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BIO 216 Final/Test 4 > Summary Session Flashcards > Flashcards

Summary Session Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

List 4 reasons animals require matter for energy.

A

Homeostasis, metabolism, growth, and reproduction

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2
Q

Which two organic molecules are the primary fuels?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Fats
d. Nucleic acids
e. Both a and c
f. Both a and b
g. All of the above

A

E

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3
Q

Which two monomers form the following disaccharides and polysaccharides?
Sucrose:
Maltose:
Lactose:
Starch:
Glycogen:
Cellulose:

A

-Sucrose: glucose + fructose
Maltose: glucose + glucose
Lactose: glucose + galactose
Starch: chain of glucoses
Glycogen: long chain of glucoses with branches
Cellulose: long chain of glucose with different linkage (main component of cell walls)

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4
Q

The build-up of which molecule causes atherosclerosis?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Nucleic acids
d. Proteins

A

B

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5
Q

What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated lipids?

A

-Saturated fats have no bend in their molecular structure (no double bonds); solid at room temp
Unsaturated fats have a bend in their molecular structure (caused by a double bond); liquid at room temp

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6
Q

There are …..essential amino acids,….. essential vitamins, and ……
essential minerals.

A

-8 A.A, 13 vitamins, large number of minerals

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7
Q

Which of the following is the correct pathway food travels through your digestive system?
a. Mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine, anus
b.Mouth, nasal cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large
intestine, anus
c. Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum
d. Mouth, cardiac sphincter, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus
e. Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, anus

A

E

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8
Q

List the four layers of the vertebrate gut from the outermost to the innermost.

A

-Serosa, muscularis, submucosa, mucosa

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9
Q

Which layer contributes the most to peristalsis?

A

Muscularis: Formed by circular layer (constricts gut diameter) and longitudinal layer (shortens and widens gut): push contents through gut (peristalsis)

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10
Q

Define sphincter.

A

-Circular smooth muscle that form valves to prevent backflow of products
-Separate major parts of digestive tract

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11
Q

What are the 4 major sphincters and where are they located?

A

Cardiac sphincter (lower esophageal): between esophagus and stomach
Pyloric sphincter: between stomach and small intestine
Ileocecal valve: between ileum (last portion of your small intestine) and the colon (first portion of your large intestine)
Anal sphincter: between large intestine and exterior

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12
Q

Where is the location of Gastrin, what is it stimulated by and what is its function?

A

-stomach
-chemoreceptors in stomach
-stimulates the stomach to secrete HCl and pepsinogen

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13
Q

Where is the location of GIP, what is it stimulated by and what is its function?

A

-Secreted by cells in the mucosa of the small intestine; receptors for it are in the pancreas
-food (glucose() in the first part of the small intestine(duodenum)
-stimulates insulin release by the pancreas

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14
Q

Where is the location of CCK, what is it stimulated by and what is its function?

A

-synthesized by cells in the mucosal epithelium of the small intensive and secreted in the duodenum
-fat or protein rich chyme entering the duodenum
-inhibits gastric activity, allow nutrients to be digested in duodenum, absorbed, causes release of digestive enzymes from pancreas and bile froim gall bladder. Rapid inhibition of eating

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15
Q

Where is ghrelin, what is it stimulated by and what is its function

A

Produced in stomach and in cells in the pancreas, act on hypothalamus
Fasting and low carb diet
Stimulates hunger

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16
Q

Where is leptin, what is it stimulated by and what is its function

A

-produced by the adipose tissue,acts on receptors in the hypothalamus
-Adipose cells full of fat
-signals to the brain that the body has had enough to eat

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17
Q

Where is PYY, what is it stimulated by and what is its function?

A

-secreted by the small intestine
-released in response to feeding
-suppress appetite

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18
Q

Explain the process of fat digestion in the small intestine in 3 steps

A

-liver secretes bile that emulsifies fat
-bile salts and movement of small intestine form micelles of fat, accessible by lipases
-lipases hydrolyze fats inside the micelles

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19
Q

Digestion is regulated by the ____________________ nervous system.
a. Enteric Nervous System (ENS)
b. Parasympathetic
c. Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
d. Autonomous
e. All of the above

A

E

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20
Q

What cells secrete H+ and Cl-

A

-parietal cells

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21
Q

What is the function and source of Growth Hormone (GH)

A

-stimulates bone and muscle growth
-anterior pituitary

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22
Q

What is the function and source of prolactin

A

-stimulates milk production and secretion
-anterior pituitary

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23
Q

What is the function and source of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

-stimulates adrenal cortex to secret glucocorticoids
-anterior pituitary

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24
Q

What is the function and source of Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

A

-stimulates the thyroid to produce thyroid hormones
-anterior pituitary

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25
Q

What is the function and source of Lutenizing hormone(LH)

A

-stimulates ovulation in females and testosterone synthesis in males
-anterior pituitary

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26
Q
  1. What is the function and source of follicle stimulating hormone
A

-stimulates folicle maturation in females and spermatogenesis in males
-anterior pituitary

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27
Q

What is the function of oxytocin and source

A

-hypothalamus but stored in posterior pituitary
-stimulates the uterine contraction during labor and milk secretion during lactation

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28
Q

What is the function and source of thyroid hormone

A

-stimulates metabolic activity
-thyroid

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29
Q

What is the function and source of glucocorticoids

A

-increase blood glucose levels and decrease protein synthesis
-adrenal cortex

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30
Q

What is the function and source of mineralcorticoids

A

-increase water reabsorption in kidneys
-adrenal cortex

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31
Q

What is the source and function of epinepherine and norepinephrine

A

-increase blood glucose level and heart rate
-adrenal medulla

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32
Q

What is the source and function of testosterone

A

-maintains male secondary sexual characteristics
-testes

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33
Q

What is the source and function of estrogen

A

-maintains female secondary sexual characteristics
-ovary/placenta

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34
Q

What is the source and function of progesterone

A

-promotes growth and maintenance of endothelium (uterine lining)
-ovary/placenta

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35
Q

What is the source and function of melatonin

A

–sleep/wake
-seasonal patterns
-pineal gland

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36
Q

What is a tropic hormone

A

-hormone that regulates hormone secretion by another endocrine gland

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37
Q

Explain the oxytocin positive feedback mechanism

A

-Oxytocin stimulates the muscle contractions that push the baby through the birth canal. The
release of oxytocin results in stronger contractions during labor. The contractions intensify and
increase until the baby is outside the birth canal. When the stimulus to the pressure receptors
ends, oxytocin production stops and labor contractions cease.

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38
Q

Why are most hormones involved in negative feedback mechanisms rather than positive feedback mechanisms?

A

Positive feedback mechanisms control self-perpetuating events that can be out of control and
do not require continuous adjustment. Whereas, negative feedback mechanisms control highly
regulated bodily functions such as homeostasis. In negative feedback the hormone feeds back
to decrease its own production which brings things back to normal whenever they start to
become too extreme

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39
Q

Which hormone is associated with a “runner’s high” (a cease of pain experienced by
some individuals during strenuous running)?
a. Oxytocin
b. Endorphins
c. Substance P
d. ACTH
e. Cortisol

A

B

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40
Q

A surge in which hormone is responsible for ovulation?
a. LH
b. FSH
c. Progesterone
d. Estradiol
e. No surge is involved in ovulation

A

A

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41
Q

Which 3 classes of wbc can bone marrow stem cells become?

A

(1) Granulocytes: presence of granules in their cytoplasm (neurtrophils, eosinophils, mast
cells and basophils are all types of granulocytes)
(2) Monocytes: clear cytoplasm, larger; migrate to site of infection and divide into macrophages and dendritic cells
(3) Lymphocytes: NK cells, T cells, B cells

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42
Q

What is an antigen?

A

Viruses, foreign cells and certain molecules that are capable of triggering immune reactions by
lymphocytes

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43
Q

What is an epitope?

A

The precise molecular group of antigen that defines its specificity and triggers the immune response

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44
Q

How does B cell activation occur? (Antibody-Mediated Immune Response)

A

(1) Clonal selection, antigen binding → engulf pathogen
(2) Antigen processing, presentation of antigen to eventual helper t cell(s)
(3) T helper cell interaction, link, secrete interleukins
(4) B cell activation
(5) Clonal expansion
(6) Production of plasma cells (secrete antibodies), memory B cells

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45
Q

How can antibodies kill invading bacteria?

A

● Agglutination of bacteria into a clump, preventing them from infecting cells
● Stimulating the complement system
● Enhancing phagocytosis
● Allowing the innate immune response to initiate membrane response complexes

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46
Q

How do T cells recognize an antigen and become activated? (Cell Mediated Immune Response)

A

(1) Antigen must be processed by antigen presenting cells: APC’s (dendritic cells, B cells,
and macrophages) → complexed with other proteins (MHC) and transported to the cell
membrane of the APC
(2) APC presents antigen to T cell and activates T cell → colonel expansion
(3) Production of different T cells

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47
Q

When the T cells are activated, what do they differentiate into?

A

● Memory T cells → future interaction with antigen
● T helper cells (CD4 and MHCII) → B and T cell growth/activation, release chemical
factors
● Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 and MHCI) → kill specific cells, perforins and granzymes

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48
Q

Which of the following can be a part of the adaptive immune system?
i. inflammatory response
ii. NK cells
iii. Pyrogens
iv. Antibodies
a. i, ii, iii, iv
b. i, iii
c. ii, iv
d. ii, iii, iv
e. iv only

A

C

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49
Q

What is involved in the release of histamine?
a. Mast cells
b. Basophil
c. Eosinophil
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

A

D

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50
Q

How does an attack complex kill a pathogen?
a. Stops cell wall formation
b. Inhibits DNA synthesis
c. Reduces protein synthesis
d. Creates pores on membrane of pathogen
e. Induces a fever

A

D

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51
Q

How does the COVID-19 virus enter host cells?

A
  • Glycoprotein spike on COVID virus binds to angiotensin converting enzyme II (ACE2) ,
    which is the receptor in the host cell
  • This induces endocytosis of virion particle, and catalyzes the fusion between host and
    viral membranes, allowing penetration of the virus genome into host cytoplasm
  • Virus RNA uses host cell to create new virus RNA and assemble new viral particles
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52
Q

Pulmonary embolisms and strokes are possible effects of COVID-19. How does
COVID-19 cause these blood clots?
a. Rush of cytokines raises clotting factors in blood
b. Inflammation (severe inflammation can trigger clotting)
c. Pneumonia
d. Ground glass opacity
e. Both a and b

A

E

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53
Q

Where is ACE2 most abundant?
a. Large intestine
b. Lungs
c. Endothelial and smooth cells of the blood vessels
d. Small intestine
e. Both b and d

A

E

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54
Q

Communication within neurons is _____, communication between neurons is ______.
a. excitatory, inhibitory
b. inhibitory, excitatory
c. chemical, electrical
d. electrical, chemical

A

C

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55
Q

Where would you see Nodes of Ranvier?
a. On the axon
b. On the cell body
c. On the dendrites
d. A and C

A

A

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56
Q

Explain how the different activation states of sodium channels contribute to the absolute refractory period.

A

a. When sodium channels are inactivated, they must fully close before opening
again. Thus, the inactivation state is one in which it is completely impossible to
respond to another stimulus, because the sodium channels just cannot open.
They only go back to the closed state (and have the ability to reopen) when the
cell is around resting potential again. There is no way for another AP to be
generated when the sodium channels are inactivated, thus it is an absolute
refractory period.

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57
Q

How does sodium contribute to the relative refractory period?

A

a. Some (but not all) of the sodium channels have returned to their closed/resting
state = they are able to open again!

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58
Q

Damage to Wernicke’s area of the brain might cause a person to…
a. Not be able to recognize a word they see
b. Not be able to understand the word that you have seen and recognized
c. Not be able to speak the word that they see, recognize, and understand
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c

A

B

59
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the CNS? (select all that apply)
a. Motor neurons
b. Efferent neurons
c. Afferent neurons
d. Spinal cord
e. Brain

A

A,B,C

60
Q

Phineas Gage was a railroad worker who suffered from a rod being shot through his
head. He survived, but his personality changed. Which part of his brain did the rod
damage?
a. Occipital lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Temporal lobe
d. Cerebellum
e. Parietal lobe

A

B

61
Q

Which of the following is matched incorrectly?
a. Hippocampus: learning and memory
b. Thalamus: relay station
c. Amygdala: regulate emotions
d. Hypothalamus: maintains homeostasis
e. Midbrain: regulate heart rhythms and breathing

A

E

62
Q

Which part of the CNS contains the reticular formation? What might happen if the reticular formation was severely damaged?
a. Brainstem; coma
b. Brainstem; blindness
c. Spine; coma
d. Spine; blindness

A

A

63
Q

Which area of the brain-stem controls heart rate and breathing?
a. reticular formation
b. Medulla
c. Pons
d. Thalamus

A

B

64
Q

When the ciliary muscle is contracted….
a. The eye can focus on distant objects
b. The eye can focus on close objects
c. The lens is rounded
d. The lens is flat
e. Both b and c
f. Both b and d
g. Both a and d

A

E

65
Q

A patient presents to the ER with a fishing hook in her eye. Which structure of her eye
did this hook penetrate first?
a. Pupil
b. Iris
c. Aqueous humor
d. Vitreous humor
e. Cornea

A

E

66
Q

Olfactory sensory cells are _____________ neurons.
a. Unipolar
b. Bipolar
c. Multipolar
d. None of the above

A

B

67
Q

Which of the following is true regarding amacrine and horizontal cells?
a. Amacrine cells are active during the daytime and horizontal cells help eyes adjust
to seeing well in dark and light conditions
b. Amacrine cells come before horizontal cells in the order of retinal visual
processing
c. Amacrine cells receive input from bipolar cells and horizontal cells receive input
from photoreceptors
d. A and b
e. A and c
f. All of the above

A

E

68
Q

Linear acceleration and the position of the head with respect to gravity are determined
by…
a. Movement of otoliths in the utricle
b. Movement of otoliths in saccule
c. Ampulla of semicircular canal (detects rotational movement)
d. Both a and b
e. Both a and c

A

D

69
Q

Which of the following is the correct order in which light passes through the eye?
a. Cornea → aqueous humor → pupil → lens → vitreous humor → retina → optic
nerve → occipital lobe of brain
b. Cornea → pupil → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous humor → retina → optic
nerve → occipital lobe of brain
c. Pupil → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous humor → retina → optic
nerve → occipital lobe of brain
d. Cornea → vitreous humor → pupil → lens → aqueous humor → retina → optic
nerve → occipital lobe of brain
e. Cornea → vitreous humor → pupil → lens → vitreous humor → retina → optic

A

A

70
Q

True or False: Glutamate is released when the rod cell is in the light.

A

False. Glutamate is released when the rod cell is in the dark.

71
Q

True or False: The olfactory system does not synapse through the thalamus.

A

True

72
Q

Why might a person with a cold experience trouble hearing?
a. Disruption in auditory nerve
b. Eustachian tube dysfunction
c. Abnormal endolymph in semicircular canal
d. Basilar membrane dysfunction
e. Blockage of organ of corti

A

B

73
Q

Why might a person with a cold experience trouble hearing?
a. Disruption in auditory nerve
b. Eustachian tube dysfunction
c. Abnormal endolymph in semicircular canal
d. Basilar membrane dysfunction
e. Blockage of organ of corti

A

B

74
Q

When a muscle contracts, which of the following decrease(s) in length?
a. H
b. A
c. H and A
d. H and I

A

D

75
Q

Which two types of muscles are T tubules found in?

A

a. Cardiac and skeletal

76
Q

What does the motor (efferent) nerve synapse onto?
a. Sarcolemma
b. T-Tubule
c. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
d. Myofibril

A

A

77
Q

Nitric oxide
a. is a vasoconstrictor that reduces blood flow
b. can relax smooth muscle
c. is derived from acetylcholine
d. decreases blood flow to active tissues
e. none of the above

A

B

78
Q

Which of the following sentences about muscle contraction is true?
a. Calcium binds tropomyosin, which causes troponin to move out of the way,
exposing the actin/myosin binding sites. (Ca binds troponin, moving tropomyosin)
b. When the action potential reaches the muscle, the T tubules release calcium ions
onto the myofibrils. (the SR releases calcium)
c. The dissociation of ADP + Pi from the myosin head allows the myosin head to
bind to the actin. (ADP + Pi are still bound to myosin head when it binds actin)
d. When the myosin head is in the neutral position, there is no ATP bound. (ATP
binding to the myosin head releases it from the actin, and the ATP stays bound)
e. None of the above are true.

A

E

79
Q

Curare is a poison that blocks acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscles.
a. Muscle relaxation
b. Twitching
c. Eventual paralysis
d. Both a and c
e. None of the above

A

D

80
Q

What is so special about cardiac muscle? What unique feature does it have that helps it
perform its job?

A

a. Intercalated discs create junctions - helps propagate the electric signal quickly
(passage of ions) and uniformly and in synchrony throughout all the cells so the
heart has a strong contraction

81
Q

Why is it necessary to put valves between the atria and ventricles, if the ventricles are
high pressure?

A

a. They are low pressure at some points in their rhythm in order to fill - need to be able to maintain that low pressure so atria blood can flow into them, not artery backflow filling them up

82
Q

Which one of the following is not a main function of albumin?
a. Osmotic balance
b. BP regulation
c. pH regulation
d. Transport of substances

A

B

83
Q

Which of the following cellular components do RBCs not contain?
I. Nucleus
II. Organelles
III. Mitochondria
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. I and III

A

C

84
Q

What vasculature carries deoxygenated blood?

A

a. Somatic system veins (sup and inf vena cava are good examples)
b. pulmonary arteries (off of right ventricle)

85
Q

Which has the largest CO?
a. LV
b. RV
c. They’re the same size
d. It varies

A

C (otherwise, there would be backflow in either pulmonary or
systemic circulatory system)

86
Q

How would an increase in stroke volume (SV) change blood pressure?
a. It would decrease BP
b. It would increase BP (CO = SV x HR, so an increase in SV causes an increase in CO. BP and CO are directly proportional)
c. It would not affect BP

A

B

87
Q

Which of the following is the correct order for the electrical activity of the heart?
a. AV node, atria, Purkinje fibers, Bundle of His
b. SA node, Purkinje fibers, Bundle of His
c. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, atria
d. SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
e. Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers, SA node, AV node

A

D

88
Q

Which one of the following is true during systole?
a. The bicuspid valve is open
b. Blood does not flow through the aortic valve
c. Both semilunar valves are closed
d. Pressure in the atria is low, and thus the atria fill with blood from the vena cava
and pulmonary veins

A

D

89
Q

The cardiac cycle is divided into systole and diastole, during which the ventricles contract and relax, respectively. During systole, blood is ejected from the ventricles and
is pumped into either the aorta or pulmonary artery. The pressure in the ventricles rapidly increases; however, the volume of blood in the ventricles initially remains unchanged.
This is referred to as isovolumetric contraction. Which of the following is the most likely reason for isovolumetric contraction?
a. Decreased ventricular contractility due to overstretching of cardiac sarcomeres.
b. The pressure in the aorta is initially greater than that of the left ventricle.
c. The pressure within the pulmonary vein is initially lower than that of the right ventricle.
d. The action potential that propagates through the bundle of His and Purkinje fibers has not yet depolarized all of the ventricles.

A

B (Explanation: at the start of systole, semilunar valves are closed, no blood is ejected. The semilunar valves will stay closed until the pressure build up by the ventricles exceeds the arterial pressure. The ventricles contraction creates a positive pressure in the ventricle, closing the bi and tricuspid valves FIRST, then continues contracting until it is strong enough to overcome the pressure in the
arteries (aorta, pulmonary vein.)

90
Q

Cardiac output is influenced by which of the following?
I. Nervous input
II. Hormones
III. Blood pressure
a. I only
b. II only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and III

A

d. I, II, and III (Explanation: I is true: parasympathetic nerve (vagus nerve)
innervates SA node to keep HR slow at rest. II is true: circulating hormones such
as adrenaline stimulate the node. III is true: Blood pressure increase the amount
of blood that returns to the heart, filling it up more, they are directly proportional)

91
Q

What does asystole look like on an EKG?
a. Normal
b. Smaller than normal QRS complex
c. Higher than normal QRS complex
d. Larger gaps between p waves
e. Flat line

A

E because there is no electrical activity detected in the heart

92
Q

The cardiac muscle cell action potential is prolonged by the opening of:
a. L-type calcium channels
b. Potassium channels
c. Sodium channels
d. T-type calcium channels

A

A

93
Q

In which is the absolute refractory period longest?
a. Myelinated neuron APs
b. unmyelinated neuron APS
c. Cardiac muscle APs
d. Skeletal muscle APs

A

c. Cardiac muscle APs (absolute refractory occurs during the AP itself - this is the only AP that is prolonged (plateau phase), all the other APs take the same time)

94
Q

Epinephrine (adrenaline) in the bloodstream stimulates B adrenergic receptors on the:
a. SA node
b. AV node
c. Cardiac muscle
d. A and C

A

D

95
Q

What part of the EKG represents when the electric impulse is in the AV node?
a. P wave
b. PR segment
c. Q
d. ST segment

A

B

96
Q

Which ion permeability is the first to change in the SA node when generating a beat:
a. Calcium (with L channels)
b. Potassium
c. Sodium
d. Calcium (with T channels)

A

B

97
Q

.Of the two calcium channels, the T/L one brings in the first influx of calcium.

A

T

98
Q

Which 2 ions can flow through a funny channel?
a. Ca / Na
b. K / Ca
c. Na / Cl
d. K / Na

A

D

99
Q

The semilunar valves prevent blood from flowing backwards
a. Into the atria
b. Into the ventricles
c. Into the brain
d. Into the liver
e. Into the lungs

A

B

100
Q

Which of these are not a type of blood cell?
a. Myocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Erythrocytes
d. Thrombocytes
e. All of these are blood cells

A

A

101
Q

The pale yellow liquid in the blood is called…
a. Platelets
b. Plasma
c. Lumen
d. White blood cells
e. A and b

A

B

102
Q

Which of the following conditions can be treated with a pacemaker device?
a. Afib
b. Ventricular tachycardia
c. Sinus node dysfunction
d. Myocardial infarction
e. Premature ventricular contractions

A

C

103
Q

Using the equation for resistance, determine the effect on fluid flow if the radius r is
decreased by a factor of 2?
a. Flow will increase by a factor of 2
b. Flow will increase by a factor of 8
c. Flow will decrease by a factor of 2
d. Flow will decrease by a factor of 16 (small change in the diameter of a blood

A

D

104
Q

Is PO2 at the arterial end of pulmonary capillaries greater than, less than, or equal to the PO2 in the venous end?

A

a. Less than. Deox blood enters from pulmonary arteries at 40 mmHg. As it passes through capillaries (in the lungs), it becomes oxygenated and comes out at venous end at 100 mmHg to go back to the heart.

105
Q

There is not sufficient surfactant within a fetus’ lungs until about the eighth month of gestation, so some premature infants lack the protective effects of surfactant when
they’re born. Which of the following statements best describes resulting effects upon respiration in premature babies?
a. Surface tension would be abnormally low
b. The alveoli would collapse
c. Oxygen would be unable to diffuse into the blood stream
d. Respiration is unnecessary, since the infant is still dependent on the mother.

A

B(Explanation: surface tension is high in the absence of surfactant. It would take a lot of exertion to reopen the collapsed alveoli to get any air into them. There would be some diffusion of oxygen through the water,
but C is wrong mostly because it is irrelevant)

106
Q

Which area of the CNS sends out the efferent signals that help regulate respiration?
a. Medulla oblongata
b. Pons
c. Midbrain
d. All of the above

A

A (either VRG and DRG stats the signal, and some pons helps but it originates in the MO)

107
Q

The ________ fires only during inspiration, whereas the ___________ is active in inspiration and expiration.
a. VRG; DRG
b. Medulla Oblongata; Pons
c. DRG; VRG
d. Pons; Medulla Oblongata

A

C

108
Q

The VRG innervates the
a. Bronchial smooth muscles
b. Diaphragm
c. Intercostal muscles

A

C

109
Q

Which of the following would NOT cause the peripheral chemoreceptors to fire:
a. Decreased O2
b. Increased CO
c. Increased H+
d. Increase CO2

A

B

110
Q

Which of the following has blood with gaseous partial pressures of 40 O2 and 46 CO2:
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. A capillary in your quad (arterial side)
d. A capillary in your quad (venule side)
e. A and C
f. A and D

A

F

111
Q

What do you call the part of your lungs where there is no air movement?
a. Dead space
b. Residual space
c. Respiratory zone
d. No-flow space

A

A

112
Q

A drop from 100 to 80 mmHg of O2 would result in a ________ decrease of Hb
saturation. A drop from 60 to 40 mmHg of O2 would result in a ________ decrease of Hb
saturation.
a. Large; small
b. Small; large
c. moderate; moderate

A

B

113
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of exercising muscle that causes
hemoglobin to release its O2?
a. Increased temperature
b. Decreased CO2
c. Increased [H+]
d. Increased CO2

A

B

114
Q

In which of the following vessels would hemoglobin be the LEAST saturated with oxygen?
a.aorta
b.Pulmonary veins
c. Coronary arteries
d. Pulmonary arteries

A

D (Explanation: least saturated where oxygen is lowest - this is between the RV and the lungs)

115
Q

Carotid bodies and aortic bodies detect
a. Blood pH
b. Oxygen blood levels
c. Stretching of lungs
d. Residual volume

A

A

116
Q

Where would be the most ideal place for the hemoglobin and oxygen to have low
affinity?
a. In the lungs
b. In tissues of a resting person
c. In tissues of a person exercising
d. In all the arteries

A

C

117
Q

Which way does the reaction H+ + HCO3 → H2CO3 → H2O + CO2 proceed in the
lungs?
a. to the left
b. to the right
c. to the right and then back to the left
d. this reaction doesn’t proceed in the lungs
e. none of these

A

B (Explanation: need to convert the packed up CO2 back into a gas so it
can leave)

118
Q

Ventilation is:
a. air forced into lungs by muscles
b. the flow of respiratory medium (air) over the external side of respiratory surface
c. amount of air moved into and out of the lungs during inspiration and expiration
d. The flow of blood through the vasculature in order to pick up gasses in the alveoli

A

B

119
Q

Tidal volume is larger/smaller in men than in women.

A

-larger

120
Q

Which of the following is “air pulled into lungs by pressure difference created by lung expansion”
a. Positive pressure breathing
b. Perfusion
c. Negative pressure breathing
d. Respiration

A

C

121
Q

How does gas exchange between the air and capillaries?
a. Facilitated diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Active transport
d. Simple diffusion

A

D

122
Q

Ptp =
a. Pip - Palv
b. Pip * Palv
c. Palv - PiP

A

C

123
Q

Can Ptp be positive ? Can it be negative ?

A

-yes always positive to keep lungs inflated
-no

124
Q

Can Palv be positive? Can it be negative ?

A

-yes during expiration
-yes during inspiration

125
Q

Can Pip be positive? Can it be negative ?

A

-no
-yes always negative to keep the lungs held up

126
Q

Blood flows into bowman’s capsule from the …….and leaves through the…….

A

-afferent arterioles
-efferent arterioles

127
Q

How does the kidney accomplish water reabsorption?

A

a. By creating a very concentrated interstitial fluid around the nephron, specifically in the medulla, water is pulled out through osmotic pressure and absorbed into the bloodstream.

128
Q

Explain how the kidney creates countercurrent multiplier and why it is important:

A

a. How it is created:
i. Loop of Henle: flow between descending and ascending are opposite directions
ii. Vasa recta - flow of LoH is in the opposite direction from flow through the capillaries. Blood flow is flowing up in vasa recta and filtrate is moving
down through descending loop -
b. Why it is important/what it accomplishes:
i. Enables the medulla to maintain a concentration gradient by reabsorbing
water as soon as it leaves the descending loop of Henle.
ii. Creates a multiplier effect to have maximum possible difference of
concentration between interstitial fluid and filtrate.

129
Q

Which of the following is true about osmosis?
a. Water moves from high to low osmotic pressure
b. Water moves from low to high osmotic pressure
c. Water moves from high to low osmolarity
d. Water moves from low to high osmolarity
e. Water cannot move across semipermeable membranes

A

D

130
Q

The main function of the loop of Henle is…
a. Passage of urine (urethra/ureter/bladder)
b. Filtration of blood (glomerulous)
c. Formation of urine (collecting duct)
d. Conservation of urine (Loop of Henle concentrates urine within each nephron via

A

D

131
Q

The function of the countercurrent multiplier is to
a. Increase the concentration of NaCl in the interstitial fluid
b. Decrease the concentration of NaCl in the interstitial fluid
c. Change blood potassium levels
d. Conserve potassium

A

A

132
Q

Glucose is mainly reabsorbed in…
a. Loop of
b. DCT (distal convoluted tubule)
c. PCT (proximal convoluted tubule)
d. Nephron
e. urethra

A

C

133
Q

Part of the nephron impermeable to salt is…
a. DCT
b. Collecting ducts
c. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
d. Descending limb of loop of Henle
e. Both a and d are correct

A

D

134
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Glomeruli are circular in shape, and constrain a capillary system which separates
two arterioles
b. Vasa recta can be found accompanying the loop of Henle in the adrenal cortex
c. The distal tubules empty into the renal pelvis
d. The interstitial fluid osmolarity is always higher than the filtrate osmolarity in the
loop of Henle in order to reabsorb the water from the filtrate.

A

A

135
Q

When substances move from the tubule into the surrounding vasa recta, this is known as
a. Reabsorption
b. Tubular secretion
c. Filtration
d. Excretion

A

A

136
Q

The fluid in the top of the descending loop of Henle is _________ relative to the vasa
recta
a. Isotonic
b. Weakly hypotonic
c. Strongly hypotonic
d. Hypertonic

A

D

137
Q

The loop of Henle uses a countercurrent multiplier system to create an area of high ion
concentration in the renal medulla. Which of the following statements about the loop of
Henle is true?
a. The descending limb is permeable to ions and water
b. The descending limb is permeable to water but not to ions
c. The ascending limb is permeable to ions and water
d. The ascending limb is permeable to water but not to ions

A

B

138
Q

Which hormone decreases in response to blood pressure that is too low
a. ANP
b. Aldosterone
c. ADH
d. Renin

A

A

139
Q

When the RAAS is activated due to a change in body hemodynamics, the
__________________ stimulates the ___________________ cells in the kidneys to
release _______________.
a. parasympathetic nervous system; mesangial; aldosterone
b. sympathetic nervous system; podocytes; renin
c. parasympathetic nervous system; juxtaglomerular; aldosterone
d. sympathetic nervous system; juxtaglomerular; renin

A

D

140
Q

Urine formed by a kidney collects in the _____ before being drained from the
kidney by the _____ and transported to the ________.
a. urethra … urinary bladder … ureter
b. renal pelvis … medulla … cortex
c. renal pelvis … ureter …urinary bladder
d. renal pelvis … urethra … urinary bladder
e. ureter … renal pelvis … urinary bladder

A

C

141
Q

Select below the CORRECT sequence in how the RAAS works:
a. Angiotensin I → Angiotensin II → ACE → Renin → Angiotensinogen
b. Renin → Angiotensinogen → Angiotensin I → ACE → Angiotensin II
c. Renin → Angiotensin I → Angiotensinogen → ACE → Angiotensin II
d. Angiotensinogen → Renin → ACE → Angiotensin I → Angiotensin II

A

B

142
Q

As filtrate moves down the loop of Henle, the surrounding interstitial fluid
becomes _____ concentrated than the filtrate, so _____ leaves the filtrate.
a. More…urea
b. Less…urea
c. More…water
d. Less…water
e. Less…water and urea

A

C

143
Q

The movement of substances out of the glomerulus and into Bowman’s capsule
is referred to as _____.
a. Secretion
b. Reabsorption
c. Active transport
d. Ion pumping
e. Filtration

A

E

BIO 216 Final/Test 4 (5 decks)

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