Final Test Questions

Question 1

As filtrate moves through the ______in mammals, it generally undergoes a dramatic decrease in osmolarity.
A. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Bowman’s capsule
C. Descending segment of the loop of Henle
D. Proximal convoluted tubule
E. Ascending segment of the loop of Henle

Answer 1

E

Question 2

If a person is taking a drug that completely inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), what will happen to aldosterone secretion when the person goes on a low sodium diet?
A. There would likely be no increase in aldosterone production
B. There would be an increase in production of angiotensinogen from the kidney
C. Aldosterone production would increase, resulting in high blood pressure
D. The adrenal medulla would decrease its production of aldosterone
E. There would be an increase in production of ADH from the anterior pituitary gland

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Creatinine is a waste product from the normal breakdown of muscle tissue. As creatinine is produced, it is filtered through the kidneys and excreted in urine. Doctors measure the blood creatinine level as a test of kidney function. The kidneys filter creatinine from the blood into the urine, and reabsorb almost none of it. The amount of blood the kidneys can make creatinine-free, each minute, is called the creatinine clearance. Creatinine clearance in a healthy young person is about 125 milliliters per minute – meaning each minute, that person’s kidneys clear 125 mL of blood free of creatinine.
The creatinine clearance is a good estimation of the _____
A. counter-current multiplier system
B. RAAS system
C. kidney’s ability to regulate pH
D. kidney’s ability to adjust water loss
E. glomerular filtration rate

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Juxtaglomerular cell tumor (JCT) is an extremely rare kidney tumor of the juxtaglomerular cells that typically secretes renin. A person with JCT is likely to develop__
A. severe hypotension
B. Grave’s Disease
C. severe hypertension
D. Type 1 diabetes
E. Cushing’s Disease

Answer 4

C

Question 5

Furosemide (also called Lasix) is a loop diuretic that may be used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) and edema (fluid accumulation/swelling). How might furosemide work in the body?
A. It could act on the Na+/K+/2Cl− symporter (NKCC2) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle to inhibit sodium, chloride and potassium reabsorption.
B. It could act on the Na+/K+/2Cl− symporter (NKCC2) in the descending limb of the loop of Henle to inhibit sodium, chloride and potassium reabsorption.
C. It could act on the Na+/K+/2Cl− symporter (NKCC2) in the descending limb of the loop of Henle to increase sodium, chloride and potassium reabsorption.
D. It could act to decrease the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which would increase the production of urine
E. It could inhibit ANP, which would lower one’s blood pressure

Answer 5

A

Question 6

A human who has no access to fresh water and decides to drink seawater instead __
A. will thrive under such conditions, as long as he has lived at the ocean most of his life.
B. will excrete more water molecules than taken in, because of the high load of ion ingestion.
C. will develop structural changes in the kidneys to accommodate the salt overload.
D. will risk becoming overhydrated within 12 hours.
E. none of the above

Answer 6

B

Question 7

Acetazolamide is a compound that blocks the activity of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase inside kidney tubular epithelial cells. Acetazolamide_____
A. prevents the formation of carbonic acid from carbon dioxide and water
B. must be an anti-diuretic
C. increases the amount of H+ and HCO3- in the kidney tubular epithelial cell
D. increases Na+ reabsorption
E. all of the above

Answer 7

A

Question 8

Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a chronic, genetic disease causing uncontrolled growth of cysts in the kidney, often leading to kidney failure. Signs of PKD include hypertension (high blood pressure), hematuria (blood in the urine) or a feeling of heaviness or pain in the back or abdomen. In PKD, cysts can press on blood vessels in the kidney, resulting in decreased blood flow to some parts of the kidney. How might this result in hypertension?
A. Decreased blood flow to some parts of the kidney activates ANP, resulting in high blood pressure
B. Decreased blood flow to some parts of the kidney activate sensors in the nephron that react as though the blood pressure in the kidney was low, triggering RAAS
C. Low blood pressure is sensed in the macula densa cells of the kidney, which respond by stimulating sodium secretion, followed by sodium excretion.
D. Both A and B
E. A, B and C

Answer 8

B

Question 9

Normally, you should be able to sleep six to eight hours during the night without having to get up to go to the bathroom. People who have nocturia wake up more than once a night to urinate. This can cause disruptions in a normal sleep cycle. A physician may prescribe desmopressin (DDAVP). Why? Which of the following are likely true statements? (Hint: which of the following will help to keep a person from having to go to the bathroom?)
A. Because desmopressin can increase the number of aquaporin (water) channels in the nephron resulting in an increase in water reabsorption
B. Because desmopressin is a synthetic form of vasopressin (which is also known as ADH)
C. Because desmopressin causes natriuresis, which is defined as the excretion of an unusually large quantity of urine
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

Answer 9

D

Question 10

An increase in renin may be caused by ___ ; while an increase in ADH is caused by____
A. a decrease in sodium intake; an increase in solute concentration in the ECF
B. a decrease in renal sympathetic nerve activity; an increase in blood pressure
C. an increase in blood pressure in the renal artery; a decrease in solute concentration in the ECF
D. an aldosterone-secreting adrenal tumor; stimulation of the hippocampus
E. hypertension; hypertension

Answer 10

A

Question 11

Hypernatremia is indicated by a high level of sodium in the blood. It can occur in people who don’t drink enough water. This may be due to impaired thirst or mental judgment. Examples include someone with dementia or an infant who has limited access to fluids. Treatment may include drinking more water or IV fluids. Which of the following is (are) principally involved in sodium regulation in the body?
A. ACTH
B. aldosterone
C. ANP
D. A and B
E. B and C

Answer 11

E

Question 12

Atrial natriuretic factor ___
A. is released in response to elevated atrial pressure.
B. stimulates the release of ADH.
C. decreases urine production.
D. stimulates release of aldosterone.
E. increases blood volume.

Answer 12

A

Question 13

If your blood is too acidic, then
A. less HCO3- will be reabsorbed into the blood
B. your kidneys may excrete excess H+ and put bicarbonate back into the blood
C. more HCO3- will be excreted in the urine
D. your kidneys will transport H+ from the proximal tubule cells into the blood using Na+/H+ pumps
E. none of the above

Answer 13

B

Question 14

Angiotensin II (active angiotensin) is a contributing factor to all of the following except
A. arteriolar constriction
B. stimulating thirst
C. stimulating ADH production
D. promoting natriuresis
E. raising blood pressure

Answer 14

D

Question 15

Triglycerides with unsaturated fatty acids
A. usually come from animals
B. tend to be liquid at room temperature
C. have all carbons of the fatty acid backbone bonded to the maximum number of hydrogens
D. comprise cellulose
E. are the primary type of fat that contributes to atherosclerosis

Answer 15

B

Question 16

Fecal transplantation is the transfer of stool from a healthy donor into the gastrointestinal tract of a recipient. Fecal transplantation is usually performed by colonoscopy. During colonoscopy, the colonoscope is advanced through the entire colon. As the colonoscope is withdrawn, the donor stool is delivered through the colonoscopy into the colon. Patients will need to follow a liquid diet followed by an enema or laxative preparation the night before their scheduled procedure. Why on earth would someone agree to do this?
A. They hope it will effectively treat their recurrent C. difficile colitis.
B. It is a common and effective treatment for viral infections
C. Because- when antibiotics kill off too many “good” bacteria in the digestive tract, fecal transplants can help replenish bacterial balance.
D. A and B
E. A and C

Answer 16

E

Question 17

17. The absorption of fats differs from that of carbohydrates in that the __
    A. processing of fats does not require any digestive enzymes, whereas the processing of carbohydrates does.
    B. fat absorption occurs in the stomach, whereas carbohydrates are absorbed from the small intestine.
    C. carbohydrates need to be emulsified before they can be digested, whereas fats do not.
    D. most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood.
    E. fats, but not carbohydrates, are digested by symbiotic bacteria before absorption.

Answer 17

D. most absorbed fat first enters the lymphatic system, whereas carbohydrates directly enter the blood.

Question 18

Dr. Kuemerle’s college friend, who double majored in Molecular Genetics and Business, became the president of a pharmaceutical marking company. He gave Dr. Kuemerle an awesome part time job marketing a drug called Infliximab (trade name: Remicade), which is used to treat Crohn’s Disease (as well as some other diseases). Symptoms of Crohn’s Disease often include abdominal pain, diarrhea (which may be bloody if inflammation is severe), fever, and weight loss. Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Which layer of the gastrointestinal tract is comprised of elastic connective tissue, neuronal networks, blood and lymph vessels?
A. submucosa
B. enteric ependymal layer
C. mucosa
D. serosa
E. muscularis

Answer 18

A

Question 19

Gastroesophageal reflux (commonly called heartburn) is the reflux of acidic chyme from the stomach into the esophagus. It is treated by drugs that inhibit gastric acid secretion, such as the proton pump inhibitors, Prilosec and Prevacid. On which type of cells would these drugs most likely inhibit the proton pumps?
A. papillar cells
B. chief cells
C. parietal cells
D. serosal cells
E. gastric cells

Answer 19

C

Question 20

Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the inside lining of your stomach (gastric ulcers) and the upper portion of your small intestine (duodenal ulcers). Stress and spicy foods do not cause peptic ulcers (but can make symptoms worse). A common cause of peptic ulcers is an infection by the bacterium, Helicobacter pylori. Which layer of the digestive tract is affected by peptic ulcers?
A. submucosal
B. oblique
C. serosal
D. mucosal
E. muscularis

Answer 20

D

Question 21

Autoimmune Metaplastic Atrophic Gastritis (AMAG) is an inherited form of atrophic gastritis characterized by an immune response directed toward parietal cells that leads to the destruction of parietal cells. What is a consequence of this form of gastritis?
A. decreased amylase production from the pancreatic beta cells
B. hypochlorhydria (absent or low production of HCl in gastric secretions of the stomach)
C. increase in glucagon production from the liver
D. decreased gastrin production from the adrenal gland
E. hyperchlorhydria (high gastric acid levels)

Answer 21

B

Question 22

Celiac Disease is due to the effects of gluten, a protein found in certain grains (such as wheat). When people with celiac disease eat foods containing gluten, their immune system forms antibodies to gluten which then attack the intestinal lining. This damages the intestinal villi and causes them to become blunted, thereby decreasing the intestinal surface. What primary consequence would this have?
A. malabsorption, in which the intestine’s ability to absorb important nutrients is compromised.
B. cholera infection, which would cause severe diarrhea
C. lacteal enlargement, resulting in the increased absorption of nutrients
D. peptic ulcers which are resistant to antibiotics
E. All of the above

Answer 22

A

Question 23

Digestive enzymes found at the brush border of epithelial cells of the small intestine include all of the following, except
A. disaccharidases
B. aminopeptidase
C. phosphatases
D. pancreatic amylase
E. nucleotidases

Answer 23

D

Question 24

When the digestion and absorption of organic molecules results in more energy-rich molecules (such as glucose) than are immediately required by an animal, the excess is
A. eliminated in the feces.
B. stored as starch in the liver.
C. stored as glycogen in the liver
D. oxidized and converted to ATP.
E. stored as glucagon in the muscle cells

Answer 24

C

Question 25

During the digestive process, pepsin
A. is released from parietal cells
B. digests carbohydrates into sugars
C. is released from cells located in the villi
D. stimulates the release of HCl from glandular cells
E. None of the above

Answer 25

E

Question 26

Which of the following is a false statement?
A. During fat digestion, bile salts coat fatty acids to form chylomicrons prior to the diffusion of monoglycerides and free fatty acids into the mucosal cell.
B. Diets rich in saturated fats likely contribute to atherosclerosis
C. Rice, corn, lentils and soybeans are good sources of essential amino acids
D. Polysaccharides are broken down in the mouth by amylase
E. Adipose cells secrete leptin

Answer 26

A

Question 27

Which of the following is not correctly paired?
A. PYY- suppresses appetite
B. GIP-triggers insulin release
C. Leptin- triggers hunger
D. Secretin- stimulates HCO3- secretion into the duodenum
E. Gastrin-stimulates the stomach to secrete HCl and pepsinogen

Answer 27

C

Question 28

When chyme enters the duodenum, it stimulates release of which hormone?
A.
HSH: hypothalamic satiety hormone
B.
gastrin
C.
cholecystokinin
D.
glucagon
E.
ghrelin

Answer 28

C

Question 29

Which of the following is a false statement with regard to steroids?
A. Steroids can act as hormones
B. Steroids are only found in mammals
C. Cholesterol is an example of a steroid
D. Steroids can be classified as hydrophobic hormones
E. Most medical “steroid” drugs are corticosteroids

Answer 29

B

Question 30

The regulation of milk release, water balance and uterine contractions during childbirth are mediated by the ____ gland (s).
A.
parathyroid
B.
both the anterior and posterior pituitary
C.
anterior pituitary
D.
posterior thyroid
E.posterior pituitary

Answer 30

E

Question 31

Which of the following is not true regarding hydrophilic hormones
A. The binding of these hormones to their receptor usually results in second messenger activation
B. The typical action of these hormones it to directly enter cells and affect gene activity
C. Their receptors are typically bound to the plasma membrane
D. Epinephrine is an example of a hydrophilic hormone
E. Some may be classified as amines and peptides

Answer 31

B

Question 32

Calcium levels are primarily under the control of ___
A. Calcitonin and thyroxine.
B. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.
C. Prolactin and oxytocin.
D. Parathyroid hormone and thyroxine.
E. Progesterone and ADH.

Answer 32

B

Question 33

Epinephrine is an example of_____ and is released from the_____
A. a catecholamine, adrenal cortex
B. a steroid, hypothalamus
C. a steroid, anterior pituitary
D. a catecholamine, adrenal medulla
E. a glucocorticoid, adrenal cortex

Answer 33

D

Question 34

Excessive amounts of cortisol can ___
A. inhibit the secretion of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) from the anterior pituitary
B. inhibit the secretion of CRH (corticotropin-releasing hormone) from the hypothalamus
C. be released from the adrenal cortex in response to stress
D. Both A and B
E. A, B and C

Answer 34

E

Question 35

Which of the following is a target tissue for parathyroid hormone?
A. Thyroid
B. Ovaries
C. Pancreas
D. Small intestine
E. Stomach

Answer 35

D

Question 36

Analysis of a blood sample from a fasting individual who had not eaten for 24 hours would be expected to reveal high levels of __
A. insulin.
B. glucagon.
C. secretin.
D. gastrin.
E. glucose.

Answer 36

B

Question 37

Which of the following is incorrectly matched:
A. Islets of Langerhans: spherical groups of cells found in the parathyroid gland
B. bone resorption: results in increased blood calcium levels
C. cortisol: a glucocorticoid
D. TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone): released from the anterior pituitary gland
E. epinephrine: can cause vasodilation that results in increased blood flow to skeletal muscles

Answer 37

A

Question 38

An example of antagonistic hormones controlling homeostasis is __
A. thyroxine and parathyroid hormone in calcium balance.
B. insulin and glucagon in glucose metabolism.
C. progestins and estrogens in sexual differentiation.
D. oxytocin and prolactin in milk production.
E. All of the above

Answer 38

B

Question 39

Blood calcium levels can be reduced by the action of____which is made by the____
A. PTH, parathyroid gland
B. PTH, thyroid gland
C. thyroxine, thyroid gland
D. calcitonin, thyroid gland
E. vitamin D, liver

Answer 39

D

Question 40

Phagocytic cells of innate immunity include___
A. neutrophils.
B. macrophages.
C. cytotoxic T cells
D. A and B only
E. A, B, and C

Answer 40

D

Question 41

Infliximab (trade name: Remicade) can be used it treat rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects joints and typically results in warm, swollen, and painful joints. By some estimates, in the United States, infliximab can cost as much as $19,000 per month! Infliximab is a synthetic monoclonal antibody that is believed to work by preventing TNF-α from binding to its receptor. Which of the following is not a feature of antibody structure?
A. an alpha and a beta chain
B. FAB: antigen binding fragment
C. two heavy chains
D. variable regions
E. disulfide bonds

Answer 41

A

Question 42

Infliximab has high specificity for TNF-α (Tumor Necrosis Factor α). Biological activities attributed to TNF-α include induction of interleukins: IL-1 and IL-6, and enhancement of leukocyte movement or migration from the blood vessels into the tissues (by increasing the permeability of endothelial layer of blood vessels). TNF___
A. binds to a Class 2 MHC molecule when antigen is presented on an antigen presenting cell
B. can be classified as a cytokine
C. binds to the CD4 co-receptor on cytotoxic T lymphocytes
D. can be classified at an epitope
E. none of the above

Answer 42

B

Question 43

The most abundant antibody in primary and secondary responses that is found in the blood and lymph is ___
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D.IgG
E. IgM

Answer 43

D

Question 44

Somewhat surprisingly, a main cause of chronic kidney failure in dogs is dental disease (such as periodontal disease). Bacteria associated with advanced periodontal disease enter the blood stream and invade multiple organs, causing irreversible damage to the heart, liver and kidneys. In dogs, the most common causes of periodontal disease are the Streptococcus and Actinomyces bacteria. Which of the following is (are) correct statement(s)?
A. Bacterial infections elicit the innate immune response, but not the adaptive immune response
B. Drugs such as oseltamivir (Tamiflu) and zanamivir (Relenza) would likely be highly effective for the treatment periodontal disease in dogs because they are antivirals.
C. A likely sign of kidney failure in dogs is a change in the volume of urine produced
D. Both A and B
E. Both B and C

Answer 44

C

Question 45

The HER2 gene is amplified in 20–30% of early-stage breast cancers. Herceptin (Trastuzumab) is used to treat breast cancer. It is a monoclonal antibody targeting HER2, inducing an immune-mediated response that causes internalization and downregulation of HER2. In general, which of the following are activities by antibodies during an immune response?
A. agglutination
B. opsonization
C. enhancement of phagocytic recognition
D. Both A and C
E. A, B and C

Answer 45

E

Question 46

Inflammation is part of the complex biological response of body tissues to harmful stimuli, such as pathogens, damaged cells, or irritants. It is a protective response involving immune cells, blood vessels, and molecular mediators. The function of inflammation is to eliminate the initial cause of cell injury, clear out necrotic cells and tissues damaged from the original insult and the inflammatory process, and initiate tissue repair. What is (are) classical sign(s) of inflammation?
A. heat
B. pain
C. redness
D. swelling
E. all of the above

Answer 46

E

Question 47

A primary component of the humoral immune response is___
A. the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells.
B. the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
C. perforation of infected host cells by perforin.
D. the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens.
E. the initiation of programmed cell death in infected host cells.

Answer 47

B

Question 48

The following is excerpted from: “Innate immune recognition of the microbiota promotes host microbial Symbiosis” by Hiutung Chu and Sarkis K. Mazmanian Nat Immunol. 2013 July ; 14(7): 668–675.
“Animals harbor a diverse and complex symbiotic microbiota which normally does not trigger inflammation. PAMPs, by definition, are universally conserved structures that are generally invariant and essential in all microorganisms. Thus PAMP expression is not limited to pathogens, but also common to the microbiota. As such, it has been proposed that these molecules be renamed microbe-associated molecular patterns (MAMPs).
Which of the following is (are) (a) likely example(s) of PAMPS (which may also be called: MAMPs)?
A. lipopolysaccharide: a protein found in the outer membrane of all Gram-negative bacteria
B. flagellin: a protein present in large amounts on nearly all flagellated bacteria.
C. peptidoglycan: a substance forming the cell walls of numerous bacteria, consisting of glycosaminoglycan chains interlinked with short peptides.
D. envelope glycoprotein GP120 (or gp120), a glycoprotein exposed on the surface of the HIV envelope.
E. A, B and C only

Answer 48

E

Question 49

Which is the proper order of events in cell-mediated immunity?
(1) cloning of cytotoxic T cells and memory T cells
(2) antigen presented to T lymphocyte
(3) activation of T lymphocytes
(4) cytotoxic T cells attack target cells
A. 2, 3, 4, 1
B. 2, 3, 1, 4
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 3, 2, 4, 1
E. 1, 4, 2, 3

Answer 49

B

Question 50

In 1928 Alexander Fleming, a Scottish scientist was the first to discover an antibiotic almost by accident. He observed a mold growing on a bacterial culture in his lab. More importantly, Fleming noticed a clear zone around the mold in which no bacteria appeared to be growing. The mold was identified as Penicillium notatum. Which of the following are true statements?
A. The mold apparently produced some protective chemical, which inhibited or killed bacteria.
B. Penicillins inhibit formation of the bacterial cell wall by blocking cross-linking of the cell wall structure, which serves as a protective casing for the bacterial cell.
C. Infection by bacteria can cause an inflammatory response
D. Only A and B
E. A, B and C

Answer 50

E

Question 51

Homeostasis may be defined as a dynamic condition in which internal responses compensate for changes in order to restore balance. Which of the following are examples of a correctly detailed homeostatic system that utilizes negative feedback?
A. Low glucose in blood stimulates hypothalamus to release CRH, which stimulates anterior pituitary to release ACTH, which stimulates adrenal cortex to release glucagon-resulting in blood glucose increased to normal level
B. The “multiplier” component of the counter-current multiplier in the kidney.
C. Body needs an increase in metabolism. Hypothalamus releases TRH, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland and causes the release of TSH. TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to produce T3 and T4, resulting in increased metabolism
D. Increased bone resorption causes an increase in blood calcium levels, which increases the activity of PTH thereby reducing the reabsorption of calcium from the kidney, which effectively lowers the blood calcium levels to restore homeostasis
E. All of the above

Answer 51

C

Question 52

If your blood pressure increases significantly, the ______ would send signals (action potentials) to the _____ by way of the _____, in order to produce a slower and less forceful heartbeat, thus restoring homeostasis.
A. osmoreceptors, hypolthalamus, somatic nervous system
B. Pancinian corpuscles, thalamus, reticular formation
C. baroreceptors, brainstem, autonomic nervous system
D. juxtaglomerular cells, heart, enteric nervous system
E. None of above

Answer 52

C

Question 53

Regarding thermoregulation, which of the following is (are) a true statement?
A. Countercurrent exchange ensures gradients that facilitate the maximal amount of heat retention
B. Animals can change their heat conductance by vasoconstriction and vasodilation
C. Animals with reflective body surfaces can minimize warming from solar radiation
D. A layer of fat is a good insulator.
E. All of the above

Answer 53

E

Question 54

Cells continually generate CO2 as a consequence of the oxidation of glucose and fatty acids required to meet their energy needs. If there were no other methods in the cell for transport of CO2 in or out of the cell, what effect would this process have on intracellular pH?
A. The pH would be lower
B. The pH would be higher
C. The pH would remain neutral
D. The pH would initially increase, then decrease to standard levels
E. None of the above

Answer 54

A

Question 55

Neurotransmitters are small molecules that are released into the synaptic cleft and cause a change in the postsynaptic membrane potential. This change can be either:
I. a direct depolarization
II. direct hyperpolarization
III. activation of a second messenger

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I only
E. I, II, and III

Answer 55

E

Question 56

Which of the following are usually associated with each other?
A. Glycine: neuromuscular junction in the PNS
B. Substance P: learning and memory
C. GABA: major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain
D. A and C only
E. None of the above

Answer 56

E

Question 57

The binding of a neurotransmitter to a ligand gated K+ channel of a neuron would likely cause a ____ in the postsynaptic membrane and would likely contribute to a (an) ____response
A. hyperpolarization, inhibitory
B. depolarization, stimulatory
C. IPSP, inhibitory
D. Both A and C
E. Both B and C

Answer 57

D

Question 58

Which brain lobe is involved with the perception and integration of stimuli from the senses?
A. primary somatosensory area
B. Broca’s area
C. Wernicke’s area
D. parietal
E. auditory cortex

Answer 58

D

Question 59

Which of the following are associated with late long term potentiation (LTP)
A. Alterations in protein synthesis
B. Alterations in the number and branching of dendrites
C. Memory
D. A and C only
E. A, B and C

Answer 59

E

Question 60

High frequency deafness can result from prolonged or frequent exposure to excessively loud noises which causes degeneration of the organ of corti at the ____ of the _____
A. wide end (near the oval window); basilar membrane
B. narrow end (near the oval window); basilar membrane
C. wide end (near the round window);cochlea
D. thin end (near the round window); spiral organ
E. less stiff end (near the round window); basilar membrane

Answer 60

B

Question 61

Motion sickness occurs because the brain simultaneously perceives differing sensory input from the semicircular canals, eyes and proprioceptors in the lower limbs. Medications such as dramamine are often prescribed. Out of the choices below, what does dramamine likely affect?
A. neural pathways from Broca’s region
B. the meninges
C. neural pathways from the vestibule
D. neural pathways from the arcuate fasciculus
E. neural pathways from the organ of corti

Answer 61

C

Question 62

The correct pathway for impulses leaving the retina is__
A. Photoreceptors, ganglion cells, bipolar cells, and optic nerve.
B. Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, and optic nerve.
C. Photoreceptors, bipolar cells, optic nerve, and ganglion cells.
D. Photoreceptors, ganglion cells, optic nerve, and bipolar cells.
E. Ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptors, and optic nerve.

Answer 62

B

Question 63

The axons of the olfactory receptor cells form synapses _____. Action potentials are then transmitted to the____
A. in the olfactory bulb; olfactory cortex or the olfactory areas of the brain
B. in the olfactory epithelium; thalamus
C. with the olfactory cilia; basal cells
D. in the olfactory vesicle; thalamus
E. in the olfactory epithelium; occipital lobe

Answer 63

A

Question 64

Which of the following sections of a sarcomere (in a muscle that is not contracted) contain
overlapping thick and thin filaments?
A. M line
B. Z line
C. A band
D. I band
E. C section

Answer 64

C

Question 65

If calcium ions are not present in a sarcomere, muscle contraction cannot occur because
A. ATP cannot bind to myosin.
B. myosin cannot unbind from tropomyosin.
C. myosin cannot bind to actin.
D. ADP cannot be converted into ATP.
E. none of the above

Answer 65

C

Question 66

Which of the following conditions will produce the maximum tension in a skeletal muscle fiber?
A. when the muscle is at its optimal length
B. when the fiber is stimulated by an action potential frequency that is high enough to produce maximal tetanic tension
C. when the thick and think filaments have overlap sufficient to provide the greatest number of cross bridges
D. B and C only
E. A, B and C

Answer 66

E

Question 67

On an EKG, the “P” wave represents_____, while the “T” wave represents_____
A. depolarization of atria, repolarization of ventricles
B. depolarization of pacemaker cells, depolarization of ventricles
C. repolarization of atria, repolarization of ventricles
D. blood flow through the atria, ventricular contraction
E. systole, diastole

Answer 67

A

Question 68

The “lub” of lub-dup sounds heard through a stethoscope placed on the chest wall is associated with the closure of the AV valves. This sound marks the onset of_______.
A. atrial contraction
B. diastole
C. systole
D. a large rise (from 80-120mmHg) in atrial pressure
E. parasympathetic stimulation

Answer 68

C

Question 69

Which sequence of blood flow can be observed in a mammal?
A. Left ventricle🡪aorta🡪lungs🡪systemic circulation
B. Right ventricle🡪pulmonary vein🡪pulmocutaneous circulation
C. Pulmonary vein🡪left atrium🡪 left ventricle🡪pulmonary circuit
D. Vena cava🡪right atrium🡪 right ventricle🡪pulmonary circuit
E. Right atrium🡪pulmonary artery🡪left atrium🡪 left ventricle

Answer 69

D

Question 70

Which of the following is a (are) true statement(s) with regard to net filtration and net absorption at a capillary bed
A. The colloid osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid varies greatly depending on whether it is measured on the arterial end or the venous end.
B. At the venous end, the colloid osmotic pressure of blood plasma is greater than the hydrostatic pressure in the capillary
C. The hydrostatic pressure in the capillary is greatest at the arterial end
D. A and C
E. B and C

Answer 70

E

Question 71

Which is the proper sequence of events during exhalation?
A. diaphragm moves down (contracts), rib cage expands, increase in lung volume, decrease in pressure
B. diaphragm relaxes (moves up), rib cage gets smaller, decrease in lung volume, increase in pressure
C. diaphragm flattens, rib cage expands, increase in lung volume, decrease in pressure
D. external intercostals muscles contract, ribs pulled upward, decrease in lung volume, decrease in pressure
E. None of the above

Answer 71

B

Question 72

Which of the following is (are) true with regard to breathing?
A. The phrenic nerve innervates the diaphragm
B. Inspiratory neurons are located in the DRG
C. The diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract when stimulated by afferent nerves
D. Both A and B
E. A, B and C

Answer 72

D

Question 73

In active body tissues, HbO2 🡪 Hb + O2 because the affinity of Hb for O2 can be decreased by:
A. A drop in pH
B. An increase in CO2 binding to Hb
C. An increase in temperature
D. A and C only
E. A, B and C

Answer 73

E