SUGER Flashcards

1
Q

What is mendelian genetics?

A

Fault in a single gene
Rare

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2
Q

What is complex trait genetics?

A

Changes in lots of genes
Common
E.g. diabetes, asthma

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3
Q

What is somatic genetics?

A

Any alteration at the cellular level in somatic tissues occurring after fertilization
E.g. cancer

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4
Q

What is ADPKD?

A

Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is an inherited condition that causes small fluid-filled sacs called cysts to develop in the kidneys

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5
Q

What is autoregulation in the kidney and what are the 2 mechanisms?

A

Maintains constant GFR and excretion of water and waste products

Tubuloglomerular feedback
Myogenic mechanism

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6
Q

How does tubuloglomerular autoregulation work?

A

Increase in BP
Increase in blood flow to glomerulus and pressure
Increases GFR (more filtration and delivery NaCl to macula densa)
Afferent arteriole contraction to reduce blood supply to glomerulus

Decrease BP = afferent arteriole vasodilation to increase blood supply to glomerulus

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7
Q

How does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system work?
(tubuloglomerular)

A

Renin stimulates Angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1 to angiontensin 2:
- Increase sympathetic activity, excrete more NaCl and K
- Secrete aldosterone and ADH
Water and salt retention
Negative feedback to juxtaglomerular apparatus

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8
Q

How does the myogenic reflex work when BP increases? (only in pre-glomerular resistance vessels)

A

Increase bp stretches wall
Opens stretch-activated cation channels
Membrane depolarisation
Opens voltage-dependent calcium and intracellular calcium increases
Smooth muscle contracts
Increases vascular resistance
Minimises change in GFR

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9
Q

What makes up the filtration barrier?

A

Fenestrated capillary endothelium
Glomerular basement membrane (charged)
Podocytes (visceral epithelium)
Filtration slits and slit diaphragms

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10
Q

What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A

Modified muscular layer of afferent arteriole
Juxtaglomerular cells and macula dense
Located in the hillum of every glomerulus

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11
Q

What is the arterial supply of the kidneys?

A

Abdominal Aorta
Renal artery
Interlobar artery
Arcuate artery
Interlobular artery
Afferent arteriole
Glomerular capillary

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12
Q

How does blood drain out of the kidneys after the glomerulus?

A

Efferent arteriole
Peritubular capillaries
Vasa recta
Interlobular veins
Arcuate veins
Interlobar veins
Renal vein
IVC

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13
Q

What makes up the nephron?

A

Blood vessels
Glomerulus
Bowman’s capsule
Proximal convoluted tubule
Loop of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule
Collecting duct

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14
Q

What is the function of the kidneys?

A

Removal of waste products
Removal of excess fluids
Balance salt, water and pH
Control of blood pressure
RBC production

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15
Q

Factors determining which molecules can get through the filtration barrier?

A

Pressure
Size of the molecule
Charge of the mulecule
Rate of blood flow
Protein binding

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16
Q

What makes up the kidney?

A

Capsule
Medulla
Cortex
Adipose tissue

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17
Q

How does pressure affect filtration?

A

Favours filtraion: glomerular capillary bp
Opposes filtration: fluid pressure in Bowman’s space, osmotic forces in the protein and plasma (pulling water back)

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18
Q

How does size affect filtration?

A

Small molecules and ions up to 10kDa can pass freely (glucose, uric acid, potassium, creatinine)
Larger molecules restricted (plasma proteins like albumin)

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19
Q

How does charge affect filtration?

A

Glomerular basement membrane has a fixed negative charge so repels negatively charged ions (albumin)
Neutral or positive molecules can get through easier

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20
Q

How does rate of blood flow affect filtration?

A

GFR higher with lower flow in afferent
GFR lower with really high flow (peaks in the middle) in efferent

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21
Q

How much urine is produced?

A

1ml per minute

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22
Q

How does protein binding affect filtration?

A

Bound to protein more likely to stay within system
Filter fluid usually protein free
Affects drugs, calcium, thryoxine

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23
Q

What causes nephrotic syndrome?

A

Damage to filtration barrier causing protein leaking (albumin, clotting cascade, infection defence)
Main cause is diabetes

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24
Q

What is glomerular filtration rate?

A

filtration volume per unit time (minutes)

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25
What determines GFR?
Net filtration pressure Permeability of filtration barrier Surface area available for filtration
26
What regulates GFR?
Sympathetic NS - strong symp stimulation constricts AA, decreased renal blood flow and gfr (important in bleeding, shock) Hormones/autocoids
27
Eqtn for GFR
GFR = KF(filtration coefficient) x (PGC - (PBS + πGC))
28
How do NSAIDs affect kidney?
Constrict AA Decrease GFR
29
What are good markers to measure GFR?
Not secreted or absorbed by nephron Freely filtered Not metabolised Creatinine usually used (is secreted by tubules)
30
What is a normal GFR?
125ml/min
31
What can affect creatinine?
Age, gender, ethnicity, height, weight, renal tubule handling Dietary protein intake, creatinine supplements, medications
32
Examples of markers for measuring GFR
Creatinine (normally used) Cystatin C Inulin (gold standard)
33
Where does filtration occur in kidneys?
Glomerulus from capillaries into Bowman's space across barrier of several layers
34
What maintains GFR?
Autoregulation and tubuloglomerular feedback
35
What is acidosis?
Disorder tending to make blood more acid than normal
36
What is alkalosis?
Disorder tending to make blood more alkaline than normal
37
What is acidemia?
Low blood pH
38
What is alkalemia?
High blood pH
39
What can affect blood pH?
Resp - CO2 conc Metabolic - intrinsic acid (products of metabolism), extrinsic acid (diet, toxins), buffer capacity (bicarb) Central relationship between bicarbonate and CO2
40
What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch eqtn?
pH = pKa + log([A-]/[HA])
41
What is the HH eqtn for carbonic acid? (don't need to memorise)
pH = pKaH2CO3 + log([HCO3-]/[H2CO3]) pH = 6.1 + log([HCO3-]/0.03 x pCO2)
42
What do you measure in an ABG?
pH pO2 pCO2 HCO3- / Std HCO3- Base excess May include other measures (eg lactate, Na+, K+)
43
What is standard bicarbonate (std HCO3-)
The bicarbonate conc standardised to pCO2 5.3kPa and temp 37 (what the bicarb would be if everything else was sorted out)
44
What is base excess?
How much acid would be required to return pH to normal under standard conditions Base excess in acidosis = negative
45
What is the absolute bicarbonate affected by?
respiratory and metabolic components
46
Clinical features of metabolic acidosis
Tachypnoea, sighing respirations hyperventilation to increase CO2 excretion Long term- growth issues in children, muscle wasting
47
What is the anion gap?
[Na+] + [K+] – [Cl-] – [HCO3-] Normal 10-16 Created artificially by what is measured in the bloodstream Theoretical to diagnose metabolic acidosis
48
What is happening in a high anion gap?
Cl- normal Bicarb low
49
What can cause high anion gap acidoses?
Renal failure Lactic acidosis Ketoacidosis Acid ingestion (eg salicylate poisoning)
50
What causes a normal anion gap?
GI HCO3- loss: Diarrhoea, small bowel fistula, urinary diversion Renal tubular acidosis
51
What can cause metabolic alkalosis?
Alkali ingestion GI acid loss: vomiting Renal acid loss: hyperaldosteronism, hypokalaemia
52
Compensatory mechanism for alkalosis
Limited by hypoxic drive Hypoventilation renal bicarbonate excretion
53
What causes respiratory acidosis?
Any cause of resp failure
54
What is respiratory acidosis?
CO2 retention leading to increased carbonic acid dissociation
55
What is the compensatory mechanism for resp acidosis?
Increased renal H+ excretion and bicarbonate retention (but only if chronic) If not present = come on suddenly
56
What is respiratory alkalosis?
CO2 depletion due to hyperventilation Causes: type 1 resp failure, anxiety/panic
57
What is the compensatory mechanism for resp?
Increased renal bicarbonate loss (if chronic)
58
What do these suggest: pO2: 10,1kpa pCO2: 3.5kpa pH: 7.11 std HCO3-: 9mmol/L Base excess: -19.7 Glucose 53 mmol/L
Metabolic acidosis from diabetic ketoacidosis
59
What do these suggest: pO2: 7.8kpa pCO2: 3.9kpa pH: 7.5 std HCO3-: 22 Base excess: 0
Respiratory alkalosis
60
What are the normal values for pO2 and pCO2?
pO2: 9.5-12kpa pCO2: 4.6-6.0kpa
61
What are the normal values for standard HCO3-?
22-26mmol/L
62
What are the normal values for base excess?
0-2
63
What do these suggest? pO2: 11kpa pCO2: 5.4kpa pH: 7.47 std HCO3-: 28mmol/L base excess: 5mEq/L
Metabolic alkalosis
64
What do these suggest: pO2: 7.9kpa pCO2: 8.9kpa pH: 7.29 std HCO3-: 27.9mmol/L base excess: 3.8mEq/L
Respiratory acidosis
65
What do these suggest? pO2: 8.7kpa pCO2: 7.3kpa pH: 7.13 std HCO3-: 18mmol/L base excess: -10mEq/L
Mixed acidosis
66
What is the rate of renal blood flow?
1250ml/min
67
What is the rate of glomerular filtration?
120ml/min
68
What is the rate of renal plasma flow?
700ml/min
69
What are proximal tubules and what do they do?
Metabolically active cells – lots of mitochondria Active reabsorption of multiple solutes Sodium gradient generated by Na/K ATPases Vulnerable to hypoxia and toxicity
70
What is renal glycosuria?
Defect: sodium glucose transporter 2 (SGLT2) Mechanism: failure of glucose reabsorption Benign
71
What are SGLT2 inhibitors used for?
Treatments for type 2 diabetes (as more glucose passed out in urine) Used in heart failure and chronic kidney disease
72
What is aminoaciduria: cystinuria?
Defect: renal basic amino acid transporter (rBAT) Mechanism: Failure of cystine reabsorption, increased urinary cystine concentration – stone formation
73
What is aminoaciduria?
an abnormal amount of amino acids in the urine
74
What is hypophosphataemic rickets?
Commonest form is X-linked hypophosphataemic rickets (XLH) Defect: PHEX - zinc dependent metalloprotease PHEX mutation results in increase FGF-23 levels, leading to decreased expression and activity of NaPi-II in proximal tubule Can't be fixed by adding vit D as an issue with phosphate
75
What is hypophosphataemia?
a plasma phosphate concentration of less than 0.8 mmol/L
76
How does bicarbonate reabsorption work?
Acid cycles between tubular cells and lumen Na+ and HCO3- reabsorbed into blood
77
What is proximal renal tubular acidosis?
Defect: Na/H antiporter Mechanism: Failure of bicarbonate reabsorption Clinical features: Acidosis, impaired growth Treatment: Bicarbonate supplementation
78
What is Fanconi syndrome?
Mechanism: generalised proximal tubular dysfunction, possibly due to failure to generate sodium gradient by Na/K ATPase Causes: genetic, myeloma, lead poisoning
79
What does the loop of Henle do?
Generates medullary concentration gradient Active Na reabsorption in thick ascending limb
80
What do the distal tubule and collecting duct do?
Distal tubule and cortical collecting duct allow “fine tuning” of sodium reabsorption, potassium and acid-base balance Collecting duct mediates water reabsorption and urine concentration
81
What does aldosterone do?
Na and K in tubular lumen 3Na+ into blood stream, 2K+ out into lumen = gradient Bicarbonate and potassium reabsorbed Exchanges sodium for potassium or acid acts on the principal cells of the collecting ducts in the nephron increases the expression of apical epithelial Na+ channels (ENaC) to reabsorb urinary sodium
82
What are the juxtaglomerular apparatus cells like?
Thicker cells Less actin/myosin but lots of granules containing renin Increased number of smooth muscle cells Cells act as barometer to changes in BP (low BP, less distended walls, renin release)
83
What is the filtration barrier in the kidney?
Fluid goes from the blood to the Bowman's space - (the filtrate) The distal part of the nephron (tubule) responsible for secretion and reabsorption
84
What is the anatomical position of pancreas?
Retroperitoneal, posterior to greater curvature of stomach 12-15cm long, head is near C-portion of duodenum
85
What are the cell types in the pancreas?
small clusters of glandular epithelial cells 98-99% of cells are clusters called acini exocrine functions = acinar endocrine functions = islet
86
What do acinar cells do in pancreas?
Manufacture and secrete fluid and digestive enzymes, called pancreatic juice, which is released into the gut
87
What do islet cells do in pancreas?
Manufacture and release several peptide hormones into portal vein
88
What do the islet cells do?
Site of insulin (beta cells) and glucagon (alpha cells) secretion in the pancreas
89
What is the role of insulin?
Reduce glucose output from liver and increases glucose storage - decreases glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis Suppresses lipolysis and breakdown of muscle Helps with protein synthesis Important for storing energy
90
What is the role of glucagon?
Mobilises glucose by breakdown of fatty and amino acids Stimulates peripheral release of gluconeogenic precursors (AA, glycerol), lipolysis
91
What do alpha and beta islet cells secrete?
Alpha - glucagon Beta - insulin
92
What are the affects on glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis from insulin and glucagon?
Insulin decreases (glucose levels go down) Glucagon increases
93
How is insulin secreted by beta cell?
High glucose levels Glucose enters cells (GLUT2) and is phosphorylated by glucokinase - glucose-6-phosphate ADP to ATP ATP closes potassium channel so K can't leave Cell membrane depolarised, Ca voltage channel opens and Ca moves in Promotes exocytosis of proinsulin
94
What is the structure of proinsulin?
Proinsulin contains the A and B chains of insulin joined by C peptide Disulfide bridges link A and B chains Presence of C peptide implies endogenous insulin production
95
What makes up the biphasic insulin release?
B cells sense glucose rising and want to metabolise it First phase: rapid release of stored product Second phase: slower release of newly synthesised hormone
96
How is glucose sensed?
Primary glucose sensors in the pancreatic islets Also in medulla, hypothalamus and carotid bodies Sensory cells in gut wall also stimulate insulin release from pancreas - incretins
97
What happens when glucose too high?
Body makes glycogen in short term (glycogenesis) Long term lipogenesis
98
What happens when glucose is too low?
Short term glycogenolysis Long term gluconeogenesis from amino acids/lactate
99
What are incretins?
Gut hormones stimulating insulin release, released after eating Slow rate of gastric emptying
100
What does dipeptidyl peptidase IV do?
Cleaves GLP-1 molecule making its inactive Can't stimulate beta-cells to make more insulin Prevents hypoglycaemia
101
What happens when not eating for period of time?
In fasting state, glucose comes from liver Muscles use free-fatty acids for fuel Insulin levels are low
102
What happens after eating?
Glucose rises Insulin secreted and alpha cells suppressed 40% of glucose goes to liver, 60% goes to periphery (muscles mostly) Excess glucose converted into fats
103
How does CHO regulation work?
hypoglycaemia stimulates glucagon release glycogen converted to glucose and glucose from AA/lactic acids glucose released from liver - normal levels if glucose continues to rise, hyperglycaemia inhibits glucagon hyperglycaemia releases insulin
104
How does vasoconstriction of afferent arteriole affect GFR?
Decreases GFR Decreased renal blood flow decreases Pgc
105
How does vasodilation of afferent arteriole affect GFR?
Increases GFR Increased renal blood flow so increased Pgc
106
How does vasoconstriction of efferent arteriole affect GFR?
Increases GFR Decreased renal blood flow after glomerulus so more blood in glomerular capillaries, increases Pgc
107
How does vasodilation of efferent arteriole affect GFR?
Decreases GFR Less blood resistance post glomerulus so decreased Pgc
108
Eqtn for net ultrafiltration pressure in glomerulus
Pgc - (Pbs + πgc)
109
What does Pgc mean?
Hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillary
110
What does Pbs mean?
Hydrostatic pressure in filtrate in Bowman's space
111
What does πgc mean?
Oncotic pressure, the concentration of protein in capillary blood in the glomerulus
112
How does a decrease in the concentration of plasma proteins affect GFR?
Increases GFR as decreases oncotic pressure
113
How does an increase in conc of plasma proteins affect GFR?
Decreases GFR as higher oncotic pressure
114
What could cause an increase in Pbs and how does that affect GFR?
Pbs can be increased by blockage of urine (e.g. a stone) Decreases GFR
115
What happens when Y chromosome present? (46XY)
Y chromosome contains SRY gene on distal part of short arm SRY initiates steps to form testes from undifferentiated gonad Testes produce mullerian inhibiting factor Which prevents mullerian duct development
116
What happens when no Y chromosome is present? (46XX)
Ovaries and Mullerian ducts will form Uterus and fallopian tubes form
117
Where are the spermatozoa produced?
Testis in spermatogenesis
118
What makes up ejaculation?
Spermatozoa and seminal plasma
119
Where in the testis is sperm produced and which cells promote sperm production?
seminiferous tubules sertoli cells promote sperm cell development
120
What is the purpose of blood testis barrier?
tight junctions between sertoli cells; separating sperm from immune system
121
What do seminiferous tubules in testis drain into?
rete testis
122
Why are the testis outside the body?
Testis need 35 degree heat Further from body, arterial blood cools as it descends down to testes
123
What does mitosis produce and where does it occur?
produces 2 genetically identical daughter cells occurs in tissue repair & embryonic growth
124
What does meiosis produce?
Gamete haploid cells required for sexual reproduction
125
Where does mitosis occur in males?
Seminiferous tubules
126
What does spermatogonia produce and what do they do?
produce 2 kinds of daughter cells – type A remain outside blood-testis barrier & produce more daughter cells until death – type B differentiate into primary spermatocytes (pass through blood testis barrier)
127
What does spermiogenesis do?
Transforms spermatids into spermatozoa Discards excess cytoplasm and grows tails
128
How long does spermatogenesis take?
64 days
129
How does hypothalamo-pituitary-testicular axis work?
1. The hypothalamus secretes GnRH. 2. GnRH to anterior pituitary gland receptors 3. promotes LH and FSH release 4. LH and FSH travel in the bloodstream to the testicles. 5. LH stimulates Leydig cells in testicles to produce testosterone 6. FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to produce androgen binding globulin (ABG) and inhibin: - ABG binds to testosterone and prevents it from leaving the seminiferous tubules - Inhibin helps support spermatogenesis and inhibits the production of FSH, LH and GnRH 7. Negative feedback = decreased LH and FSH
130
What is in the head of the sperm cell?
nucleus contains haploid set of chromosomes acrosome contains enzymes that penetrate the egg basal body
131
What is in the midpiece of the sperm cell tail?
Mitochondria
132
What are the different spermatic ducts?
Efferent ductules – 12 small ciliated ducts collecting sperm from the rete testes and transporting it to the epididymis Epididymis – site of sperm maturation & storage Ductus (vas) deferens Ejaculatory duct
133
What else makes up semen apart from sperm?
fructose provide energy for sperm motility fibrinogen clotting enzymes convert fibrinogen to fibrin causing semen to clot fibrinolysin liquefies semen within 30 mins prostaglandins stimulate female peristaltic contractions
134
Components of semen
60% seminal vesicle fluid, 30% prostatic & 10% sperm and trace of bulbourethral fluid
135
How much seminal fluid (semen) is expelled during orgasm?
2-5ml
136
How does the hypothalamo-pituitary-gonadal axis work? (females)
1. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates LH and FSH release from anterior pituitary 2. FSH binds to granulosa cells to stimulate follicle growth, permit the conversion of androgens to oestrogens and stimulate inhibin secretion 3. LH acts on theca cells to stimulate production and secretion of androgens 4. moderate oestrogen and progesterone negative feedback
137
What are the phases of the ovarian cycle?
Follicular phase Ovulation Luteal phase
138
What are the phases of the uterine cycle?
Proliferative phase- alongside follicular, preparing for fertilisation Secretory phase- alongside luteal phase, Menses- start of new cycle in absence of fertilisation
139
What happens in the proliferative phase in the uterine cycle?
Preparing the reproductive tract for fertilisation and implantation Oestrogen initiates - fallopian tube formation - thickening of the endometrium - increased growth and motility of the myometrium and production of a thin alkaline cervical mucus (to facilitate sperm transport).
140
What happens in the secretory phase in the uterine cycle?
Progesterone stimulates: - further thickening of the endometrium into a glandular secretory form - thickening of the myometrium - reduction of motility of the myometrium - thick acidic cervical mucus production (a hostile environment to prevent polyspermy), - changes in mammary tissue
141
What is the menses?
marks the beginning of a new menstrual cycle occurs in the absence of fertilisation once the corpus luteum has broken down and the internal lining of the uterus is shed.
142
What happens during the follicular phase?
- Beginning of new cycle - During menses follicles start to develop independently of gonadotropins - Increase in FSH and LH stimulate oestrogen and growth - Oestrogen rises, FSH decreases so only one follicle can complete cycle - High oestrogen, positive feedback, LH surge
143
What happens during the luteal phase in ovarian cycle?
- corpus luteum produces oestrogens, progesterone and inhibin to maintain conditions for fertilisation and implantation - absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum spontaneously regresses after 14 days (hormones fall and HPG goes back to start - with fertilisation, the syncytiotrophoblast of the embryo produces human chorionic gonadotropin (HcG), exerting a luteinising effect, maintaining the corpus luteum
144
When does ovulation occur?
In response to LH surge in follicular phase
145
What happens in ovulation?
After LH surge, follicle ruptures Oocyte moves to fallopian tube by fimbria Viable for fertilisation for 24hours
146
What happens to follicle after ovulation?
follicle remains luteinised, secreting oestrogen and now also progesterone, reverting back to negative feedback on the HPG axis
147
What happens on the first day of fertilisation?
4-7 hours after gamete fusion the two sets of haploid chromosomes form the female and male pronucleus Syngamy
148
What happens in syngamy?
Male and Female pronucleus migrate to centre (cytoskeletal system plays important role) Haploid chromosomes synthesize DNA in preparation for the first mitotic division The pronuclear membranes breakdown The mitotic metaphase spindle forms
149
What happens on day 2 of fertilisation?
Max of 4 cells Approx 24 hours after fertilisation, the ooplasm divides into two equal halves Cleavage
150
Why is cleavage important in embryo?
Successive cleavages result in an increase in cell number – essential to provide sufficient cells for differentiation
151
What happens on day 3 of fertilisation?
5 cells Early cleavage stage embryos are ‘totipotent
152
What happens on day 4 of fertilisation?
Compaction Cells flatten and maximise intracellular contacts Tight junctions form Polarisation of outer cells
153
What happens on day 5 of fertilisation?
Trophectoderm forms Fluid filled cavity expands Blastocyst starts to appear
154
What happens during hatching past day 6?
Blastocyst expansion and enzymatic factors cause the embryo to hatch from the ZP. Necessary for implantation
155
What is the energy requirement like for early embryo?
Early embryo (fertilisation to 4 cell stage) has lower energy consumption From 5 cell stage, embryo needs energy for activity (high glucose and complex nutrient requirements)
156
Where do exogenous nutrients come from in vivo?
Cumulus cells Fallopian tube secretions Uterine secretions Growth factors and cytokines
157
What are the stages of embryonic attachment/implantation?
apposition- unstable adhesion of blastocyst to uterine wall attachment- stable adhesion invasion - grows into uterine wall, penetrates endometrium
158
What happens during expansion on day 5-6 of fertilisation?
Cavity expands Diameter increases ZP thins
159
What is the decidual reaction?
Progesterone primed endometrial stromal cells adjacent to the blastocyst differentiate into metabolically active, secretory cells – Decidual Cells
160
What is HCG?
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin Produced in placenta Rise in HCG from day 7-8 signify onset of implantation
161
What is the role of HCG?
Essential to sustain early pregnancy Supports the corpus luteum (progesterone production) Interacts with the endometrium via specific receptors
162
How does Pre-implantation Genetic Diagnosis work?
involves testing cell(s) from embryos created outside the body by IVF for a genetic disorder
163
What does testosterone do?
Stimulates spermatogenesis in the testes Maintenance of libido (sexual drive) Development of secondary sexual characteristics (pubic, axillary and facial hair) Growth of external genitalia Deepening of voice Muscle growth Bone growth Promotion of anabolic reactions
164
Function of LH in males
stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone
165
Function of FSH in males
Drives sperm production in the Sertoli cells of the testes (spermatogenesis) Synthesis of proteins important for the production and action of steroid hormones
166
Function of LH and FSH in females
Stimulate the ovary to produce mature gametes, as well as synthesise and secrete oestrogens and progestins
167
What does LH bind to in females?
theca cells (to produce progestins and androgens) on developing follicles as well as granulosa cells corpus luteum after ovulation
168
What is corpus luteum?
tissue in the ovary that forms at the site of a ruptured follicle following ovulation. It produces oestrogens, progesterone and inhibin to maintain conditions for fertilisation and implantation
169
What does FSH bind to granulosa cells to do?
- Increase production of enzymes that catalyse the production of steroid hormones, stimulating follicle growth - Increase production of activins and inhibins - Help convert androgens to oestrogen
170
What are some epigenetic factors?
Histone modification DNA methylation
171
What is incontinence?
lack of voluntary control over urination or defecation
172
How is urine stored?**
Low pressure
173
What is the neural control of continence like in non-potty trained children?
coordinated voiding no control of when- reflex bladder
174
What is the neural control of continence like in adults?
coordinated voiding control of when
175
What is the neural control of continence like in elderly?
coordinated voiding no control of when- reflex bladder
176
What happens during bladder filling?
b2-3 receptors in wall of bladder activated, bladder relaxtion hypogastric nerve causes bladder neck contraction pudendal nerve causes tonic contraction of sphincter
177
What happens during bladder emptying?
Sympathetic off, neck relaxation sphincter muscle and pelvic floor muscles relax The bladder simultaneously contracts and starts to empty itself of urine
178
What is the guarding reflex?
Symp outflow in hypogastric nerve to bladder outlet Pudendal outflow to external urethral sphincter a progressive, involuntary increase in the external urethral sphincter activity during bladder filling
179
What is the voiding reflex?
Intense bladder afferent firing in pelvic nerve Spinobulbospinal reflex triggered Parasympathetic outflow Bladder contraction Bladder neck relaxation and sphincter relaxation
180
What is the spinobulbospinal reflex?
Afferent signals to periaqueductal gray Pontine micturition centre triggered
181
What is lower urinary tract dysfunction?
Failure to store/ void - bladder or outlet issue
182
What is stress incontinence?
Leakage on coughing, straining Urethral hypermobility, weakness in pelvic floor More common in older women
183
What is urgency incontinence?
Leakage with urgency Sensory symptom, detrusor overactivity
184
What is mixed incontinence?
Loss of urine associated with urgency and exertion
185
What is overflow incontinence?
Underactivity of the bladder or bladder outlet obstruction
186
What is total incontinence?
Continuous urine leakage Normally anatomical problems
187
What is the function of the urinary tract?
To collect the continuously produced urine To store it under safe conditions To void it when socially appropriate
188
Where is the sacral micturition centre?
s2-4
189
What does the proximal CT do?
active reabsorption: Na, Cl, glucose, amino acids, HCO3 confined to renal cortex
190
What does the loop of Henle do?
Na reabsorption generation of medullary concentration gradient Development of a hypertonic interstitum urinary dilution
191
What does the distal CT do?
fine regulation of Na reabsorption, K+ and acid base balance Impermeable to passive movement of water and Na Absorbs calcium
192
What does the collecting duct do?
similar to distal tubule, + acid secretion, regulated H2O reabsorption concentrating urine
193
What is cystinuria?
tubular defect in uptake of cystine autosomal rec increase urinary cystine conc
194
What does SGLT2 do?
responsible for reabsorption of 80-90% of the glucose filtered by the kidney glomerulus
195
Functions of the skin
Waterproof barrier Physical barrier Vitamin D synthesis Endocrine organ UV barrier Barrier to infection Immune organ Sensory organ Thermoregulation Energy store / Shock absorber
196
What are the 3 layers of the skin?
Epidermis (outermost) Dermis Subcutis
197
How is the skin waterproof?
Tight junctions between cells in stratum granulosum, epidermal lipids and keratin in stratum corneum form both an inside-out and outside-in barrier to water Prevents transepidermal water loss
198
What are the functions of the epidermis?
Waterproofing Physical barrier Immune function Vitamin D synthesis (Endocrine) UV protection Thermoregulation
199
What are the functions of the dermis?
Thermoregulation Vitamin D synthesis (Endocrine) Sensory organ
200
What are the functions of the subcutis?
Thermoregulation Energy reserve Vitamin D storage Endocrine organ Shock absorber
201
How does the skin work as a physical barrier?
Structure of skin helps resist trauma Stratified epithelium helps resist abrasive forces Fat in subcutis acts as shock absorber
202
How is vit D synthesised?
Sunlight cleaves 7-dehydrocholesterol into cholecalciferol (D3) Converted in the liver to 25-hydroxyvitaminD3 Converted in the kidney to 1,25-dihydroxyvitaminD
203
What does vit D do?
Maintains calcium balance in the body
204
How is sex determined?
Migration of primordial germ cells from dorsal endoderm to urogenital ridge by weeks 6-8 Indifferent gonad develops Presence of SRY gene (on Y chromosome) = male, absence = female
205
When in utero do the testes differentiate?
Week 9
206
When in utero do the ovaries develop?
Present by weeks 11-12
207
Process of male sex development
XY chromosomes- SRY gene present on Y Stimulates primitive sex cords to form testis cords Portion of testis cords breaks off to form rete testis Remaining testis cords form germ cells and sertoli cells Sertoli cells produce anti-mullerian hormone and mullerian ducts degenerate Leydig cells between testis cords produce testosterone in week 8
208
Pathway of DHEA to DHT
DHEA Androstenedione Testosterone Dihydrotestosterone
209
How does female internal genitalia develop?
No testosterone so mullerian ducts develop This system goes on to form uterus, fallopian tubes and upper 1/3 of vagina
210
How does male internal genitalia develop?
Testosterone and AMH present Mullerian ducts regress Wolffian system develops into epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, ejaculatory ducts
211
How does female external genitalia develop?
Cloacal folds form genital tubercle Genital tubercle elongates a little to form clitoris Urethral folds form labia minora Genital swellings form labia majoria UG groove stays open to form vestibule
212
How does male external genitalia develop?
Cloacal folds form genital tubercle Rapid elongation of genital tubercle becomes phallus Urethral folds are pulled to form groove which closes to form penile urethra Genital swellings become scrotal swellings
213
What hormone action takes place on the skin?
Androgens stimulate hair follicles and sebaceous glands Thyroxine acts on keratinocytes, follicles, sebaceous glands, fibroblasts and eccrine glands Melanocyte stimulating hormone increases skin pigmentation
214
What hormone synthesis takes place on the skin?
Androgen (5α-dihydrotestosterone) synthesis Fibroblasts make binding protein for insulin-like growth factor 1 to increase effectiveness Vit D3
215
How do UV-A and B damage the skin?
Burns Suppress action of Langerhans cells Photo-aging DNA damage (skin cancers)
216
What does skin colour depend on?
Melanin Carotenoids Oxy/deoxyhaemoglobin
217
Where is melanin synthesised?
Melanosomes in melanocytes (which share with keratinocytes nearby)
218
Which enzyme helps create melanin
Tyrosinase makes melanin from tyrosine
219
What are the 2 types of melanin?
Pheomelanin (red/yellow) Eumelanin (brown/black), darker skin = more eumelanin Everyone has both present
220
Does melanocyte density vary across the body?
Yes More on face, arms Small amount on palms
221
What does histamine release in the skin cause?
Vasodilation, swelling, itching UV light can cause histamine release
222
What happens in immediate pigment darkening?
photooxidation of existing melanin redistribution of melanosomes occurs within minutes and lasts hours-days
223
What happens in persistent pigment darkening?
oxidation of melanin occurs within hours, lasts 3-5 days
224
What happens in delayed tanning?
UVB better than UVA at stimulating increased melanin synthesis Occurs 2-3 days after UV exposure, maximal at 10-28 days
225
What happens when the skin is damaged?
Keratinocytes secrete cytokines which recruit immune cells
226
How is the skin a sensory organ?
Merkel cells in basal epidermis: light touch Encapsulated mechanoreceptors in dermis: pressure, touch, vibration Sensory nerve endings: pain, itch, temp
227
How much do you sweat an hour?
1-3 L sweat per hour
228
What is the insulating layer in the skin?
Subcutaneous fat
229
How does the body lose heat via the skin?
Cutaneous blood flow Eccrine sweating
230
How does piloerection (goosebumps) work?
Arrector pili muscles innervated by sympathetic α1-adrenergic fibres Contraction raises cutaneous hairs Likely little significant impact on heat conservation
231
What does the posterior pituitary gland secrete?
ADH and oxytocin
232
Where are ADH and oxytocin made?
supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus stored in the posterior pituitary gland
233
What does ADH do?
acts on the kidney’s collecting ducts to increase water reabsorption
234
How does ADH secretion happen?
Osmolarity increases Chemoreceptors contract and afferent signals sent to hypothalamus ADH secretion increased
235
What is the action of ADH?
Acts through a G-protein coupled receptor to increase the transcription and insertion of Aquaporin–2 channels to the apical membrane of the distal convoluted tubes and collecting ducts Permeability of DCT and CD to water increases Water moves back into bloodstream Total blood volume increases
236
What inhibits ADH release?
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), which is released by stretched atria in response to increases in blood pressure
237
What is osmolality?
Concentration of particles per kilo of fluid
238
What is osmolarity?
Concentration of particles per litre of solution
239
What stimulates oxytocin?
Infant suckling on nipple Baby's head increasing pressure on cervix
240
What are the main functions of oxytocin?
regulation of lactation control of uterine contractions in labour
241
What are the 3 hormone structures?
Steroids (cortisol) Peptides (insulin) Thyroid hormones (thyroxine)
242
What are catecholamines synthesised from?
Tyrosine
243
What are 3 catecholamines?
Dopamine Adrenaline Noradrenaline
244
How is thyroxine synthesised?
Iodide from plasma taken up and oxidised to iodine by thyroperoxidase (TPO) Iodine binds to tyrosine residues of thryoglobulin forming diiodotyrosine TPO converts DIT to T3 and T4
245
What receptors can hormones have an effect through?
Cell surface receptors (G protein coupled), e.g. for insulin Intracellular receptors, e.g. steroid
246
What are thyroid hormones important for?
Basal metabolic rate growth
247
What are parathyroid hormones important for?
Calcium regulation
248
What does cortisol do?
Glucose regulation Inflammation
249
What does the anterior pituitary secrete?
Adrenocorticotrophic hormone Thyroid stimulating hormone Growth hormone LH FSH Prolactin
250
What is the blood supply of the anterior pituitary?
has no arterial blood supply but receives blood through a portal venous circulation from the hypothalamus
251
What does the hypothalamus do?
Important for homeostasis & primitive functions – appetite, thirst, sleep, temperature regulation Control of autonomic function via brainstem autonomic centres Control of endocrine function via pituitary gland
252
What are the releasing hormones of the hypothalamus?
Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) for TSH Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH) for ACTH Gonadotropin releasing hormone for FSH and LH GH releasing hormone (GHRH) (Somatostatin – inhibitory) for GH Dopamine (inhibitory) for Prolactin
253
What does ACTH regulate?
Cortisol
254
How does ACTH regulate glucocorticoid synthesis?
Acutely stimulates cortisol release Stimulates corticosteroid synthesis (and capacity) CRH stimulates ACTH release Negative feedback of cortisol on CRH and ACTH production
255
What stimulates and suppresses growth hormone?
Released throughout life Pulsatile Stimulated by low glucose, exercise, sleep Suppressed by hyperglycaemia Effects mediated by GH and IGF1
256
What are the actions of growth hormone?
Linear growth in kids Acquisition of bone mass Stimulates: protein synthesis, lipolysis, glucose metabolism Regulates body composition Psychological well being
257
What happens to TSH and thyroxine in pituitary failure?
Both low
258
What do LH and FSH stimulate?
LH stimulates sex hormone secretion FSH stimulates development of follicles
259
What does prolactin do?
Essential for lactation Levels increase dramatically in pregnancy and during breast-feeding Inhibits gonadal activity through central suppression of GnRH
260
What does the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland cortex synthesise?
Mineralocorticoids- aldosterone
261
What does the zona fasciculata of the adrenal gland cortex synthesise?
Glucocorticoids- cortisol
262
What does the zona reticularis in the adrenal gland cortex synthesise?
Androgens – DHEA, androstenedione
263
What does the medulla of the adrenal gland synthesise?
Catecholamines
264
What is the structure of corticosteroids?
Cholesterol precursor for all adrenal steroidogenesis three cyclohexane rings single cyclopentane ring
265
What do corticosteroids do?
Bind to specific intracellular receptors Alter gene transcription directly or indirectly Exact action depends on structure, ability to bind specific receptors
266
What do corticosteroids do?
Bind to specific intracellular receptors Alter gene transcription directly or indirectly Exact action depends on structure, ability to bind specific receptors
267
What do glucocorticoids do?
Important in homeostasis, e.g. response to stress Essential to life Increase glucose mobilisation Maintenance of circulation Immunomodulation
268
How are glucocorticoids transported?
In circulation heavily bound to proteins, e.g. 90% to Corticosteroid-Binding Globulin, 5% to albumin
269
What regulates glucocorticoid synthesis?
ACTH and CRH Diurnal rhythm Stress Illness
270
Describe the HPA axis
hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis Stress/blood loss/cytokines trigger CRH from hypothalamus CRH triggers ACTH from anterior pituitary ACTH binds to MC2r at adrenal glands and stimulates glucocorticoids release Cortisol Cortisol negative feedback to HT
271
What are the 2 main mineralocorticoids?
Deoxycorticosterone Aldosterone
272
What is the main function of mineralocorticoids?
Critical to salt and water balance
273
What is the action of aldosterone?
acts on the principal cells of the collecting ducts in the nephron. increases the expression of apical epithelial Na+ channels (ENaC) to reabsorb urinary sodium
274
What are the adrenal androgens?
Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) Androstenedione Both very weak androgens
275
What is the adrenal medulla?
Specialised ganglia supplied by sympathetic preganglionic neurones Part of the autonomic NS Main site of adrenaline synthesis
276
What is the production of catecholamines in the adrenal medulla?
80% adrenaline 20% noradrenaline Small amounts of dopamine
277
Can testosterone be converted to oestrogen?
Yes Via aromatase to oestradiol
278
Can DHT be converted to oestrogen?
No
279
Which hormone drives development of male external genitalia?
Androgens- DHT
280
Which hormone drives development of female external genitalia?
Oestrogen
281
What can stimulate growth hormone?
Exercise Stress Hypoglycaemia Fasting High protein meals Perinatal development Puberty
282
What can suppress growth hormone?
Hypothyroidism Hyperglycaemia High carbohydrate meals Glucocorticoid excess Aging
283
What is puberty?
Describes the physiological, morphological, and behavioural changes as the gonads switch from infantile to adult forms
284
What are the definitive signs of puberty?
Females: first menstrual bleed Males: first ejaculation
285
What can determine growth?
Parental phenotype and genotype Quality and duration of pregnancy Nutrition Specific system and organ integrity Psycho-social environment Growth promoting hormones and factors
286
Where is growth hormone synthesised?
somatotroph cells in anterior pituitary
287
What happens to female secondary sex characteristics at puberty?
Ovarian oestrogens regulate the growth of breast and female genitalia Ovarian and adrenal androgens control pubic and axillary hair
288
What happens to male secondary sex characteristics at puberty?
Testicular androgens: –External genitalia and pubic hair growth –enlargement of larynx and laryngeal muscles, voice deepening
289
Difference between T3 and T4
T3 has 3 iodines attached, T4 has 4
290
How is T3 produced?
mono-deiodination of T4
291
What is T3?
The biologically active hormone
292
What happens when thyroid hormone reaches target cell?
Moves into cell nucleus by transmembrane transporter Changes action of mRNA that is produced
293
Which enzyme is responsible for the production of thyroid hormone?
Thyroid peroxidase
294
What would a thyroid function test look like in hypothyroidism?
Increased serum TSH Decreased serum T3 and T4
295
What would a thyroid function test look like in hyperthyroidism?
Decreased serum TSH High T3&4
296
What are the binding proteins of T4 and T3?
Albumin Transthyretin TBG
297
What does the parathyroid gland do?
Regulate calcium and phosphate levels Secrete parathyroid hormone in response low calcium or high phosphate
298
What does parathyroid hormone do?
Increases calcium reabsorption in renal distal tubule Increases intestinal calcium absorption (via activation of vitamin D) Increases calcium release from bone (stimulates osteoclast activity) Decrease phosphate reabsorption
299
What is the structure of pth and what does it bind to?
84 amino acid peptide but biological activity in first 34 amino acids Cleaved into smaller peptides Binds to G protein coupled receptors mainly in kidney and osteoblasts
300
What does the parathyroid hormone do to the kidney?
PTH increases distal tubular reabsorption of calcium (+ inhibition of PO4 reabsorption) PTH also stimulates production of the active form of vitamin D
301
What is the negative feedback of PTH?
Transcription inhibited by 1,25D3 Translation inhibited by increased serous calcium
302
What produces calcitonin?
thyroid c-cells
303
What does calcitonin do?
released in hypercalcaemia, inhibits bone resorption (by direct effect on osteoclasts) Not essential to life
304
What is food energy density?
kcal/g
305
How can you reduce the energy density of food?
Incorporating water Air Method of cooking Reduction of fats/sugar
306
What is energy compensation?
Adjustment of energy intake following the ingestion of a particular food
307
What is the role of alcohol in overconsumption?
Consumed in liquid form Least satiating macronutrient Efficiently oxidised at expense of fat Additive to total daily energy intake and stimulates intake
308
What type of imaging is used in the reproductive tract?
Ultrasound
309
What is renin released in response to?
Sympathetic stimulation Reduced sodium-chloride delivery to the distal convoluted tubule Decreased blood flow to the kidney
310
What is renin?
a peptide hormone released by the granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the kidney facilitates the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
311
What affect does angiotensin 2 have?
Increases ADH Increases thirst Vasoconstriction Stimulates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
312
What does aldosterone do?
promotes salt and water retention by acting at the distal convoluted tubule to increase expression of epithelial sodium channels. Increases the activity of the basolateral sodium-potassium ATP-ase
313
What is the direct renal mechanism for rising BP?
Blood volume or pressure rises More filtration, less reabsorption More leaves in urine Blood volume or pressure falls
314
What does cortisol do?
Increases plasma glucose Stimulate lipolysis in adipose tissue Immunosuppression Anti-inflammation Protein and fat metabolism Bone metabolism – limit osteoblast activity Regulate calcium absorption from the GI tract Regulate behaviour, mood and cognition through activity on the CNS
315
How is vitamin D synthesised?
7-dehydrocholesterol in the skin combined with UV B to form vitamin D 25-OH vitamin D in liver - Kidney to make 1,25 (OH)2 vitamin D to go to bone and intestine - Kidney to make 1,24,25- (OH)3 vitamin D to become calcitroic acid
316
What is the nephron?
Functional unit of kidney 1 million parallel make urine
317
What is the renal corpuscle?
Glomerulus and Bowman's capsule
318
What is ultrafiltration?
filtration that occurs under pressure
319
What do the PCT reabsorb into interstitium then capillary?
65% of water, sodium, K and Cl 100% of glucose, amino acids 85-90% of bicarbonate
320
What are symporters?
transporters that move two (or more) molecules in the same direction e.g. SGLTs
321
What are antiporters?
transporters that move two (or more) molecules in opposite directions e.g. Na+/H+ antiporter
322
What is cotransport?
movement of multiple solutes through the same channel
323
What happens to the concentration along the PCT?
solute concentration in the tubule decreases while the solute concentration in the interstitium increases
324
What does the thin descending limb of the loop of henle reabsorb?
Water passively through aquaporin-1 channels Small amounts of urea and sodium
325
What does the thin ascending limb of loop of henle reabsorb?
Sodium through ENaC Cl- Impermeable to water as no aquaporins
326
What happens at the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
Active sodium reabsorption through Na+/K+ ATPase Results in hypotonic solution to DCT
327
What does the collecting duct do?
mediates water reabsorption and maintains acid base homeostasis water reabsorbed through ADH and aquaporins
328
What is the role of the early DCT?
absorption of ions, including sodium, chloride and calcium. It is impermeable to water macula densa here
329
What are the main 2 cell types in late DCT and collecting duct?
Principal Intercalated
330
What do principal cells in the nephron do?
Na and water reabsorption and K excretion
331
What do intercalated cells in the nephron do?
secrete H or HCO3 for acid-base homeostasis
332
What happens to the hormones in menopause?
Ovaries have less functional follicles Less oestrogen and progesterone Less inhibition on hypothalamus and pituitary More GnRH More FSH and LH secreted erractically
333
When has a women entered menopause?
12 months since last period
334
Which cells in the parathyroid secrete PTH?
Chief cells
335
What does increased levels of aldosterone cause (for K+)?
reduced levels of potassium in the blood