

Question 132

these are synthetic agents with activity against bacterial

Answer 132

antibacterial

Question 133

name the type of resistance

lack of acticity due to inherent phenotype (e.g. lack of target, failure to penetrate cell wall, etc.)

Answer 133

inherent

Question 134

name the type of resistance

mutations that confer resistance

Answer 134

chromosomal

Question 135

name the type of resistance

resistance genes on mobile genetic elements (e.g. plasmids)

Answer 135

transferable

Question 136

what are mycoplasmas resistant to?

Answer 136

beta-lactams

Question 137

what are anaerobes resistant to?

Answer 137

aminoglycosides

Question 138

what are aerobes resistant to?

Answer 138

metronidazole

Question 139

this is the biggest driver of antimicrobial resistance

Answer 139

antimicrobial use

Question 140

name 3 methicillin resistant staphylocci (MRS) organisms of concern

Answer 140

1. S. pseudointermedius (MRSP)
2. S. schleiferi (MRSS)
3. S. aureus (MRSA)

Question 141

name 2 multidrug resistant (MDR) cocci organisms of concern

Answer 141

1. Streptococcus
2. Enterococcus

Question 142

name 2 other multidrug resistant (MDR) organisms of concern

Answer 142

1. Pseudomonas
2. Salmonella

Question 143

what does nosocomial mean?

Answer 143

healthcare-acquired

Question 144

name the 3 most common problems of vet-visiting dogs, cats and horses that tend do get antimicrobials but do not always require systemic antimicrobial treatment

Answer 144

1. pruritis
2. diarrhea
3. respiratory conditions

Question 145

name the 3 most important drivers for antimicrobial use in practice which should be addressed to change the practice culture and improve antimicrobial stewardship (AMS)

Answer 145

1. vet prescribing behaviors
2. interactions with clients
3. practice norms

Question 146

this describes the drug-host interaction
(bioavailability, penetration and clearance)

Answer 146

pharmacokinetics (PK)

Question 147

this describes the drug-target interaction
(mode of action)

Answer 147

Pharmacodynamics

Question 148

name 6 factors affecting PK/PD drug models

Answer 148

1. poor bioavailability
2. hypovolemic shock/poor perfusion
3. renal/liver failure
4. increased minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
5. biofilm
6. pus, debris, foreign material

Question 149

this type of drugs are largely restricted to extracellular fluid (ECF);
fluid retention, IV fluid therapy, and/or increased renal clearance may necessitate higher doses to ensure therapeutic concentrations at the site of infection

Answer 149

hydrophilic (water soluble)

Question 150

this type of drug penetrates tissues effectively and are less affected by changes in fluid dynamics and clearance

Answer 150

lipophilic (fat-soluble)

Question 151

excellent, good, or poor tissue penetration?

Chloramphenicols
Fluoroquinolones
Minocycline
Doxycycline
Metronidazole
Rifampin

Answer 151

excellent

Question 152

excellent, good, or poor tissue penetration?

Trimethoprim-sulfonamides
Lincosamides
Macrolides
Tetracyclines

Answer 152

good

Question 153

excellent, good, or poor tissue penetration?

Beta-lactamase inhibitors
Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Aminoglycosides & aminocyclitols

Answer 153

poor

Question 154

name 3 concentration dependent antimicrobials

Answer 154

1. most fluoroquinolones
2. aminoglycosides
3. metronidazole

Question 155

name 2 time dependent antimicrobials

Answer 155

1. penicillins
2. cephalosporans

Question 156

name 3 antimicrobials with mixed effects for mode of action

Answer 156

1. some fluoroquinolones
2. lincosamides
3. tetracyclines

Question 157

what is the efficacy of concentration dependent antimicrobials

Answer 157

ratio peak concentration (Cmax) to MIC

Question 158

what is the efficacy of time dependent antimicrobials

Answer 158

time above MIC

Question 159

what is the efficacy of antimicrobials with mixed effects

Answer 159

total 24h exposure (area under curve)

Question 160

what is the dosing for concentration dependent antimicrobials

Answer 160

max dose every 24h

Question 161

what is the dosing for time dependent antimicrobials

Answer 161

appropriate dose every 8-12h

Question 162

Bacteristatic or Bactericidal?

Lincosamides
Macrolides
Chloramphenicols
Tetracyclines
Trimethoprim
Sulphonamides

Answer 162

bacteriostatic

Question 163

Bacteriostatic or Bactericidal?

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Fluoroquinolones
Trimethoprim-sulphonamides
Aminoglycosides & aminocyclitols
Metronidazole

Answer 163

bactericidal

Question 164

Bacteriostatic or Bactericidal drugs?

may be more effective in seriously immunocompromised patients

Answer 164

Bactericidal drugs

Question 165

Bacteriostatic or Bactericidal drugs?

may result in less toxin release and toxic shock in staphylococcal and streptococcal infections

Answer 165

Bacteriostatic drugs

Question 166

Bacteriostatic or Bactericidal drugs?

minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) is much higher than the MIC

Answer 166

bacteriostatic drugs

Question 167

Bacteriostatic or Bactericidal drugs?

minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC) is close or identical to the MIC

Answer 167

bactericidal drugs

Question 168

what is the most serious adverse drug reaction (ADR)

Answer 168

hypersensitivity reactions

Question 169

what breed has a bred-specific risk of adverse drug reactions to sulphonamides

Answer 169

Dobermans

Question 170

name the main route of excretion for these drugs

Fluoroquinolones
Rifampicin
Doxycycline
Chloramphenicols

Answer 170

hepatic (liver)

Question 171

name the main route of excretion for these drugs

Tetracyclines
Lincosamides
Macrolides
Fluoroquinolones
Metronidazole

Answer 171

mixed hepatic-renal

Question 172

name 5 circumstances where cuture and ASTs (antimicrobial sensitivity tests) are necessary

Answer 172

1. deep or complex infections
2. unusual cilinal signs/cytology
3. Rod bacteria
4. if empirical treatment fails
5. if AMR is more likely

Question 173

in these tests: the zones of inhibition around each antimicrobial disc are compared to agreed breakpoints

Answer 173

Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion

Question 174

in Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion tests, what shows that the infection is susceptible

Answer 174

zone of inhibition (ZI) exceeds the breakpoint

Question 175

in Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion tests, what shows that the infection is resistant

Answer 175

zone of inhibition (ZI) is less than the breakpoint

Question 176

these methods determine the lowest concentration of antimicrobial that inhibits bacterial growth

Answer 176

MIC methods

Question 177

if MIC is (lower or higher?) than the breakpoint the infection is considered susceptible

Answer 177

lower

Question 178

if MIC is (lower or higher?) than the breakpoint the infection is considered resistant

Answer 178

higher

Question 179

the capital letters (‘S’ or ‘R’ or ‘I’) on a bacterial AST refer to this

Answer 179

the exact MIC

Question 180

how to determine which antimicrobial is most effective from an AST

Answer 180

compare breakpoint:MIC ratio (want >1)

Question 181

this breakpoint:MIC ratio means that the tissue concentration is only just sufficient enough to treat the infection and there is a risk of treatment failure

Answer 181

1

Question 182

this breakpoint:MIC ratio means that the efficacy is less likely to be affected by factors that alter tissue concentration

Answer 182

> 1

Question 183

these can be effective in surface and superficial infections & some focal deep infections

Answer 183

topical microbials and antibiotics

Question 184

name some effective antimicrobials

Answer 184

1. chlorohexidine
2. manuka honey
3. hypochlorous acid
4. polihexanide
5. bleach

Question 185

these antimicrobials have well established breakpoints, efficacy and saftey;
appropriate for empirical treatment

Answer 185

first line antimicrobials

Question 186

these antimicrobials have a concern for AMR;
they should only be used when there is culture evidence and/or PK/PD factors suggesting that first line drugs would not be appropriate

Answer 186

second line antimicrobials

Question 187

these antibiotics are critically important andd AMR is of great concern;
they may not be licensed for use in animals;
breakpoint, efficacy and sfety data may be limited;
must only be used where no first or second line antibiotics are effective and topical antimicrobial therapy is not feasible or effective

Answer 187

third line antibiotics

Question 188

what line are these antibiotics?

Penicillins
Ampicillin & amoxicillin
1st & 2nd gen. cephalosporins
Clindamycin & lincomycin
Tetracyclines
Trimethoprim-sulphonamides
Spiramycin
Metronidazole

Answer 188

first line antimicrobials

Question 189

what line are these antimicrobials?

3rd gen. cephalosporins
Fluoroquinolones
Florfenicol (in cattle)

Answer 189

2nd line antimicobials

Question 190

what line are these antimicrobials?

Aminoglycosides
Anti-Pseudomonas penicillins
Azithromycin & clarithromycin
3rd & 4th gen. cephalosporins
Chloramphenicol & florfenicol (in horses and small animals)
Rifampicin
Nitrofurantoin

Answer 190

3rd line antimicrobials

Question 191

name the common antimicrobial combination

high tissue perfusion;
effective against gram- anaerobes, anaerobes, staphylococci and most gram+ aerobes (except streptococci)

Answer 191

Fluoroquinolone & Metronidazole

Question 192

name the common antimicrobial combination

low tissue penetration;
effective against gram- aerobes, most anaerobes and gram+ aerobes

Answer 192

Aminoglycoside & Amoxicillin-clavulanate

Question 193

name the common antimicrobial combination

mixed tissue penetration;
effective against gram- aerobes, most anaerobes & gram+ aerobes

Answer 193

Aminoglycoside & Lincosamides

Question 194

name the common antimicrobial combination

Mixed tissue penetration;
effective against gram- aerobes, most anaerobes and gram+aerobes;
high potential for AMR

Answer 194

Fluroquionolone & Amoxicillin-clavulanate

Question 195

name the 4 principles of prophylactic treatment

Answer 195

1. select antimicrobial appropriate to the infection risk
2. start treatment before procedure for adequate plasma and tissue levels
3. repeat treatment to maintain tissue levels
4. pot-op treatment continued only if necessary

Question 196

this is the treatment of the whole group including infected and non-infected animals;
may be considered to prevent the spread of disease

Answer 196

metaphylaxis

Question 197

what is the mode of action for penicillins

Answer 197

disrupt bacterial cell wall causing lysis (penicillin-binding proteins - PBP)

Question 198

what bacteria are penicillins most active against

Answer 198

gram-pos bacteria

Question 199

name 3 categories of penicillins

Answer 199

1. narrow spectrum penicillins
2. aminopenicillins
3. anti-staphylococcal pennicillins

Question 200

amoxicillin is often combined with this beta-lactamase inhibitor

Answer 200

clavulanic acid

Question 201

some bacterial PBPs act as beta-lactamases to cleave the beta-lactam ring and inactivate this class of antibiotics

Answer 201

penicillins

Question 202

name 3 types of beta-lactamase inhibitors

Answer 202

1. clavulanic acid
2. sulbactam
3. tazobactam

Question 203

name the antibiotic class

inhibit beta-lactamases and enhance activity for penicillins susceptible to these enzymes

Answer 203

beta-lactamase inhibitors

Question 204

how are cephalosporins classed?

(antibiotic)

Answer 204

generations (1G, 2G, 3G, 4G)

Question 205

what is the mode of action for cephalosporin antibiotics?

Answer 205

similar to penicillins (disrupt the bacterial cell wall causing lysis)

Question 206

what bacteria type are Cephalosporins NOT active against

Answer 206

enterococci (limited against anaerobes)

Question 207

what is the mode of action for lincosamides and macrolides?

(antibiotics)

Answer 207

bind to 50S ribosome subunit to prevent protein synthesis

Question 208

name 2 types of lincosamides

(antibiotics)

Answer 208

1. clindamycin
2. lincomycin

Question 209

what type of bacteria are lincosamides and macrolides most effective against?

Answer 209

gram-positive bacteria

Question 210

what type of bacteria are lincosamides and macrolides NOT effective against?

Answer 210

gram-negative bacteria

Question 211

name 3 things resistance to lincosamides and macrolides is associated with

Answer 211

1. modified ribosome binding site (erm genes)
2. efflux pumps
3. bacteria drug modification

Question 212

what is the mode of action for Trimethoprim-sulphonamide ?

(antibiotics)

Answer 212

block folic acid synthesis (required for purine and pyrimidine synthesis)

Question 213

name an adverse effect of trimethoprim-sulphonamide

Answer 213

very bitter - salivation and foaming (cats)

Question 214

what type of bacteria are trimethoprim-sulphonamides most effective against (moderate activity)

Answer 214

gram-positive bacteria

Question 215

what is the mode of action for fluorquinolones?

(antibiotics)

Answer 215

inhibit topoisomoerase II (DNA gyrase) in gram-neg bacteria

(disrupts DNA cleavage, reunion and super-coiling)

Question 216

what 3 things is resistance to fluoroquinolones associated with

(antibiotics)

Answer 216

1. decreased cell permeability
2. efflux pumps
3. altered topoisomerases

Question 217

what is the mode of action for aminoglycosides

(antibiotics)

Answer 217

block protein synthesis at 30S ribosome subunit

Question 218

what type of bacteria are aminoglycosides most effective against

Answer 218

gram-neg bacteria

Question 219

list the 6 aminoglycosides in order of most to least efficacy

(antibiotics)

Answer 219

amikacin > tobramycin > gentamycin > neomycin = kanamycin > streptomycin

aktgnks

Question 220

what 2 things is resistance to aminoglycosides associated with

(antibiotics)

Answer 220

1. modification of ribosome binding site
2. efflux pumps

Question 221

this is an antibiotic closely related to aminoglycosides;
lack most of the systemic toxicity assoc. with aminoglycosides BUT chromosomal resistance can occur rapidly

Answer 221

aminocyclitols

Question 222

what is the mode of action for tetracyclines

(antibiotics)

Answer 222

block protein synthesis through 30S ribosome subunit

Question 223

name 5 types of tetracyclines

(antibiotics)

Answer 223

1. tetracycline
2. chlortetracycline
3. oxytetracycline
4. doxycycline
5. minocycline

Question 224

name 3 things resistance to tetracyclines is associated with

(antibiotics)

Answer 224

1. multiple genes for efflux
2. ribosome binding
3. drug modification

Question 225

what is the mode of action for chloramphenicols

(antibiotics)

Answer 225

disrupt protein synthesis through 30S and 50S subunits

Question 226

what type of bacteria are chloramphenicols most effective against

Answer 226

anaerobes

Question 227

what is resistance to chloramphenicols associated with

Answer 227

drug inactivating enzymes

Question 228

what is the major adverse effect of chloramphenicols

(antibiotics)

Answer 228

fatal aplastic anemia in humans

Question 229

what is the mode of action for metronidazole

(antibiotics)

Answer 229

disrupts DNA strands and inhibits repair enzyme (DNAase-1)

Question 230

what conditions are required for metronidazole to be effective?
what is the only type of bacteria metronidazole is effective against

Answer 230

anaerobic

Question 231

what is an adverse effect of metronidazole

(antibiotics)

Answer 231

bitter - inappetance and hypersalivation (cats)

Question 232

what is the mode of action for rifampicin

(antibiotics)

Answer 232

inhibits RNA polymerase and DNA transcription

Question 233

what type of bacteria is rifampicin NOT effective against

(antibiotics)

Answer 233

gram-negative

Question 234

what is an adverse effect of rifampicin

(antibiotics)

Answer 234

red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids

Question 235

what is the mode of action for nitrofurans

(antibiotics)

Answer 235

disrupts mRNA translation (from intracellular bacterial metabolism)

Question 236

what type of bacteria is nitrofurantoin NOT effective against

(antibiotics)

Answer 236

anaerobes

Question 237

what type of infection is nitrofurantoin (nitrofurans) restricted to and why

Answer 237

UTIs bc of rapid renal excretion

Question 238

what are 3 adverse effects of nitrofurans

(antibiotics)

Answer 238

1. erythema
2. pruritic
3. oedema
   (also toxicity and carcinogenic potential)

Question 239

name 5 antibiotics that are limited to topical use only due to toxicity and PD/PK factors

Answer 239

1. polymixin B
2. bacitacin
3. silver sulphadiazine
4. fusidic acid
5. mupirocin

Question 240

name the topical antibiotic

cationic agent: disrupts bacterial cell membrane phospholipids;
more effective against gram-neg bacteria;
resistance (decr. permeability) is uncommon;
inactivated by pus and debris

Answer 240

Polymixin B

Question 241

name the topical antibiotic

acts on gram-pos bacteria by inhibitng cell wall peptoglycan synthesis

Answer 241

bacitracin

Question 242

name the topical antibiotic

inhibits ribosomal activity and protein synthesis;
mainly active against gram-pos bacteria (staph, strep, corynebacteria);
NOT active against enterococci;
resistance associated with decreased ribosomal binding

Answer 242

fusidic acid

Question 243

name the topical antibiotic

blocks nucleic acid synthesis;
active against gram-pos bacteria

Answer 243

novobiocin

Question 244

name the topical antibiotic

inhibits RNA synthesis;
active against gram-pos bacteria (incl MRSP and MRSA) - narrow spectrum ;
resistance associated with mutations in target enzyme

Answer 244

mupirocin

Question 245

what is the initial treatment choice for most fungal infections?

Answer 245

Azoles (imidazoles and triazoles)

Question 246

what is the mode of action for azoles

(antifungal)

Answer 246

inhibit ergosterol synthesis disrupting fungal cell wall metabolism

Question 247

are azoles fungistatic or fungicidal?

Answer 247

fungistatic

Question 248

which azole’s absorption is not affected by food

(antifungal)

Answer 248

Fluconazole

Question 249

whih azole’s absorption is decreased with food

(antifungal)

Answer 249

voriconazole

Question 250

list the 4 main azoles in order from most well-tolerated to least well-tolerated in terms of adverse effects

(antifungal)

Answer 250

fluconazole > itraconazole = voriconazole > ketoconazole

FIVK

Question 251

what is the most common adverse effect of azoles

(antifungal)

Answer 251

GIT upset

Question 252

what is the mode of action for Allylamines (terbinafine)

(antifungal)

Answer 252

blocks ergosterol synthesis through inhibition of aqualene epoxidase

Question 253

are allylamines (terbinafine) fungistatic or fungicidal?

Answer 253

fungicidal

Question 254

what type of fungi are allylamines (terbinafine) effective against

Answer 254

dermatophytes

Question 255

is absorption of allylamines (terbinafine) affected by food?

(antifungal)

Answer 255

no

Question 256

how are allylamines (terbinafine) excreted

(antifungal)

Answer 256

hepatic metabolism

Question 257

name 2 common polyenes

(antifungal)

Answer 257

nyastatin and natamycin

Question 258

what is the mode of action for polyenes

(antifungal)

Answer 258

disrupt fungal cell membranes by occupying ergosterol binding sites

Question 259

are polyenes fungistatic or fungicidal

Answer 259

fungicidal

Question 260

what type of fungi are polyenes used for

Answer 260

superficial fungal infections only (Malassezia and Candida)

Question 261

what is the mode of action for griseofulvin

(antifungal)

Answer 261

inhibits mitosis, nucleic acid synthesis and cell wall metabolism

Question 262

is griseofulvin fungistatic or fungicidal?

Answer 262

fungistatic

Question 263

what type of fungi is griseofulvin mainly used for

Answer 263

dermatophytosis in horses

Question 264

name the antifungal

fungicidal;
poorly absorbed by GI tract so must be given parenterally;
dose-related nephrotoxicity

Answer 264

Amphotericin B

Question 265

name the antifungal

traditional antifungal treatment;
mode of action unclear;
used systemically and topically;
can cause GIT upsets, sialadenitis, and goitre

Answer 265

sodium or potassium iodide

Question 266

name the antifungal

blocks RNA synthesis;
synergy with amphotericin B for Cryptococcus and Candida;
NOT effective for dermatophytes;
renal excretion;
can cause GIT upsets, bone marrow suppression, hypersensitivity reactions, and neurological problems (cats)

Answer 266

flucytosine

Question 267

what is the mode of action for Acyclovir, Famiciclovir, Ixouridine, and Remdesivir?

(antiviral)

Answer 267

nucleoside analogues that inhibit DNA/RNA synthesis

Question 268

what is Acyclovir most commonly used alongside to increase anti-viral effect

(antiviral)

Answer 268

recombinent feline IFN-omega OR human IFN-alpha

Question 269

what s Famiciclovir used systemically for?

(antiviral)

Answer 269

FHV-1 infections

Question 270

what is ixouridine used to treat?

(antiviral)

Answer 270

topically in FHV-1

Question 271

what is Remdesivir used to treat and how long must it be given?

(antiviral)

Answer 271

FIP (give SQ or IV for over 12 weeks)

Question 272

what is the mode of action of amantidine?

(antiviral)

Answer 272

block M2 protein ion channels to prevent endocytosis

Question 273

what type of viruses is amantidine active against

(antiviral)

Answer 273

enveloped RNA viruses

Question 274

what is teh mode of action for L-lysine

(antiviral)

Answer 274

peptide, competitive inhibitor of arginine

Question 275

what is L-lysine used for in cats

(antiviral)

Answer 275

FHV-1

Question 276

name the interferon

active against many DNA and RNA viruses by direct inhibition of viral replication and stimulating anti-viral immunity;
used for FIV and FeLV in cats;
used for papilloma virus infections in dogs;
topical administration alongside acyclovir for FHV-1 keratitis

(antiviral)

Answer 276

recombinent human IFN-alpha

Question 277

name the interferon

used in cats and dogs for acute and chronic viral conditions (FeLV, FIP, FCV and canine parvovirus infection)

(antiviral)

Answer 277

recombinent feline IFN-omega

Question 278

name 2 mycobacterial derived immunomodulators

(antiviral)

Answer 278

1. Bacille Calmett-Guerin (BCG)
2. Regressin-V

Question 279

name the 4 nucleoside analogue DNA/RNA synthesis inhitors used in animals

(antiviral)

Answer 279

1. acyclovir
2. famciclovir
3. idoxuridine
4. remdesivir

AFIR

Question 280

name a peptide antiviral drug used in animals

Answer 280

L-lysine

Question 281

what does VMR stand for?

Answer 281

veterinary medicines regulations

Question 282

what does VMD stand for?

Answer 282

veterinary medicines directorate

Question 283

this is the executive agency of DEFRA;
they operate the licensing system for animal medicines with aim to safe guard public health, animal health and the environment

Answer 283

veterinary medicines directorate (VMD)

Question 284

this is a national surveillance scheme run by the VMD which aims to record and monitor reports of suspected adverse reactions to veterinary medicines in both animals and humans

Answer 284

SARSS (suspected adverse reaction surveillance scheme)

Question 285

this is designed to provide information on the work of the VMD, plans and results, as well as general developments on the controls on veterinary medicines; publish quarterly reports

Answer 285

MAVIS (Marketing Authorizations Veterinary Information Service)

Question 286

this governing body offers advice to the VMD on behalf of the Secretary of State, in respect of new and renewal marketing authorizations (MA), provisional MAs, variations to MAs and Animal Test Certificates (ATCs)

Answer 286

VPC (veterinary products committee)

Question 287

who should adverse drug reactions be reported to

Answer 287

veterinary medicines directorate (VMD)

(under SARSS)

Question 288

what 3 things make it ideal to use licensed veterinary products

Answer 288

1. safety
2. quality
3. efficacy

Question 289

name the 6 steps involved in drug development

Answer 289

1. pre-discovery
2. discovery
3. pre-clinical testing
4. clinical trials
5. licensing
6. marketing

Question 290

name the 4 legally classified categories of veterinary medicines

Answer 290

1. prescription only medicine - vet (POM-V)
2. POM-vet, pharmacist, SQP (POM-VPS)
3. non-food animal - vet, pharmacist, SPQ (NFA-VPS)
4. authorized vet medicine-general sales list (AVM-GSL)

Question 291

name the legally classified category of veterinary medicine

Can be prescribed by a VS after clinical assessment of the animal or herd;
in this category if contains a new active ingredient, has safety issues, a narrow safety margin, due to government policy or because specialised veterinary knowledge required for its use

Answer 291

Prescription Only Medicine – Veterinarian (POM‐V)

Question 292

name the legally classified category of veterinary medicine

Can be prescribed by VS or SQP, No clinical assessment is required but the prescriber must be sure owner is competent to administer the product;
in this category if: it is used to reduce or prevent endemic disease in herds or flocks or individual animals, there is some risk for user, consumer, animal or environment, but users made aware by verbal or written advice

Answer 292

Prescription Only Medicine – Veterinarian, Pharmacist, SQP (POM‐VPS)

Question 293

name the legally classified category of veterinary medicine

Similar to POM‐VPS but must be for non‐food animals

Answer 293

Non‐Food Animal – Veterinarian, Pharmacist, SQP (NFA–VPS)

Question 294

name the legally classified category of veterinary medicine

No restrictions on its supply;
wide safety margin and specialist advice is not required

Answer 294

Authorised Veterinary Medicine – General Sales List (AVM‐GSL)

Question 295

this is an assessment of relevant clinical information, which may include an examination of the animal

Answer 295

“clinical assessment”

Question 296

which step of ‘the cascade’ ?

Veterinary medicine with a Marketing Authorisation valid in GB or UK wide for indicated species and
condition

Answer 296

step 1

Question 297

which step of ‘the cascade’ ?

Veterinary medicine with a Marketing Authorisation valid in NI for indicated species and condition

Answer 297

step 2

Question 298

which step of ‘the cascade’ ?

veterinary medicine with a Marketing Authorization valid in GB, NI or UK wide for a different species or condition

Answer 298

step 3

Question 299

which step of ‘the cascade’ ?

human medicine with a Marketing Authorization valid in GB, NI or UK wide OR an authorized vet med from outside the UK

Answer 299

step 4

Question 300

which step of ‘the cascade’ ?

extemporaneous preparation prepared by a vet, pharmacist or person holding an appropriate Manufacturer’s Authorization, located in the UK

Answer 300

step 5

Question 301

if the withdrawal period is not specified on a veterinary medicine, what should it be set at for eggs and milk

Answer 301

no less than 7 days

Question 302

if the withdrawal period is not specified on a veterinary medicine, what should it be set at for meat

Answer 302

not less than 28 days

Question 303

if the withdrawal period is not specified on a veterinary medicine, what should it be set at for meat from fish

Answer 303

not less than 500 degree days

Question 304

this is a means of defining the product, its dose and other relevant instructions

Answer 304

prescription

Question 305

what must a written prescription contain?

(10)

Answer 305

1. Name, address and phone number of prescriber
2. Credentials of the prescriber
3. Name and address of the person receiving the prescription
4. A description of animal
5. Drug, dose and instructions (incl. withdrawal period)
6. Note if prescribing under the cascade
7. Date
8. Written in indelible format
9. Signed
10. “For animals under my care”

Question 306

what does the abbreviation od mean in prescriptions

Answer 306

once daily (omni die)

Question 307

what does the abbreviation sid mean in prescriptions

Answer 307

once daily (semel in die)

Question 308

what does the abbreviation bd mean in prescriptions

Answer 308

twice daily (bis die)

Question 309

what does the abbreviation tid mean in prescriptions

Answer 309

three times daily (ter in die)

Question 310

what does the abbreviation qid mean in prescriptions

Answer 310

four times daily (quarter in die)

Question 311

what does the abbreviation pc mean in prescriptions

Answer 311

after food (post cibum)

Question 312

what does the abbreviation ac mean in prescriptions

Answer 312

before food (ante cibum)

Question 313

what does the abbreviation prn mean in prescriptions

Answer 313

when required (pro re nata)

Question 314

are controlled drugs regulated under the VMR (veterinary medicines regulation)?

Answer 314

no

Question 315

name the schedule of controlled drugs

Vets have no authority to possess or prescribe these except with special license from Home Office
(ex: cannabis and LSD)

Answer 315

schedule 1

Question 316

name the schedule of controlled drugs

Special requirements for requisition, prescribing, record keeping, storage and disposal;
Requisition in writing to the supplier signed by the VS;
Stored in a home office approved, locked receptacle;
Destroyed in presence of a person authorised by the Secretary of State
(Ex: morphine, ketamine, fentanyl, secobarbital)

Answer 316

schedule 2

Question 317

name the schedule of controlled drugs

Subject to the same prescription and requisition requirements as schedule 2, BUT do not need to keep a record in a register;
Most should be kept in a locked receptacle;
(ex: pentobarbital, phenobarbital, buprenorphine and midazolam)

Answer 317

schedule 3

Question 318

name the schedule of controlled drugs

Exempt from most of the restrictions of controlled drugs;
(ex: benzodiazepines and anabolic substances)

Answer 318

schedule 4

Question 319

name the schedule of controlled drugs

Certain preparations containing codeine, cocaine and morphine in less than specified amounts;
Exempt from most of the requirements except that invoices need to be kept for two years

Answer 319

schedule 5

Question 320

what 3 things must you record on obtaining a schedule 2 drug

Answer 320

1. date
2. name and address of supplier
3. amount obtained

Question 321

what 4 things must you record on supplying a schedule 2 drug

Answer 321

1. date
2. name and address of person supplied
3. vet’s name
4. amount supplied

Question 322

how long are controlled drug prescriptions valid for?

Answer 322

28 days

Question 323

how long should incoming and outgoing transaction records of POM-V and POM-VPS drugs be kept for

Answer 323

5 years

Question 324

name the scheme

Some veterinary products can be marketed without a marketing authorisation and therefore are not required to prove safety, quality or efficacy (but must be manufactured to certain standards)

Answer 324

exemption scheme for small pet animals

Question 325

products including these 3 agents are not included in the exemption scheme for small pet animals

Answer 325

1. antibiotics
2. narcotics
3. psychotropics

Question 326

how long is a prescription for medicated feedstuffs valid for

Answer 326

3 months

Question 327

name 5 categories of feed additives

Answer 327

1. technological additives
2. sensory additives
3. nutritional additives
4. zootechnical additives
5. coccidostats and histomonostats

Question 328

these can be defined as a substance used to maintain animals in good health or favorably affect their performance

Answer 328

feed additives

Question 329

name 2 things the person supplied sheep dip must have one of

Answer 329

1. Certificate of Competence in the Safe Use of Sheep Dips
2. NPTC Level 2 Award in the Safe Use of Sheep Dip (QCF)

Question 330

name the 2 things that must be given to the purchaser if the sheep dip is an organophosphorous compound

Answer 330

1. two pairs of heavy duty gauntlet style gloves
2. A4 laminated safety notice

Question 331

name 4 features the permanent building for storing medicines must have

Answer 331

1. secure
2. clean
3. vermin proof
4. refridgerated space with temp monitoring

Question 332

these are monoamines derived from the amino acid tyrosine;
they are water soluble and 50% bound to plasma proteins in circulation;
include adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine

Answer 332

catecholamine transmitters

Question 333

these are drugs with similar actions to the postganlionic fibers of the SNS;
they resemble adrenaline in their actions and are also referred to as adrenergics

Answer 333

sympathomimetics

Question 334

these are drugs that oppose the actions of the postganglionic fibers of the SNS;
they are also referred to as antiadrenergics or sympathetic (adrenergic) antagonists

Answer 334

sympatholytic

Question 335

these are drugs that stimulate postsynaptic muscarinic receptors;
their actions resemble acetylcholine and they are also referred to as cholinergics or parasympathetic agonists

Answer 335

parasympathomimetics

Question 336

these are drugs that oppose the actions of the PNS at the muscarinic receptors by blocking the actions of acetylcholine;
also referred to as anticholinergics, parasympathetic antagonists or occasionally vagolytics

Answer 336

parasympatholytics

Question 337

adrenergic or cholinergic?

all presynaptic efferent autonomic fibers and the somatic motor fibers

Answer 337

cholinergic

Question 338

what do most postsynaptic sympathetic fibers release

Answer 338

noradrenaline

Question 339

what is the effect of the sympathetic nervous system on the heart?

Answer 339

increased activity (beta1)

(rate, strength, conduction)

Question 340

what is the effect of the sympathetic nervous system on blood vessels

Answer 340

vasoconstriction (alpha1 and alpha2)

Question 341

what is the effect of the sympathetic nervous system on the iris

Answer 341

dilation of pupil (mydriasis) (alpha1)

Question 342

what is the effect of the sympathetic nervous system on the bronchi?

Answer 342

relaxation (beta2)

Question 343

what is the effect of the sympathetic nervous system on the GIT

Answer 343

decreased activity (alpha1&2, beta1&2)

Question 344

what is the effect of the sympathetic nervous system on the adrenal medulla

Answer 344

secretion (adrenaline)

Question 345

name the 5 key features of neurotransmitter function that provide potential targets for pharmacologic therapy

Answer 345

1. synthesis
2. storage
3. release
4. binding to receptor
5. termination of action of the transmitter and receptor effects

Question 346

what is the synthesis step of adrenergic neurotransmission?

Answer 346

1. Tyrosine converted to Dopa by tyrosine hydroxylase
2. Dopa converted to dopamine

Question 347

what is the storage step of adrenergic neurotransmission?

Answer 347

1. dopamine transported into synaptic vessel by VMAT
2. dopamine converted to NE in the vesicle

Question 348

what is the release step of adrenergic neurotransmission?

Answer 348

1. action potential opens calcium channels
2. fusion of vesicles with surface membrane using SNARE receptors and VAMP proteins
3. release of NE

Question 349

what can block the release of noradrealine in adrenergic neurotransmission

Answer 349

botulinum toxin

(cleaves SNARE proteins in neurons)

Question 350

what can be used to block the reuptake of noradrenaline by the norepinephrne transporter (NET)

Answer 350

tricyclic antidepressants

Question 351

name the adrenergic receptor

contracts smooth muscles:
1. vasoconstriction
2. pyloric sphincter contraction (stomach)
3. urinary sphincter contraction
4. pupillary dilation (mydriasis)
5. positive ionotropic effect (myocardium)

(Gq)

Answer 351

Alpha1 receptors

Question 352

name the adrenergic receptor

Presynaptic nerve terminals:
1. inhibits norepinephrine release
2. inhibits ACh release
3. inhibits insulin release

(Gi)

Answer 352

Alpha2 receptors

Question 353

name the adrenergic receptor

Heart and Kidneys:
1. incr. heart rate
2. incr. cardiac contractility and stroke
3. incr. renin release

(Gs)

Answer 353

Beta1 receptors

Question 354

name the adrenergic receptor

Relaxes Smooth Muscles, liver, pancreas, eye:
1. bronchodilation
2. decr. gastric contraction
3. decr. intestinal peristalsis
4. urinary retention
5. liver: glycogen to glucose
6. vasodilation

(Gs)

Answer 354

Beta2

Question 355

name the adrenergic receptor

Adipose Tissue:
1. sdipose tissue lipolysis
2. decr. urination

(Gs)

Answer 355

Beta3 receptors

Question 356

what is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart

Answer 356

decr. activity

(M2 > M3)

Question 357

what is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the blood vessels

Answer 357

vasodilation

(M2)

Question 358

what is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the iris

Answer 358

contraction of pupil (myosis)

(M2, M3)

Question 359

what is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the bronchi

Answer 359

constriction

(M2 = M3)

Question 360

what is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the GIT

Answer 360

incr. activity

(M2=M3)

Question 361

what is the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the adrenal medulla

Answer 361

no effect

Question 362

what is the synthesis step of cholinergic neurotransmission

Answer 362

1. choline transported into presynaptic nerve terminal
2. ACh synthesized from choline and acetyl CoA by choline acetyltransferase (ChAT)

Question 363

what is the storage step of cholinergic neurotransmission

Answer 363

1. ACh transported into large, clear vesicles by VAT along with neuropeptides and ATP

Question 364

what is the release step of cholinergic neurotransmission

Answer 364

1. voltage sensitive Ca2+ channels open
2. influx of Ca2+
3. fusion of vesicles with surface membrane (involves SNAPs and VAMPs)
4. expulsion of ACh and co-transmitters into synaptic cleft

Question 365

what can the release of ACh from the nerve terminal be blocked by

Answer 365

botulinum toxin

Question 366

how many muscarinic receptors are there

Answer 366

5 (M1-M5)

Question 367

what do muscarinic receptors M1, M4, and M5 act on

Answer 367

CNS

Question 368

what does muscarinic receptor 2 act on

Answer 368

heart (reduces HR)

Question 369

what does muscarinic receptor 3 act on

Answer 369

smooth muscle (contract)

Question 370

which cholinergic receptor?

blocked by curare;
linked to ion channels;
response is fast and brief;
located at neuromuscular junctions and autonomic ganglia;
mediate excitation in target cells;
post-synaptic

Answer 370

nicotinic

Question 371

which cholinergic receptor?

blocked by atropine;
linked to G-couple proteins;
found in smooth muscle;
mediate excitation and inhibition in target cells;
both pre- and postsynaptic

Answer 371

muscarinic

Question 372

name 3 possible mechanisms of drugs acting on the autonomic nervous system

Answer 372

1. act on neurotransmitter receptor
2. interfere with NT biosynthesis
3. interfere with degradation of NT

Question 373

what do direct acting agonists or antagonists act on

(adrenergic drugs)

Answer 373

one or more postsynaptic adrenergic receptors (alpha1&2, beta1&2)

Question 374

name the type of adrenergic drug

increase release of NE or inhibit reuptake or block metabolising enzyme

Answer 374

indirect acting agonists

Question 375

name 2 ways a drug acting on the ANS can interfere with degradation of neurotransmitter

Answer 375

1. inhibit degradation enzyme
2. inhibit neurotransmitter reuptake

Question 376

name 2 ways a drug acting on the ANS can interfere with neurotransmitter biosynthesis

Answer 376

1. inhibit precursor uptake
2. inhibit enzyme for biosynthesis

Question 377

what are the ACh receptors

Answer 377

nicotinic and muscarinic

Question 378

what are teh 3 main types of nicotinic receptors

Answer 378

1. muscle (NMJ)
2. ganglionic (ANS)
3. CNS (brain)

Question 379

name the 4 main classes of drugs affecting PNS

Answer 379

1. Muscarinic agonists (parasympathomimetics)
2. muscarinic antagonists (anticholinergics)
3. nicotinic agonists
4. nicotinic antagonists (ganglion blockers)

Question 380

name 4 choline ester drugs (direct muscarinic agonists)

(parasympathomimetics)

Answer 380

1. ACh
2. Methacholine
3. Bethanecol
4. Carbachol

Question 381

what receptor do choline esters have a direct action on?

Answer 381

muscarinic receptors

Question 382

name the choline ester drug (muscarinic agonist - parasympathomimetic)

mainly muscarinic;
used inhaled for bronchial reactivity diagnosis

Answer 382

methacholine

Question 383

name the choline ester drug (muscarinic agonist - parasympathomimetic)

long acting;
highly specific for muscarinic receptors;
minimal cardiac negative chronotropic and ionotropic effects;
used to induce urination

Answer 383

bethanechol

Question 384

name the choline ester drug (muscarinic agonist - parasympathomimetic)

long acting;
significant nicotinic action;
used to induce gastric motility and urination and tpically to induce miosis

Answer 384

carbachol

Question 385

name 3 types of alkaloid drugs (direct muscarinic agonists)

(parasympathomimetics)

Answer 385

1. pilocarpine
2. muscarine
3. arecoline

Question 386

name the alkaloid drug (muscarinic agonist - parasympathomimetic)

dominant muscarinic activity;
tertiary amine alkaloid, so increased lipid solubility;
added topically to the eye to induce miosis;
used for treatment of glaucoma;
contraindicated in uveitis and anterior lens luxation

Answer 386

pilocarpine

Question 387

these are indirectly acting parasympathomimetics;
they inhibit AChE to incr. ACh activity;
have a cholinergic effect initially but prolonged depolarization may have desensitization

Answer 387

anticholinesterases

Question 388

name 3 factors that contribute to the effects/toxicity of anticholinesterases

(indirect parasympathomimetics)

Answer 388

1. reversible or irreversible
2. affinity for receptor
3. how readily they can access receptor (volatility and lipid solubility)

Question 389

name the 6 cholinergic effects of anticholinesterases that may lead to toxicity if in excess

(indirect parasympathomimetics)

Answer 389

1. Salivation
2. Lacrimation
3. Urination
4. Defecation
5. Gastrointestinal distress
6. Emesis

(SLUDGE)

Question 390

what are the 3 main uses of anticholinesterases?

(indirect parasympathomimetics)

Answer 390

1. diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
2. in anaesthesia to reverse neuromuscular blockade
3. in connection with eye and GIT

Question 391

name the anticholinesterase (indirect parasympathomimetic)

very short acting quaternary ammonium compound;
reversal of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants;
diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

Answer 391

Edrophonium chloride ‘tensilon’

Question 392

name the anticholinesterase (indirect parasympathomimetic)

moderate duration of action;
reversal of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants;
treatment of myasthenia gravis (orally: TID, dose reduced as required)

Answer 392

Neostigmine

Question 393

name the anticholinesterase (indirect parasympathomimetic)

moderat duration;
more lipid soluble;
treatment of myasthenia gravis (orally: BID)

Answer 393

Pyridostigmine

Question 394

name the anticholinergic drug (muscarinic antagonist)

lipid soluble (crosses BBB);
used to increase HR and with anticholinesterases to prevent side effects from muscarinic stimulation;
not recommended in horses and rabbits are resistant;

Answer 394

atropine

Question 395

name the anticholinergic drug (muscarinic antagonist)

naturally ocurring agent;
crosses BBB - sedation;
used for drying secretions;
has antemetic properties;
contained in antispasmodic Buscopan with dipyrone metamizole

Answer 395

scopolamine (aka hyoscine)

Question 396

name the anticholinergic drug (muscarinic antagonist)

synthetic agent;
does not cross placenta or BBB;
less tachycardia;
slower onset and longer duration;
used to prevent and treat bradycadia (anaesthesia, vagal stimulation);
less CNS effects

Answer 396

Glycopirrolate

Question 397

name the anticholinergic drug (muscarinic antagonist)

bronchodilation in horses (R.A.O.);
inhalation - poor absorption therefore minimal side effects

Answer 397

Ipratopium bromide

Question 398

name the anticholinergic drug (muscarinic antagonist)

mydriatic and cycloplegic;
long duration of action

Answer 398

cyclopentolate

Question 399

name the anticholinergic drug (muscarinic antagonist)

used as a mydriatic (NOT cycloplegic);
drug of choice for intra-occular exam;
rapid acting, shorter duration of several hours

Answer 399

tropicamide

Question 400

name 3 naturally occuring catecholamines

(sympathomimetics)

Answer 400

1. adrenaline
2. noradrenaline
3. dopamine

Question 401

name the sympathomimetic drug

non-selective: acts at both alpha- and beta-adrenoceptors;
effects: incr. HR, incr. force of contraction, vasocontriction;
used for cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis;
can induce tachycardias and arrhythmias

Answer 401

adrenaline

Question 402

name the sympathomimetic drug

alpha effects > beta1 effects > beta2 effects;
primarily a vasopressor via alpha stimulation;
used to treat hypotension

Answer 402

noradrenaline

Question 403

name the sympathomimetic drug

acts at dopamine receptors alpha- and beta-adrenoceptors;
dose dependent effect;
mixed effects in practice;
used to treat hypotension

Answer 403

dopamine

Question 404

what is the effect of dopamine at low doses

Answer 404

dopa effects:
1. vasodilation
2. incr. renal perfusion and filtration

Question 405

what is the effect of dopamine at medium doses

Answer 405

beta effects:
positive inotropy and chronotropy

Question 406

what is the effect of dopamine at high doses

Answer 406

alpha effects:
vasoconstriction

Question 407

name the sympathomimetic drug category

induces vasoconstriction and can increase the force of myocardial contraction;
includes phenylephrine and methoxamine

Answer 407

alpha1 agonists

Question 408

name the sympathomimetic drug

alpha1 agonist;
used in ocular preparations to induce mydriasis;
used in anaesthesia to increase arterial pressure;
used following anaesthesia in horses as nasal spray to cause vasoconstriction and reduce nasal congestion

Answer 408

phenylephrine

Question 409

name the sympathomimetic drug category

extensively used in vet med for their sedative nd analgesic properties;
CV effects: incr. SVR leading to reflex bradycardia;
includes: dexmedetomidine, medetomidine, xylazine, detomidine, romifidine

Answer 409

alpha2 agonists

Question 410

name the sympathomimetic drug

Beta1:
in equine anaesthesia to maintain mean arterial pressure;
used in SA for inotropic support in acute cardiac crisis;
short half life and rapid metabolism;
beta1 > beta2 > alpha1

Answer 410

Dobutamine

Question 411

name the sympathomimetic drug

beta2 agonist;
used in treatment of R.A.O. in horses;
can induce vasodilation;
growth promoting effect: hypertrophy of muscle fibers, protein deposition and lipolysis in adipose cells

Answer 411

Clenbuterol

Question 412

what are the 2 main effects of beta2 agonists?

(sympathomimetics)

Answer 412

bronchodilation and uterine relaxation

Question 413

name the sympathomimetic drug

beta2 agonist;
used in equine anaesthesia to treat hypoxemia due to V/Q mismatch;
can produce tachycardia

Answer 413

Salbutamol

Question 414

name the sympathomimetic drug

beta2 agonists;
used as a bronchodilator;
more cardiac side effects;
can be used to treat hyperkalemia

Answer 414

Terbutaline

Question 415

name the sympathomimetic drug

beta2 agonists;
used in the treatment of navicular disease;
induces vasodilation;
used as a tocolytic drug (decr. uterine contraction and delay parturition)

Answer 415

isoxuprine

Question 416

name the sympathomimetic drug

mixed effects on alpha and beta;
direct and indirect actions;
prone to tachyphylaxis;
used as a bolus to treat hypotension under GA

Answer 416

ephedrine

Question 417

name the sympathomimetic drug

alpha1-agonist properties (direct) and triggers noradrenaline release (indirect);
used for treatment of urinary incontinence in dogs;
has been used as a nasal decongestant

Answer 417

Phenylpropanolamine

Question 418

name the adrenoceptor antagonist drug

alpha1 antagonist:
highly selective;
produces vasodilation;
used in treatment of certain urinary tract conditions

Answer 418

Prazosin

Question 419

name the adrenoceptor antagonist drug

non-selective alpha antagonist:
irreversible, long-acting alpha-antagonist;
predominant alpha1-adrenoceptor blocking effect;
uses: pheochromocytoma stabilization, laminitis

Answer 419

Phenoxybenzamine

Question 420

name the adrenoceptor antagonist drug

non-selective alpha antagonists:
competitive, short acting;
predominant, alpha1-adrenoceptor blocking effect;
used to treat hypertensive crises;
can cause insulin secretion, leading to hypoglycemia

Answer 420

Phentolamine

Question 421

name the 4 cardinal signs of inflammation

Answer 421

1. redness
2. heat
3. swelling
4. pain (loss of function)

Question 422

name 4 benefits of inflammation

Answer 422

1. incr. blood flow to injured tissue
2. oedema formation (dilution effect)
3. attraction of leukocytes and macrophages
4. antibody production at site of infection

Question 423

name the 4 main uses of anti-inflammatory drugs (control of adverse effects of inflammatory response)

Answer 423

1. analgesia (acute and chronic)
2. anti-pyretic
3. anti-endotoxic effect
4. anti-thrombotic effect

Question 424

name the inflammatory mediator

released from mast cells, basophils, eosinophils;
causes vasodilation, incr. vascular permeability

Answer 424

histamine

Question 425

name the inflammatory mediator

originates from plasma, formed from kininogen by factor XII;
causes vasodilation, pain mediator

Answer 425

bradykinin

Question 426

name the inflammatory mediator

produced by many cell types;
causes gastroprotection, renoprotection, inflammation, reduction of pain threshold

Answer 426

prostaglandins (PGF2alpha, PGD2, PGE2)

Question 427

name the inflammatory mediator

produced by platelets;
causes platelet aggregation, vasoconstriction

Answer 427

thromboxanes (TXA2)

Question 428

name the inflammatory mediator

produced by platelets, mast cells;
cause incr. vascular permeability

Answer 428

Leukotrienes (LTB4)

Question 429

name the inflammatory mediator

produced by WBC, mast cells;
causes platelet aggregation, adherence of leukocytes to endothelium, lysosomal enzyme release

Answer 429

platelet aggregating factor

Question 430

name the inflammatory mediator

produced by plasma proteins;
cuase chemotaxis, opsonization

Answer 430

complement

Question 431

name the inflammatory mediator

produced by macrophages and mast cells;
cause initiation of inflammation and chemotaxis, pain mediator

Answer 431

cytokines

Question 432

name the inflammatory mediator

produced by mast cells and platelets;
cause vasoconstriction

Answer 432

5-HT

Question 433

name the 2 broad groups of NSAIDs

Answer 433

1. enolic acids
2. carboxylic acids

Question 434

what is the mechanism of action for NSAIDs?

Answer 434

inhibit cyclo-oxygenase (COX) enzyme 1 and/or 2

Question 435

which COX?

contitutive, constant production;
produce PGs involved in normal physiological processes

Answer 435

COX1

Question 436

which COX?

inducible, produced by inflammatory cells;
produce PGs invlved in inflammation

Answer 436

COX2

Question 437

name 2 NSAIDs which lead to an increased bleeding time

Answer 437

aspirin and ketoprofen

Question 438

name 2 NSAIDs which do NOT lead to increased bleeding time

Answer 438

meloxicam and carprofen

Question 439

where are NSAIDs absorbed well

Answer 439

stomach

Question 440

is metabolism and excretion of NSAIDs in young animals faster or slower?

Answer 440

slower

Question 441

what order of kinetics do most NSAIDs display?
(incr. concentration, faster clearance)

Answer 441

first order kinetics

Question 442

name 5 adverse side effects of NSAIDs (related mainly to inhibition of COX1)

Answer 442

1. GI ulceration
2. nephrotoxicity
3. hepatotoxicity
4. coagulation effects
5. wound healing

Question 443

what species is paracetamol contraindicated in?
they have reduced levels of glutathione, so a much lower toxic dose

Answer 443

cats

Question 444

name the NSAID

alternatice mechanism of action (COX1, COX2, myeloperoxidase inhibitor);
good anitpyretic and analgesic, poor anti-inflammatory;
metabolism: glucoronidation, conjugaton, N-hydroxylation;
glutathione binds toxic metabolites which would otherwise cause hepatic necrosis

Answer 444

paracetamol

Question 445

name the NSAID

COX2 selective;
licensed in dogs, cats, horses, cattle, pigs, guinea pigs;
uses: acute and chronic musculoskeletal disorders, postoperative surgical pain, perioperative use;
do NOT use in prgnant or lactating animals OR animals < 6 weeks of age OR cats < 2kg

Answer 445

meloxicam

Question 446

name the NSAID

COX2 selective;
licensed in dogs, cats, cattle, horses;
uses: postoperative soft tissue/orthopedic pain, OA, perioperative use;
animals < 6 weeks have additional risk

Answer 446

carprofen

Question 447

name the NSAID

COX2 selective;
dogs and cats;
uses: peri and postoperative use, ST and orthopedic pain, OA;
safety NOT established in pregnancy/lactation, cats <4mo, dogs <2mo, or animals <2.5kg

Answer 447

Robenacoxib

Question 448

name the NSAID

COX2 selective;
dogs, horses;
uses: postoperative analgesia, OA;
cotraindications: pregnancy and lactation

Answer 448

firocoxib

Question 449

name the NSAID

COX2 selective;
dogs;
long term analgesia for OA in dogs;
contraindications: <12mo, < 5 kg

Answer 449

Mavacoxib

Question 450

name the NSAID

COX2 selective;
dogs;
uses: peri and postoperative pain due to orthopedic and soft tissue surgery, OA;
contraindications: <10 weeks, pregnancy and lactation

Answer 450

Cimicoxib

Question 451

name the equine NSAID

anti-inflammatory > analgesic;
COX1 and COX2;
concentrates in inflammatory exudate;
toxicity: PLE;
not for use in food-producing horses

Answer 451

Phenylbutazone aka “Bute”

Question 452

name the equine NSAID

prodrug, metabolized to phenylbutazone in liver;
more palatable, reduced GI ulceration;
expensive

Answer 452

Suxibuzone “Danilon”

Question 453

name the equine NSAID

analgesic dose and “anto-endotoxic” dose;
injectable, use in colic/ST or orthopedic pain

Answer 453

Flunixin

Question 454

name the equine NSAID

oral paste licensed for ST or orthopedic pain, preoperative use;
COX2 > COX1 ;
licensed in pregnancy;
has food withdrawal

Answer 454

Vedaprofen

Question 455

name the farm animal NSAID

name 3 farm animal NSAIDs

Answer 455

1. flunixin
2. meloxicam
3. ketoprofen

Question 456

name the novel drug

non-COX inhibiting, specific prostaglandin receptor antagonist;
specifically targets EP4 receptor therefore minimal side effects;
long-term pain control for OA;
expensive

Answer 456

Grapiprant

Question 457

name 3 NSAIDs licensed for perioperative use

Answer 457

1. meloxicam
2. carprofen
3. robenacoxib

Question 458

what are endogenous corticosteroids produced by

Answer 458

adrenal cortex

Question 459

what are the 2 categories of endogenous corticosteroids

Answer 459

1. mineralocorticoids
2. glucocorticoids

Question 460

what a re endogenous corticosteroids synthesized from

Answer 460

cholesterol

Question 461

where are corticosteroids metabolized

Answer 461

liver

Question 462

what is the active form of cortisone

Answer 462

cortisol

Question 463

what is the active form of prednisone

Answer 463

prednisolone

Question 464

what 4 types of effects do corticosteroids have

Answer 464

1. metabolic effects
2. systemic effects
3. anti-inflammatory effects
4. immune suppressive effects

Question 465

what type of effect do low doeses of corticosteroids have

Answer 465

physiological

Question 466

what type of effect do medium doeses of corticosteroids have

Answer 466

anti-inflammatory

Question 467

what type of effect do high doeses of corticosteroids have

Answer 467

immune suppressive

Question 468

name 5 systemic effects of corticosteroids

Answer 468

1. elevated liver enzymes (dogs)
2. alteration of CNS function
3. PU/PD
4. incr. appetite
5. muscle wastage

Question 469

what do corticosteroids inhibit for effective anti-inflammatory action

Answer 469

inhibit PLA2 (entire AA pathway)

Question 470

name 7 adverse effects of corticosteroids

Answer 470

1. gastric ulceration
2. PU/PD
3. hyperglycemia
4. muscle atrophy
5. osteoporotic effect
6. Cushing’s disease
7. suppression of HPA axis

Question 471

name 3 short acting (<24h) glucocorticoids

Answer 471

1. predisolone
2. Prednisone
3. Methylprednisolone

Question 472

name 3 long acting (>24h) glucocorticoids

Answer 472

1. dexamethasone
2. betamethasone
3. triamcinolone

Question 473

name the corticosteroid

parenteral formulation;
water soluble salts, ideal for IV administration

Answer 473

Dexamethasone

Question 474

name the corticosteroid

parenteral formulation;
insoluble esters, long acting, IM administration

Answer 474

1. methylprednisolone acetate
2. dexamethasone phenylproprionate / isonicotinate

Question 475

name 5 clinical uses of corticosteroids

Answer 475

1. anti-inflammatory
2. immune-mediated disease
3. neoplasia
4. treatment for hypoadrenocorticism
   5n. septic shock

Question 476

name 3 clinical uses of corticosteroids in farm animals

Answer 476

1. termination of pregnancy / induce parturition
2. acute trauma, neuropathies
3. chronic resp. disease

Question 477

what are the two most commonly used classes of anthelmintic drugs in small animal practice

Answer 477

1. Benzimidazoles
2. Macrocylic lactones

Question 478

what do all Benzimidazole drugs licensed for dogs and cats contain (or its prodrug)

(anthelmintics)

Answer 478

fenbedazole (febental)

Question 479

name the small animal anthelmintic class

given orally, poorly absorbed from GIT (enhanced with food);
inhibit nematode tubulin polymerization and prevent microtubule formation affecting cellular transpot and energy metabolism;
metabolized in liver and mostly excreted in feces (small amount in urine and milk);
broad spectrum of action agaist nematodes in GIT and resp. tract (both adult and immature);
will treat Giardia;
limited action against cestodes

Answer 479

Benzimidazoles

Question 480

what are the two classes of Macrocyclic lactones

(anthelmintics)

Answer 480

1. Avermectins
2. Milbemycins

Question 481

name the small animal anthelmintic class

topical or oral admin;
accumulate in fat so long duration of action;
act on glutamate-gated chloride channels in nerve cells (paralysis);
narrower safety margin in cats;
largely excreted in feces and urine (small amount in milk);
topical products removed by bathing or swimming (harmful to aquatic life);
effective against wide range of nematodes in larval, immature and adult stages;
no activity against cestodes;
some can be used against Diofilaria

Answer 481

Macocytic lactones

Question 482

name the small animal anthelmintic

available as a spot on preparation for cats only in combination with ectoparasiticides and praziquantel;
slow absorption;
will treat GI nematodes, hookworm and capillaria;
effective against D. immitis larvae but not adults

Answer 482

Eprinomectin (Avermectin)

(Macrocyclic lactone)

Question 483

name the small animal anthelmintic

available for both cats and dogs;
applied topically, bathing will not affect efficacy after 2h drying time;
will treat roundworms, hookworms and prevent D. immitis;
some reports of salivation or vomiting in cats after licking site & of alopecia at site

Answer 483

Selamectin (Avermectin)

(Macrocyclic lactone)

Question 484

name the small animal anthelmintic

administered orally and largely excreted unchanged in feces;
any that is absorbed will be excreted in bile;
absorbed quickly but eliminated rapidly;
treats GI roundworms, hookworm and whipworm;
can be used as lungworm treatment or prevention

Answer 484

Milbemycin

(Macrocyclic lactone)

Question 485

what is the available drug for small animals in the Tetrahydropyrimidines class of anthelmintics

Answer 485

Pyrantel

Question 486

name the small animal anthelmintic

act on nicotinic acetylcholine receptors to initially cause muscle contraction and then paralysis;
giving with food will delay absorption;
max concentration achieved is more important than duration of exposure for effectiveness;
effective against adult and larval stages of GI nematodes;
can be used in puppies and kittens and during pregnancy

Answer 486

Pyrantel

(Tetrahydropyrimidines)

Question 487

name the small animal anthelmintic

acts at neuromuscular junction to stimulate presynaptic secretin receptors which causes paralysis of the parasite;
available as a spot on preparation for cats;
effective against GI nematodes, hookworm and A. abstrusus;
absorbed slowly over 2-3 days and thought to be stored in fat;
eliminated slowly in bile and feces

Answer 487

Emodepside

(Cyclodepsipeptides)

Question 488

name the small animal anthelmintic

effective against roundworm (adult only);
blocks neuromuscular transmission via GABA-gated chloride channels and causes paralysis of parasite;
rapidly absorbed and metabolized;
wide safety margin, can be used in puppies, kittens and pregnant animals but NOT in animals with liver or renal disease;
should not be used with Pyrantel (agonists)

Answer 488

Piperazine

Question 489

name the small animal anthelmintic

diphenylether;
may act by uncoupling oxidative phosphorylation and depleting energy;
given orally to dogs only;
causes neurological signs in cats;
broad spectrum of acticity against GI nematodes and some tapeworms;
irritant and can cause vomiting so give whole tablets to dogs

Answer 489

Nitroscante

Question 490

name 4 clinical uses of GnRH

Answer 490

1. induction of follicular growth
2. induction of ovulation
3. improvement of conception rates (cattle)
4. Tx of follicular cysts (dairy cattle)

Question 491

when would you give GnRH in cattle to improve conception rates

Answer 491

11-12 days post-service

Question 492

name the 2 categories of gonadotropins

Answer 492

1. pituitary (FSH, LH)
2. chorionic (CGs)

Question 493

which has a longer half life, FSH/LH or CGs, and why?

Answer 493

CGs because more heavily sialylated (more sialic acid residues)

Question 494

name 5 clinical uses of gonadotropins

Answer 494

1. Induction of ovulation
2. Induction of follicular growth during anestrus
3. Detection of cryptorchidism (horses)
4. Induction of spermatogenesis or enhance libido
5. Induction of superovulation (cattle)

Question 495

what gonadotropin is used to induce ovulation

Answer 495

hCG

Question 496

whih gonadotropins are used to induce follicular growth during anestrus

Answer 496

eCG / rFSH

Question 497

what gonadotropin stimulation test is used for detection of cryptorchidism in horses

Answer 497

hCG

Question 498

which gonadotropins are used to induce spermatogenesis or enhance libido

Answer 498

eCG / rFSH

Question 499

when to start rFSH injections for induction of superovulation in cattle

Answer 499

mid estrus cycle (day 9-14)

Question 500

name 6 indications for use of oxytocin

Answer 500

1. dystocia due to uterine inertia
2. promote uterine involution
3. expulsion of retained fetal membranes (horses)
4. uterine prolapse
5. facilitate clearance of uterine discharge (mares)
6. milk let down

Question 501

name 3 cases where oxytocin is contra-indicated and could lead to uterine rupture if used

Answer 501

1. abnormal fetal position
2. insufficient cervical dilation
3. previous uterine surgery

Question 502

name the two blood proteins that bind reproductive steroids

Answer 502

1. sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)
2. corticosteroid binding globulin (CBG)

Question 503

what 2 reproductive steroids are bound by sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)

Answer 503

1. testosterone
2. estradiol

Question 504

what 2 reproductive steroids are bound by Corticosteroid binding globulin (CBG)

Answer 504

1. cortisol
2. progesterone

Question 505

what 2 ways do binding proteins regulate reproductive steroid activity

Answer 505

1. regulating steroid metabolism
2. regulating steroid access to target cells

Question 506

name 2 clinical uses of Progestagens

Answer 506

1. synchroniztion of estrus (cattle)
2. induction of estrus in anestrus animals

Question 507

name 3 adverse effects of progestagens in small animals

Answer 507

1. uterine disorders (endometrial hyperplasia, pyometra)
2. adrenal corticol suppression
3. mammary tumors, pseudopregnancy, exacerbate diabetes

Question 508

what is the main clinical use of PGF2⍺

Answer 508

induction of luteolysis

Question 509

name 3 indications of PGF2⍺ as a luteolytic agent in mares

Answer 509

1. persistent CL
2. termination of pregnancy
3. synchronization of estrus

Question 510

name 6 indications of PGF2⍺ as a luteolytic agent in cattle

Answer 510

1. luteal cysts
2. persistent CL
3. endometritis
4. pyometra
5. termination of pregnancy
6. synchronization of estrus

Question 511

in order to terminate pregnancy, PGF2⍺ must be given before this day of pregnancy in cattle

Answer 511

day 150

Question 512

in order to terminate pregnancy, PGF2⍺ must be given before this day of pregnancy in sheep

Answer 512

day 50

Question 513

in order to terminate pregnancy, PGF2⍺ must be given before this day of pregnancy in horses

Answer 513

day 35

Question 514

what must be present in order for PGF2⍺ to work

Answer 514

responsive CL

Question 515

how far apart should 2 injections of PGF2⍺ be given in order to synchronize estrus in cattle

Answer 515

11 days

Question 516

name 5 adverse effects of PGF2⍺

Answer 516

1. transient sweating
2. mild colic
3. incr. HR
4. incr. resp. rate
5. muscle weakness

Question 517

name the hormone

induces Lh/FSH release from the pituitary;
stimulates follicular maturation/ovulation

Answer 517

GnRH

Question 518

name the hormone

FSH/LH agonist which stimulates maturation of follicles

Answer 518

eCG / PMSG

Question 519

these provide exogenous progesterone source to prevent ovulation (“a CL on a stick”)

Answer 519

progesterone implants

Question 520

name the hormone

induces luteolysis

Answer 520

PGF2⍺