Surg 104--Final Review Flashcards
1
Q
Contrast media instilled into the urinary tract for visualization of the bladder, ureters, and kidneys is called what?
A
retrograde pyelography
2
Q
Because _____ is found in contrast media, the patients must be evaluated for potential hypersensitivity.
A
iodine
3
Q
Intraoperative radiation therapy is used to deliver _____ dose(s) of radiation to a specific area of the body.
A
a single
4
Q
A test that includes of blood glucose, carbon dioxide, creatinine, urea nitrogen, bicarbonate, and several important electrolytes is a _____.
A
metabolic panel
5
Q
_____ is necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses to skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscle.
A
potassium
6
Q
Two primary tests that are performed on surgical patients to evaluate blood and blood cells is a _____.
A
complete blood count (CBC) and differential leukocyte
7
Q
_____ is the oxygen carrying protein attached to the red blood cell.
A
hemoglobin
8
Q
When would an MRI not be used on a patient?
A
to insert a catheter
9
Q
A malignant tumor _____.
A
migrates from tissue to tissue
10
Q
A pneumoperitoneum is unnecessary during a TEP approach to inguinal hernia repair since the peritoneum is not entered.
A
True
11
Q
A fibrous band or membrane lying deep to the skin supporting muscle is called _____.
A
fascia
12
Q
An incision that follows a line parallel to the midline of the body is a _____.
A
paramedian incision
13
Q
How many section is the abdomen divided into?
A
4 quadrants
14
Q
The _____ layer contains loose adipose tissue which varies from 1/4 inch thick to more than 8 inches.
A
“subcue” (subcutaneous)
15
Q
A congenital weakness in the inguinal floor is called a _____ hernia.
A
indirect
16
Q
In hernia repairs the use of _____ provides of bridge of strong material.
A
mesh
17
Q
The _____ are sections of the small bowels suspended from the abdominal wall by a sheet of vascular tissue called the mesentery.
A
jejunum and ilium
18
Q
After the abdominal contents are exposed the scrub would hand only _____.
A
damp lap sponges soaked in saline
19
Q
What is the peritoneum closed with?
A
absorbable suture on a tapered needle
20
Q
What does the falciform ligament do?
A
separates the lobes of the liver
21
Q
A _____ breast biopsy is taken when a biopsy needle into the mass and tissue is retrieved for histologic examination.
A
core
22
Q
What open procedure includes creating a McBurney incision?
A
appendectomy
23
Q
What suture technique is used on the end of an appendectomy.
A
purse-string suture
24
Q
The _____ is the largest lymphatic organ in the body
A
spleen
25
What is the most common site for a pancreatic tumor?
head
26
Why would a surgeon choose to irrigate a mastectomy with sterile water rather than sterile or normal saline?
saline spreads the cancer cells
27
Name a procedure that can be laparoscopically (minimally invasive).
cholecystectomy
28
An acquired weakness in the inguinal floor.
inguinal
29
Abdominal viscera is trapped between tissue layers.
incarcerated
30
Located in Hesselbach's triangle.
inguinal
31
Herniated tissue that has been compromised or has no blood supply.
stangulated
32
Hernia that protrudes across the membranous sac of the spermatic cord.
inguinal
33
Occurs along the linea alba or umbilicus.
ventral
34
Indirect and direct hernias are called _____.
inguinal
35
May lead to necrosis.
strangulated
36
A vertical incision 4 cm lateral to the abdomen is a _____.
paramedian
37
Which structure could best be approached through an thoracoabdominal incision?
esophagus
38
The suture most appropriate for closure of the intestinal mucosa?
3-0 chromic
39
The tube used to drain bile from the common bile duct following an exploration is a _____.
T-tube
40
Where does a femoral hernia occur?
below pouparts ligament
41
Which surgical procedure would require a C-arm?
operative cholangiogram
42
What is the term used to describe male breast enlargement?
gynecomastia
43
Relief of symptoms without curing a disease is called _____.
palliative treatment
44
A hernia with contents that cannot be pushed back into the abdominal cavity is a _____.
direct hernia
45
Breast infections are commonly caused by what microbe?
staphylococcus aureus
46
What is a twisting of the bowel called?
volvulus
47
The cervix painted with Lugol's solution is _____.
the Schiller's test
48
What is the position for an endometrial ablation?
lithotomy
49
Removal of a benign tumor (fibroid) of the myometrium to control bleeding and prevent pressure on other structures in the pelvis.
myomectomy
50
The _____ is used to remove polyps, subcue leomyomas, and uterine adhesions.
resectoscope
51
Removal of the tubal contents with preservation of the tube.
salpingostomy
52
The goal of _____ is the destruction and scarification of the endometrium to render it non-functional.
ablation
53
Herniation of the bladder into the vagina?
cystocele
54
Herniation of the rectum into the vagina?
rectocele
55
A solution that does not conduct electrical current.
non-electrolytic media
56
The _____ is the outer serous membrane of the uterus.
perimetrium
57
Ligaments that surround the uterus and suspended from the pelvic wall.
broad
58
Lie below the broad ligaments and provide the primary support for the uterus.
cardinal
59
What two hormones prepare the uterus for implantation of a fertilized egg?
estrogen and progesterone
60
What technique of tubal ligation is the most reliable way to ensure the tubes are ligated?
pomeroy technique
61
A method used to drain and evacuate a bartholin cyst?
marsupialization
62
What is a self-retaining retractor used for a pfannenstiel incision?
O'connor-O'sullivan-
63
Clamps most desirable for approximating uterine wound edges for closure during a c-section are _____.
pennington
64
A radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymphadenectomy is a _____.
wertheim procedire
65
What is used to make a pneumoperitoneum?
carbon dioxide
66
A basin for contaminated instruments must be provided for which procedure?
abdominal hysterectomy
67
Scheduled to scrub on a D&C and abdominal hysterectomy, you will:
set up two tables and prepare to do D&C first
68
A foley catheter would be placed into the pre-surgical hysterectomy patient to _____.
avoid injury to the bladder
69
Types of dilators for the cervix.
Hanks, Hagar, Pratt, Goodall
70
An abdominal vesicourethral suspension is know as _____.
marshall-marchetti-krantz
71
A varicocelectomy is done to _____.
improve spermatogenesis
72
A chordee is sometimes associated with _____.
hypospadias
73
What kind of incision is used during a marshall-marchetti-krantz?
lower midline/pfannenstiel
74
Following a TURP, what is the maim reason for inserting a 30 mL 3-way foley catherter?
ensure adequate flow and hemostasis
75
An ileal conduit procedure is most commonly performed following what procedure?
a radical cystestomy
76
Procedure to reconstruct the ureter in the renal pelvis
pyeloplasty
77
_____ may be used during observation of the bladder and retrograde pyleography.
sterile distilled water
78
What is torsion of the testicle?
twisting
79
During an orhiectomy the _____ veins and arteries are cross-clamped and ligated.
testicular
80
What size is the usual adult cystoscope?
21
81
Which solution is commonly used as irrigation during a TURP?
glycine (non-conductive)
82
What is the function of renal dialysis?
removal of waste products
83
What anatomical structure may be viewed through a cystoscopy?
bladder
84
What is created when both ureters are anastomosed to the terminal ileum?
ileal conduit
85
Most common surgical management for a benign prostatic hypertrophy is _____.
TURP
86
The most commonly used self-retaining urethral catheter is a _____
foley
87
Which instrument could be used to dilate a male urethra?
van buren sound
88
Vesicourethral suspension such as the Stamey procedure and marshall-marchetti-krantz procedure perfomed to correct what?
female urinary incontinence
89
Rib instruments should be available for which procedure?
adrenalectomy
90
Circumcision involves removal of what structure?
prepuce
91
The syringe used for evacuation of bladder debris is _____.
ellik evacuator
92
What is the outer layer of bone called?
cortex
93
Example of an instrument used for exposure in ortho surgery.
periosteal elevator
94
What tissue is a slow healer and joins the articular surface of bones and cartilage?
ligaments
95
Pathologic fracture is a fracture caused by _____.
metastatic disease
96
Total joint replacement that involves humeral head and glenoid cavity?
total shoulder
97
What procedure is performed when sesamoid bone is excised and abductor tendon is fixed to the lateral portion of the metatarsal neck?
McBride
98
Which procedure is an example of neurolysis?
carpal tunnel
99
What is used to control bleeding in the bone?
bone wax
100
What type of laser may be used through an arthroscope?
carbon dioxide
101
Method of fixation used in total joint arthroplasty procedures?
biofixation
102
What is a component of a total knee replacement?
patellar component
103
What is a cause of osteomyelitis?
peripheral vascular disease
104
Possible post-op complication after an ortho procedure?
fat embolism
105
Intra-medullary nails commonly used to repair fractures of _____.
tibia and femur
106
In ortho surgery, absorbable suture would most likely be used on _____.
periosteum
107
Removal of a fluid filled sac protruding between wrist joints is an _____.
excision of a ganglion
108
Placement of fixation pins through the skin into the bone proximal and distal to the fracture site which are then connected to stabilizing bars is _____.
external fixation
109
Abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is _____.
scoliosis
110
death of bone tissue due to lack of circulation is _____.
avascular necrosis
111
Most likely donor site for autogenous bone graft is _____.
ilium
112
Type of fracture that includes splintered or crushed bones.
comminuted fratcure
113
Wrist fracture.
colles
114
Heavy sutures used to reattached a weakened anterior capsule to the glenoid fossa to correct recurrent dislocation of the shoulder is which procedure?
Bankart procedure
115
Bone obtained form the patient for bone graft is called _____.
autogenic
116
Fixation device most commonly used for interochanteric fracture of the femur.
compression plates and screws
117
Screws come in what types?
Cortical and Cancellous
118
Implant used on small bone fragments or as part of skeletal traction.
steinmann pin
119
Fracture where healing has not taken place in the usual amount of time.
delayed union
120
Dilating drops are called _____.
mydriatic
121
Medication that may be added to a local anesthetic to increase absorption of dispersion would be _____.
wydase
122
What is the corner of the eye called?
canthus
123
A radical keratotomy is done to repair ______.
myopia
124
Procedure involving the removal of all orbital contents is a _____.
exenteration
125
Complications during intraoperative surgery.
systemic reaction to drugs
loss of vitreous
hemorrhage
126
Which drug is used to constrict the pupil immediately following the removal of a cataract?
acetacholine (miochol)
127
Space between the lens and iris.
posterior chamber
128
Procedure of choice for retinal detachment.
scleral buckling
129
Intraocular pressure is measured with a _____.
tenometer
130
During surgery the eye is irrigated with _____.
BSS
131
Condition in which the crystalline lens of the eye or its capsule become opaque.
cataract
132
Performed to create a permanent opening in the tear duct for draining a tears.
dacryocystorhinostomy
133
Eye muscle surgery performed to repair deviation in the eye caused by _____.
strabismus
134
Abnormal inversion of the lower eyelid.
intropian
135
Patch of degenerative elastic tissue that proliferates from the conjunctiva due to chronic irritation.
ptygerium
136
Performed to treat an intraocular malignancy such a retnablostoma and melanoma.
enucleation
137
Common technique to repair retinal detachment produces _____ between the detached layers.
adhesions
138
Betadine must be diluted to _____.
10%
139
Clear fluid that fills the anterior and posterior chambers.
aqueos
140
Tissue that refracts light rays as they enter the eye.
cornea
141
Pigmented part of eye.
iris
142
Gel substance that fills posterior of eye.
vitreous
143
Anterior space in front of lens and iris.
anterior chamber
144
Following a cataract extraction a _____ vitriectomy may be indicated, considered a complication of surgery
anterior
145
An intravitreous gas injection is done to create pressure on the retina, the gases used are _____.
sulfur and propane
146
Glaucoma is classified as _____.
open angle or closed angle
147
Fluorescein angiography used is the evaluation and diagnosis of _____.
retinal and choroid disease
148
What does fluorescein stain?
cornea
